infinite sequence - Page 109

R: building a simple command line plotting tool/Capturing window close events

- by user275455

I am trying to use R within a script that will act as a simple command line plot tool. I.e. user pipes in a csv file and they get a plot. I can get to R fine and get the plot to display through various temp file machinations, but I have hit a roadblock. I cannot figure out how to get R to keep running until the users closes the window. If I plot and exit, the plot disappears immediately. If I plot and use some kind of infinite loop, the user cannot close the plot; he must exit by using an interrupt which I don't like. I see there is a getGraphicsEvent function, but it claims that the device is not supported (X11). Anyway, it doesn't appear to actually support an onClose event, only onMouseDown. Any ideas on how to solve this? edit: Thanks to Dirk for the advice to check out the tk interface. Here is the test code that works: require(tcltk) library(tkrplot) ##function to display plot, called by tkrplot and embedded in a window plotIt<-function(){ plot(x=1:10, y=1:10) } ##create top level window tt<-tktoplevel() ##variable to wait on like a condition variable, to be set by event handler done <- tclVar(0) ##bind to the window destroy event, set done variable when destroyed tkbind(tt,"",function() tclvalue(done) <- 1) ##Have tkrplot embed the plot window, then realize it with tkgrid tkgrid(tkrplot(tt,plotIt)) ##wait until done is true tkwait.variable(done)

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How to limit TCP writes to particular size and then block untlil the data is read

- by ustulation

{Qt 4.7.0 , VS 2010} I have a Server written in Qt and a 3rd party client executable. Qt based server uses QTcpServer and QTcpSocket facilities (non-blocking). Going through the articles on TCP I understand the following: the original implementation of TCP mentioned the negotiable window size to be a 16-bit value, thus maximum being 65535 bytes. But implementations often used the RFC window-scale-extension that allows the sliding window size to be scalable by bit-shifting to yield a maximum of 1 gigabyte. This is implementation defined. This could have resulted in majorly different window sizes on receiver and sender end as the server uses Qt facilities without hardcoding any window size limit. Client 1st asks for all information it can based on the previous messages from the server before handling the new (accumulating) incoming messages. So at some point Server receives a lot of messages each asking for data of several MB's. This the server processes and puts it into the sender buffer. Client however is unable to handle the messages at the same pace and it seems that client’s receiver buffer is far smaller (65535 bytes maybe) than sender’s transmit window size. The messages thus get accumulated at sender’s end until the sender’s buffer is full too after which the TCP writes on sender would block. This however does not happen as sender buffer is much larger. Hence this manifests as increase in memory consumption on the sender’s end. To prevent this from happening, I used Qt’s socket’s waitForBytesWritten() with timeout set to -1 for infinite waiting period. This as I see from the behaviour blocks the thread writing TCP data until the data has actually been sensed by the receiver’s window (which will happen when earlier messages have been processed by the client at application level). This has caused memory consumption at Server end to be almost negligible. is there a better alternative to this (in Qt) if i want to restrict the memory consumption at server end to say x MB's? Also please point out if any of my understandings is incorrect.

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I want a function to return a type of the subclass its invoked from

- by Jay

I want to have a function defined in a superclass that returns a value of the type of the subclass that is used to invoke the function. That is, say I have class A with a function plugh. Then I create subclasses B and C that extend A. I want B.plugh to return a B and C.plugh to return a C. Yes, they could return an A, but then the caller would have to either cast it to the right subtype, which is a pain when used a lot, or declare the receiving variable to be of the supertype, which loses type safety. So I was trying to do this with generics, writing something like this: class A<T extends A> { private T foo; public T getFoo() { return foo; } } class B extends A<B> { public void calcFoo() { foo=... whatever ... } } class C extends A<C> { public void calcFoo() { foo=... whatever ... } } This appears to work but it looks pretty ugly. For one thing, I get warnings on "class A". The compiler says that A is generic and I should specify the type. I guess it wants me to say "class A". But what would I put in for x? I think I could get stuck in an infinite loop here. It seems weird to write "class B extends A", but this causes no complaints, so maybe that's just fine. Is this the right way to do it? Is there a better way?

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PHP Infine Loope Problem

- by Ashwin

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I could not understand where the memory is leaking in my code ?

- by srikanth rongali

I have the following code. I do not understand the problem in it. Whenever I include this class in my class the code is going to infinite loop. I could not get where I am wrong. please help me. Just point the errors in the code. #import "readFileData.h" #import "DuelScreen.h" @implementation readFileData @synthesize enemyDescription, numberOfEnemies, numberOfValues; @synthesize enemyIndex, numberOfEnemyGunDrawImages, numberOfEnemyGunFireImages, numberOfEnemyDieImages; @synthesize countDownSpeed, enemyGunDrawInterval, enemyGunFire, enemyRefire; @synthesize enemyAccuracyProbability, enemyGunCoordinateX, enemyGunCoordinateY; -(id)init { if( (self = [super init]) ) { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *path = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"enemyDetals.txt"]; NSString *contentsOfFile = [[NSString alloc ]initWithContentsOfFile:path]; NSArray *lines = [contentsOfFile componentsSeparatedByString:@"#"]; numberOfEnemies = [lines count]; int nEnemy; nEnemy = 0; NSArray *eachEnemy=[[lines objectAtIndex:nEnemy] componentsSeparatedByString:@"^"]; DuelScreen *enemyNumber1 = [[DuelScreen alloc] init]; NSLog(@"tempCount value in: readFile: %d", enemyNumber1.tempCount); enemyIndex = enemyNumber1.tempCount - 1; countDownSpeed = [[eachEnemy objectAtIndex:0]intValue]; enemyGunDrawInterval = [[eachEnemy objectAtIndex:1]floatValue]; enemyGunFire = [[eachEnemy objectAtIndex:2]floatValue]; enemyAccuracyProbability = [[eachEnemy objectAtIndex:3]floatValue]; enemyRefire = [[eachEnemy objectAtIndex:4]floatValue]; numberOfEnemyGunDrawImages = [[eachEnemy objectAtIndex:5]intValue]; numberOfEnemyGunFireImages = [[eachEnemy objectAtIndex:6]intValue]; numberOfEnemyDieImages = [[eachEnemy objectAtIndex:7]intValue]; enemyGunCoordinateX = [[eachEnemy objectAtIndex:8]floatValue]; enemyGunCoordinateY = [[eachEnemy objectAtIndex:9]floatValue]; enemyDescription = [eachEnemy objectAtIndex:10]; } return self; } @end

