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A error about "Address 0x0 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd" in c program under linux

- by MaiTiano

There is a piece of my program: height = atoi(argv[3]); width = atoi(argv[2]); sprintf(seqName,"%s", argv[1]); // strcpy(seqName, argv[1]); After compiling it, a exe file test is generated, then I use Valgrind to check it. Then I got the following message, however I cannot understand what it tends to tell me. Can anyone provide some kind help, Thanks. 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8) 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8) jl@ubuntu:~/work/dsr_analysis$ valgrind --tool=memcheck --leak-check=yes ./test ==28940== Memcheck, a memory error detector ==28940== Copyright (C) 2002-2009, and GNU GPL'd, by Julian Seward et al. ==28940== Using Valgrind-3.6.0.SVN-Debian and LibVEX; rerun with -h for copyright info ==28940== Command: ./test ==28940== ==28940== Invalid read of size 1 ==28940== at 0x40260CA: strcpy (mc_replace_strmem.c:311) ==28940== by 0x804A5C6: main (me_search.c:1428) ==28940== Address 0x0 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd ==28940== ==28940== ==28940== Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) ==28940== Access not within mapped region at address 0x0 ==28940== at 0x40260CA: strcpy (mc_replace_strmem.c:311) ==28940== by 0x804A5C6: main (me_search.c:1428) ==28940== If you believe this happened as a result of a stack ==28940== overflow in your program's main thread (unlikely but ==28940== possible), you can try to increase the size of the ==28940== main thread stack using the --main-stacksize= flag. ==28940== The main thread stack size used in this run was 8388608. ==28940== ==28940== HEAP SUMMARY: ==28940== in use at exit: 0 bytes in 0 blocks ==28940== total heap usage: 0 allocs, 0 frees, 0 bytes allocated ==28940== ==28940== All heap blocks were freed -- no leaks are possible ==28940== ==28940== For counts of detected and suppressed errors, rerun with: -v ==28940== ERROR SUMMARY: 1 errors from 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8)1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8) 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8)

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Efficient splitting of elements in a field

- by Gary

I have a field in a text file exported from a database. The field contains addresses but sometimes they are quite long and the database allows them to contain multiple lines. When exported, the newline character gets replaced with a dollar sign like this: first part of very long address$second part of very long address$third part of very long address Not every address has multiple lines and no address contains more than three lines. The length of each line is variable. I'm massaging the data for import into MS Access which is used for a mailmerge. I want to split the field on the $ sign if it's there but if the field only contains 1 line, I want to set my two extra output fields to a zero length string so that I don't wind up with blank lines in the address when it gets printed. I have an awk file that's working correctly on all the other data in the textfile but I need to get this last bit working. I tried the below code. Aside from the fact that I get a syntax error at the else, I'm not sure this is a good way to do what I want. This is being done with gawk on Windows. BEGIN { FS = "|" } $1 != "HEADER" { if ($6 ~ /\$/) split($6, arr, "$") address = arr[1] addresstwo = arr[2] addressthree = arr[3] addressLength = length(address) addressTwoLength = length(addresstwo) addressThreeLength = length(addressthree) else { address = $6 addressLength = length($6) addresstwo = "" addressTwoLength = length(addresstwo) addressthree = "" addressThreeLength = length(addressthree) } printf("%*s\t%*s\t\%*s\n", addressLength, address, addressTwoLength, addresstwo, addressThreeLength, addressthree) }

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i have made a from and want to connect it to a oracle 10g data base using php.can you please assume

- by nachiket-panse

http://www.freecsstemplates.org Released for free under a Creative Commons Attribution 2.5 License -- Sitename.com by Free Css Templates MANAGEMEINT INFORMATION SYSTEM <p class="style2">                                                                                             REGISTRY ENTRY FORM </p> <form id="form2" method="post" action=""> <p align="center"> </p> <p align="center"><span class="style3">JOB DESCRIPTION :</span>                   <textarea name="textarea"></textarea> </p> <p align="center"><span class="style3">QUANTITY :</span>           <input type="text" name="textfield5" /> </p> <p align="center"> <span class="style3">CONTACT PERSON </span>        <input type="text" name="textfield3" /> </p> <p align="center"> </p> <p align="center"><span class="style3">DIVISION CODE: <textarea name="textarea3"></textarea> </span></p> <p align="center"><span class="style3">ACCEPTANCE DATE </span>: <input type="text" name="textfield4" /> </p> <p align="center"><span class="style3">REFERENCE NUMBER :</span> <input type="text" name="textfield2" /> </p> <p align="center"><span class="style3">CLASSIFICATION :</span>        <input type="text" name="textfield" /></p> <p align="center"> </p> <p align="center"><span class="style3">CUMULATIVE COST: </span> <select name="select"> </select> </p> <p align="center"><span class="style3">PLANNING ENGR: </span> <textarea name="textarea2"></textarea> </p> <p align="center"><span class="style3">PLANNING: </span> <input type="text" name="textfield6" /> </p> <p align="center"> <span class="style3">FILL THE COMPLETION DATE: </span> <input type="text" name="textfield7" /> </p> <p align="center"><span class="style3">REMARKS: </span> <input type="text" name="textfield8" /> </p> <p align="center"> </p> <p align="center"> <input type="submit" name="SAVE" value="SAVE" /> <input type="submit" name="Submit2" value="LIST" /> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="ADD" /> <input type="submit" name="Submit3" value="CANCEL" /> <input type="submit" name="BACK" value="BACK" /></p> <p align="center"> </p> <p align="center"> </p> <p align="center"> </p> <p align="center"> </p> <p align="center"> </p> </form> <p align="center" class="style2"> </p>

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Is it possible to embed Cockburn style textual UML Use Case content in the code base to improve code

- by fooledbyprimes

experimenting with Cockburn use cases in code I was writing some complicated UI code. I decided to employ Cockburn use cases with fish,kite,and sea levels (discussed by Martin Fowler in his book 'UML Distilled'). I wrapped Cockburn use cases in static C# objects so that I could test logical conditions against static constants which represented steps in a UI workflow. The idea was that you could read the code and know what it was doing because the wrapped objects and their public contants gave you ENGLISH use cases via namespaces. Also, I was going to use reflection to pump out error messages that included the described use cases. The idea is that the stack trace could include some UI use case steps IN ENGLISH.... It turned out to be a fun way to achieve a mini,psuedo light-weight Domain Language but without having to write a DSL compiler. So my question is whether or not this is a good way to do this? Has anyone out there ever done something similar? c# example snippets follow Assume we have some aspx page which has 3 user controls (with lots of clickable stuff). User must click on stuff in one particular user control (possibly making some kind of selection) and then the UI must visually cue the user that the selection was successful. Now, while that item is selected, the user must browse through a gridview to find an item within one of the other user controls and then select something. This sounds like an easy thing to manage but the code can get ugly. In my case, the user controls all sent event messages which were captured by the main page. This way, the page acted like a central processor of UI events and could keep track of what happens when the user is clicking around. So, in the main aspx page, we capture the first user control's event. using MyCompany.MyApp.Web.UseCases; protected void MyFirstUserControl_SomeUIWorkflowRequestCommingIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { // some code here to respond and make "state" changes or whatever // // blah blah blah // finally we have this (how did we know to call fish level method?? because we knew when we wrote the code to send the event in the user control) UpdateUserInterfaceOnFishLevelUseCaseGoalSuccess(FishLevel.SomeNamedUIWorkflow.SelectedItemForPurchase) } protected void UpdateUserInterfaceOnFishLevelGoalSuccess(FishLevel.SomeNamedUIWorkflow goal) { switch (goal) { case FishLevel.SomeNamedUIWorkflow.NewMasterItemSelected: //call some UI related methods here including methods for the other user controls if necessary.... break; case FishLevel.SomeNamedUIWorkFlow.DrillDownOnDetails: //call some UI related methods here including methods for the other user controls if necessary.... break; case FishLevel.SomeNamedUIWorkFlow.CancelMultiSelect: //call some UI related methods here including methods for the other user controls if necessary.... break; // more cases... } } } //also we have protected void UpdateUserInterfaceOnSeaLevelGoalSuccess(SeaLevel.SomeNamedUIWorkflow goal) { switch (goal) { case SeaLevel.CheckOutWorkflow.ChangedCreditCard: // do stuff // more cases... } } } So, in the MyCompany.MyApp.Web.UseCases namespace we might have code like this: class SeaLevel... class FishLevel... class KiteLevel... The workflow use cases embedded in the classes could be inner classes or static methods or enumerations or whatever gives you the cleanest namespace. I can't remember what I did originally but you get the picture.

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Can operator<< in derived class call another operator<< in base class in c++?

- by ivory

In my code, Manager is derived from Employee and each of them have an operator<< override. class Employee{ protected: int salary; int rank; public: int getSalary()const{return salary;} int getRank()const{return rank;} Employee(int s, int r):salary(s), rank(r){}; }; ostream& operator<< (ostream& out, Employee& e){ out << "Salary: " << e.getSalary() << " Rank: " << e.getRank() << endl; return out; } class Manager: public Employee{ public: Manager(int s, int r): Employee(s, r){}; }; ostream& operator<< (ostream& out, Manager& m){ out << "Manager: "; cout << (Employee)m << endl; //can not compile, how to call function of Employee? return out; } I hoped cout << (Employee)m << endl; would call ostream& operator<< (ostream& out, Employee& e), but it failed.

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Strange Email Activity Ruby on Rails

- by Stranger

Environment.rb ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :sendmail ActionMailer::Base.sendmail_settings = { :address = "mail.example.org", :domain = "example.org", :port = 25, :authentication = :login, :user_name = "email+email.org", :password = "password" } ActionMailer::Base.perform_deliveries = true ActionMailer::Base.raise_delivery_errors = true ActionMailer::Base.default_charset = "utf-8" Development.log Sent mail to [email protected] Date: Sat, 17 Apr 2010 19:38:08 -0500 From: example.org To: [email protected] Subject: Hello Mime-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 The process of sending email is ok but when I check my email I didn't recive any. What seems to be wrong?

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How can I instantiate a base class and then convert it to a derived class?

- by Eric

I was wondering how to do this, consider the following classes public class Fruit { public string Name { get; set; } public Color Color { get; set; } } public class Apple : Fruit { public Apple() { } } How can I instantiate a new fruit but upcast to Apple, is there a way to instantiate a bunch of Fruit and make them apples with the name & color set. Do I need to manually deep copy? Of course this fails Fruit a = new Fruit(); a.Name = "FirstApple"; a.Color = Color.Red; Apple wa = a as Apple; System.Diagnostics.Debug.Print("Apple name: " + wa.Name); Do I need to pass in a Fruit to the AppleCTor and manually set the name and color( or 1-n properties) Is there an better design to do this?

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C++ type-checking at compile-time

- by Masterofpsi

Hi, all. I'm pretty new to C++, and I'm writing a small library (mostly for my own projects) in C++. In the process of designing a type hierarchy, I've run into the problem of defining the assignment operator. I've taken the basic approach that was eventually reached in this article, which is that for every class MyClass in a hierarchy derived from a class Base you define two assignment operators like so: class MyClass: public Base { public: MyClass& operator =(MyClass const& rhs); virtual MyClass& operator =(Base const& rhs); }; // automatically gets defined, so we make it call the virtual function below MyClass& MyClass::operator =(MyClass const& rhs); { return (*this = static_cast<Base const&>(rhs)); } MyClass& MyClass::operator =(Base const& rhs); { assert(typeid(rhs) == typeid(*this)); // assigning to different types is a logical error MyClass const& casted_rhs = dynamic_cast<MyClass const&>(rhs); try { // allocate new variables Base::operator =(rhs); } catch(...) { // delete the allocated variables throw; } // assign to member variables } The part I'm concerned with is the assertion for type equality. Since I'm writing a library, where assertions will presumably be compiled out of the final result, this has led me to go with a scheme that looks more like this: class MyClass: public Base { public: operator =(MyClass const& rhs); // etc virtual inline MyClass& operator =(Base const& rhs) { assert(typeid(rhs) == typeid(*this)); return this->set(static_cast<Base const&>(rhs)); } private: MyClass& set(Base const& rhs); // same basic thing }; But I've been wondering if I could check the types at compile-time. I looked into Boost.TypeTraits, and I came close by doing BOOST_MPL_ASSERT((boost::is_same<BOOST_TYPEOF(*this), BOOST_TYPEOF(rhs)>));, but since rhs is declared as a reference to the parent class and not the derived class, it choked. Now that I think about it, my reasoning seems silly -- I was hoping that since the function was inline, it would be able to check the actual parameters themselves, but of course the preprocessor always gets run before the compiler. But I was wondering if anyone knew of any other way I could enforce this kind of check at compile-time.

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If the address of a function can not be resolved during deduction, is it SFINAE or a compiler error?

- by Faisal Vali

In C++0x SFINAE rules have been simplified such that any invalid expression or type that occurs in the "immediate context" of deduction does not result in a compiler error but rather in deduction failure (SFINAE). My question is this: If I take the address of an overloaded function and it can not be resolved, is that failure in the immediate-context of deduction? (i.e is it a hard error or SFINAE if it can not be resolved)? Here is some sample code: struct X { // template T* foo(T,T); // lets not over-complicate things for now void foo(char); void foo(int); }; template struct S { template struct size_map { typedef int type; }; // here is where we take the address of a possibly overloaded function template void f(T, typename size_map::type* = 0); void f(...); }; int main() { S s; // should this cause a compiler error because 'auto T = &X::foo' is invalid? s.f(3); } Gcc 4.5 states that this is a compiler error, and clang spits out an assertion violation. Here are some more related questions of interest: Does the FCD-C++0x clearly specify what should happen here? Are the compilers wrong in rejecting this code? Does the "immediate-context" of deduction need to be defined a little better? Thanks!

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Troubleshooting Multiple Endpoints Problem in WCF

- by omatase

I have been using WCF for a few years now and am fairly comfortable with it, however there is one simple WCF concept that I have yet to employ and am having difficulties with it. Following this article about WCF addressing as it specifically relates to multiple endpoints in IIS I see these two excerpts: "Suppose you have a file named calc.svc and you place it in a virtual directory that corresponds to (http://localhost:8080/calcservice). The base address for this service will be (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc)." and "Now, consider the endpoint configuration found in the virtual directory’s web.config file (in Figure 3). In this case, the address of the first endpoint becomes the same as the base address (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc) since I left the endpoint address empty. The address of the second endpoint becomes the combination of the base address appended with "secure", like this: (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc/secure)." Now in my application I'm trying to create two endpoints for the same service (shown below). The service name is MainService.svc. For endpoint one I have address="" and endpoint two has address="Soap11". Bringing the site up in IIS I can successfully hit this URL: (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc). This is the base address for the service according to all the documentation I can find. According to this article and others I have seen that confirm its information I should have the second endpoint at (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc/Soap11) but if I navigate to that URL I get a .Net exception indicating the resource is not found. Is there a tool I can use to see where my different endpoints will be available? Maybe some IIS or aspnet_isapi.dll logging I can turn on? My web.config section defining my endpoints follows. Thanks in advance for your help <service behaviorConfiguration="MyService.MainServiceBehavior" name="MyService.MainService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSBindingConfig" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="Soap11" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicBindingWithCredentials" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service>

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Moving .NET assemblies away from the application base directory?

- by RasmusKL

I have a WinForms application with a bunch of third party references. This makes the output folder quite messy. I'd like to place the compiled / referenced dlls into a common subdirectory in the output folder, bin / lib - whatever - and just have the executables (+ needed configs etc) reside in the output folder. After some searching I ran into assembly probing (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/4191fzwb.aspx) - and verified that if I set this up and manually move the assemblies my application will still work if they are stored in the designated subdirectory like so: <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="bin" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> However, this doesn't solve the build part - is there any way to specify where referenced assemblies and compiled library assemblies go? Only solutions I can think of off the top of my head is either post-build actions or dropping the idea and using ILMerge or something. There has got to be a better way of defining the structure :-)

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Question on Addressing Modes in PDP-11 Assembler

- by lego69

I have small question about pdp-11(simulator), I have this command (it begins from the address 1000) add 2500, #2500 and this initial list: register/address - initial value pc 1000 sp 600 2500 3000 and I want to know how this small snippet exactly runs, in my booklet I found that: firstly it reads inforamtion from the address 1000, inside this address we have value 066727, after we read number from the address 1002, AND VALUE MUST BE 2500(because of add 2500, #2500), but in my booklet I have 1474 without any explanations why, I know that I have here relative addressing mode, but why 1474 inside the address 1002 and not 2500, thanks in advance for any help

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Common one-to-many table for multiple entities

- by Ben V

Suppose I have two tables, Customer and Vendor. I want to have a common address table for customer and vendor addresses. Customers and Vendors can both have one to many addresses. Option 1 Add columns for the AddressID to the Customer and Vendor tables. This just doesn't seem like a clean solution to me. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID AddressID1 AddressID1 Street AddressID2 AddressID2 City... Option 2 Move the foreign key to the Address table. For a Customer, Address.CustomerID will be populated. For a Vendor, Address.VendorID will be populated. I don't like this either - I shouldn't need to modify the address table every time I want to use it for another entity. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID CustomerID VendorID Option 3 I've also seen this - only 1 foreign key column on the Address table with another column to identify which foreign key table the address belongs to. I don't like this one because it requires all the foreign key tables to have the same type of ID. It also seems messy once you start coding against it. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID FKTable FKID So, am I just too picky, or is there something I haven't thought of?

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MVC: How do i declare the name value using DropDownListFor

- by frosty

I have the following dropdownlist in mvc <%= Html.DropDownListFor(c => c.Address.Id, new SelectList(Model.Addresses, "id", "Name", Model.Address.Id), "-- New Address --", new { @name = "[" + orderItemAddressCount + "].AddressId" })%> I'm trying to overwrite the name value on the dropdownlist. this is the markup i get <select id="Address_Id" name="Address.Id"><option value="">-- New Address --</option> This is the markup i want -- New Address -- How do i declare the name value using DropDownListFor?

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remove duplicate values from a multidimensional arrays in php

- by haseeb

hi this is my array , i need to remove duplicating values , please hekp me out Array ( [0] = Array ( [0] = * garfield calicut Address: tanil nadu chennai0696955666 About Company: re stored. [1] = 0.0004 [2] = 0 ) [1] = Array ( [0] = * gamut Address: ashok puram calicut9865326921 About Company: You've come. * garfield calicut Address: tanil nadu chennai0696955666 About Company: re stored. * Hyva It Solutions Address: 697 / 75,30th Cross About Company: Hyva IT Solutions. * streem pvt Ltd Address: onden road kannur9845672062 About Company: Go to the website * Advanced It Wave Address: Ayyappankavu, Ernakulam (North), About Company: Website Developement Services * Viral Industry Address: vettiyar, kodam p o tramp8469666663 About Company: # for discussion [1] = 0.0008 [2] = 0 ) [2] = Array ( [0] = company [1] = 0.0007 [2] = 1 ) ) here 'garfield calicut Address: tanil nadu chennai0696955666 About Company: re stored. ' is repeated , i need to display that only once

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ORM framework that extends base class with database-implementation.

- by aioobe

I have a game consisting of a client / server + a webpage. A central notion in both client and game-/webserver is an Account. Accounts are stored in a database thus I'm in need of some ORM and recently had a look at Hibernate and Cayenne. My understanding however, is that both frameworks provide an "DatabaseBackedAccount"-class which I extend with my other Account methods. My problem is that the Account class is reused heavily on the client side, and I would obviously not want to include database-related code on the client implementation. My current solution is to have an Account class (shared by server and client) and extend this with a DatabaseBackedAccount (overriding setter-methods and providing a commit method) on the server side. I find this quite natural and nice, however I've had to implement all gory sql-details and ORM myself. Is there any way to "turn the table" in any existing ORM framework, so that the generated classes extend my existing class?

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what is a RoR best practice? match by id or different column?

- by Omnipresent

I had a terrible morning. Lots of emails floating around about why things don't work. Upon investigating I found that there is a data mismatch which is causing errors. Scenario Customer and Address are two tables. Customer contains class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :address, :foreign_key => "id" end Address Contains class Address < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :customer, :foreign_key => "cid" end So the two tables match on id which is the default and that column is auto incremented. Problem on the edit Page we have some code like this. params[:line1] = @customer.first.address.line1 It fails because no matching record is found for a customer in the address table. I don't know why this is happening. It seems that over time a lot of records did not get added to Address table. Now problem is that when a new Customer is added (say with id 500) the Address will be added with some other id (say 425) ...now you don't know which address belongs to which customer. Question Being new to Rails, I am asking whether it is always considered good to create an extra column for joining of the records, rather than depending on the column that is automatically incremented? If I had a seperate column in Address table where I would manually insert the recently added customers id then this issue would not have come up.

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What is the base open source java package to filter/match URLs?

- by Boaz

Hi, I have an high performance application which deals with URLs. For every URL it needs to retrieve the appropriate settings from a predefined pool. Every settings object is associated with a URL pattern which indicates which URLs should use these settings. The matching rules are as follows: "google.com" match pattern should match all URLs pointing to the google domain (thus, maps.google.com and www.google.com/match are matched). "*.google.com" should match all URLs pointing to a subdomain of google.com (thus, maps.google.com matches, but google.com and www.google.com don't). "maps.google.com" should match all URLs pointing to this specific subdomain. Apart from the above rules, every match rule can contain a path, which means that the path part of the URL should start with the match rule path. So: "*.google.com/maps" matches "maps.google.com/maps" but not "maps.google.com/advanced". As you can see the rules above are overlapping. In the case two rules exist which match the same URL the most specific should apply. The list above is ranked from least specific to most specific. This seems to be such a standard problem that I was hoping to use a ready made library rather than program my self. Google reveals a couple of options but without a clear way to choose between them. What would you recommend as a good library for this task? Thanks, Boaz

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Problem Formating in Eclipse

- by fastcodejava

I have method in eclipse as below : public String toString() { return "HouseVo [ " + "Name : " + this.name == null ? "" : this.name + "Address : " + this.address == null ? "" : this.address; } When I format it becomes : return "HouseVo [ " + "Name : " + this.name == null ? "" : this.name + "Address : " + this.address == null ? "" : this.address; Any way to fix it so it correctly formats?

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C++: Can virtual inheritance be detected at compile time?

- by Tim

I would like to determine at compile time if a pointer to Derived can be cast from a pointer to Base without dynamic_cast<. Is this possible using templates and metaprogramming? This isn't exactly the same problem as determining if Base is a virtual base class of Derived, because Base could be the super class of a virtual base class of Derived. Thanks, Tim

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Rails Nested Attributes, Relationship for Shared or Common Object

- by SooDesuNe

This has to be a common problem, so I'm surprised that Google didn't turn up more answers. I'm working on a rails app that has several different kinds of entities, those entities by need a relation to a different entity. For example: Address: a Model that stores the details of a street address (this is my shared entity) PersonContact: a Model that includes things like home phone, cell phone and email address. This model needs to have an address associated with it DogContact: Obviously, if you want to contact a dog, you have to go to where it lives. So, PersonContact and DogContact should have foreign keys to Address. Even, though they are really the "owning" object of Address. This would be fine, except that accepts_nested_attributes_for is counting on the foreign key being in Address to work correctly. What's the correct strategy to keep the foreign key in Address, but have PersonContact and DogContact be the owning objects?

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How can I implement CRUD operations in a base class for an entity framework app?

- by hminaya

I'm working a simple EF/MVC app and I'm trying to implement some Repositories to handle my entities. I've set up a BaseObject Class and a IBaseRepository Interface to handle the most basic operations so I don't have to repeat myself each time: public abstract class BaseObject<T> { public XA.Model.Entities.XAEntities db; public BaseObject() { db = new Entities.XAEntities(); } public BaseObject(Entities.XAEntities cont) { db = cont; } public void Delete(T entity) { db.DeleteObject(entity); db.SaveChanges(); } public void Update(T entity) { db.AcceptAllChanges(); db.SaveChanges(); } } public interface IBaseRepository<T> { void Add(T entity); T GetById(int id); IQueryable<T> GetAll(); } But then I find myself having to implement 3 basic methods in every Repository ( Add, GetById & GetAll): public class AgencyRepository : Framework.BaseObject<Agency>, Framework.IBaseRepository<Agency> { public void Add(Agency entity) { db.Companies.AddObject(entity); db.SaveChanges(); } public Agency GetById(int id) { return db.Companies.OfType<Agency>().FirstOrDefault(x => x.Id == id); } public IQueryable<Agency> GetAll() { var agn = from a in db.Companies.OfType<Agency>() select a; return agn; } } How can I get these into my BaseObject Class so I won't run in conflict with DRY.

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Call a method of subclass in Java

- by eyecreate

If I have a base class Base thing = null; of which there is a subclass class Subclass extends Base and I instigate it as thing = new Subclass how would I call a method that is specifically in Subclass, but not in Base? ex. Base has only method() Subclass has method() and specialMethod() the method specialMethod() is the one I want to call.

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Is there a name for the technique of using base-2 numbers to encode a list of unique options?

- by Lunatik

Apologies for the rather vague nature of this question, I've never been taught programming and Google is rather useless to a self-help guy like me in this case as the key words are pretty ambiguous. I am writing a couple of functions that encode and decode a list of options into a Long so they can easily be passed around the application, you know this kind of thing: 1 - Apple 2 - Orange 4 - Banana 8 - Plum etc. In this case the number 11 would represent Apple, Orange & Plum. I've got it working but I see this used all the time so assume there is a common name for the technique, and no doubt all sorts of best practice and clever algorithms that are at the moment just out of my reach.

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How to store large string data into s SQL SERVER 2005 data base?

- by prateeksaluja20

Hello Experts, I have 100000 Ids to store into our DataBase.Id is in string format.each id contain 10 char.so what is the best data type is for this data? i have been used vrchar(max),text but my problem is not solved. so please experts help me.

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