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How to get jQuery to find the first list-item, rather than all list-items?

- by ricebowl

I'm trying to implement a basic jQuery infinite carousel. As much for the learning process as for anything else (as a rule I'm not a fan of re-inventing wheels, but...I have to learn somehow, might as well start with the basics). I've managed to get the list to animate left happily enough, but I'm stuck when it comes to selecting the first element of the list. I've tried to use: $('ul#services > li:first'); $('ul#services > li:first-child'); $('ul#services > li').eq([0]); (xhtml below), In each case a console.log(first) (the var name used) returns all of the list-items. Am I doing something blatantly, and obviously, wrong? The eventual plan is to clone the first li, append it to the parent ul, remove the li from the list and allow the list to scroll infinitely. It's just a list of services rather than links so I'm not -at the moment- planning to have scroll or left/right functionality. Current xhtml: <div class="wrapper"> <ul id="services">  <li>one</li ><li>two</li ><li>three</li ><li>four</li ><li>five</li ><li>six</li ><li>seven</li ><li>eight</li ><li>nine</li ><li>ten</li> </ul> </div>

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Caching vector addition over changing collections

- by DRMacIver

I have the following setup: I have a largish number of uuids (currently about 10k but expected to grow unboundedly - they're user IDs) and a function f : id - sparse vector with 32-bit integer values (no need to worry about precision). The function is reasonably expensive (not outrageously so, but probably on the order of a few 100ms for a given id). The dimension of the sparse vectors should be assumed to be infinite, as new dimensions can appear over time, but in practice is unlikely to ever exceed about 20k (and individual results of f are unlikely to have more than a few hundred non-zero values). I want to support the following operations efficiently: add a new ID to the collection invalidate an existing ID retrieve sum f(id) in O(changes since last retrieval) i.e. I want to cache the sum of the vectors in a way that's reasonable to do incrementally. One option would be to support a remove ID operation and treat invalidation as a remove followed by an add. The problem with this is that it requires us to keep track of all the old values of f, which is expensive in space. I potentially need to use many instances of this sort of cached structure, so I would like to avoid that. The likely usage pattern is that new IDs are added at a fairly continuous rate and are frequently invalidated at first. Ids which have been invalidated recently are much more likely to be invalidated again than ones which have remained valid for a long time, but in principle an old Id can still be invalidated. Ideally I don't want to do this in memory (or at least I want a way that lets me save the result to disk efficiently), so an idea which lets me piggyback off an existing DB implementation of some sort would be especially appreciated.

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.Net Hash Codes no longer persistent?

- by RobV

I have an API where various types have custom hash codes. These hash codes are based on getting the hash of a string representation of the object in question. Various salting techniques are used so that as far as possible Hash Codes do not collide and that Objects of different types with equivalent string representations have different Hash Codes. Obviously since the Hash Codes are based on strings there are some collisions (infinite strings vs the limited range of 32 bit integers). I use hashes based on string representations since I need the hashes to persist over sessions and particularly for use in database storage of objects. Suddenly today my code has started generating different hash codes for Objects which is breaking all kinds of things. It was working earlier today and I haven't touched any of the code involved in Hash Code generation. I'm aware that the .Net documentation allows for implementation of hash codes between .Net framework versions to change (and between 32 and 64 bit versions) but I haven't changed the framework version and there has been no framework updates recently as far as I can remember Any ideas because this seems really weird? Edit Hash Codes are generated like follows: //Compute Hash Code this._hashcode = (this._nodetype + this.ToString() + PlainLiteralHashCodeSalt).GetHashCode();

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SINGLE SIGN ON SECURITY THREAT! FACEBOOK access_token broadcast in the open/clear

- by MOKANA

Subsequent to my posting there was a remark made that this was not really a question but I thought I did indeed postulate one. So that there is no ambiquity here is the question with a lead in: Since there is no data sent from Facebook during the Canvas Load process that is not at some point divulged, including the access_token, session and other data that could uniquely identify a user, does any one see any other way other than adding one more layer, i.e., a password, sent over the wire via HTTPS along with the access_toekn, that will insure unique untampered with security by the user? Using Wireshark I captured the local broadcast while loading my Canvas Application page. I was hugely surprised to see the access_token broadcast in the open, viewable for any one to see. This access_token is appended to any https call to the Facebook OpenGraph API. Using facebook as a single click log on has now raised huge concerns for me. It is stored in a session object in memory and the cookie is cleared upon app termination and after reviewing the FB.Init calls I saw a lot of HTTPS calls so I assumed the access_token was always encrypted. But last night I saw in the status bar a call from what was simply an http call that included the App ID so I felt I should sniff the Application Canvas load sequence. Today I did sniff the broadcast and in the attached image you can see that there are http calls with the access_token being broadcast in the open and clear for anyone to gain access to. Am I missing something, is what I am seeing and my interpretation really correct. If any one can sniff and get the access_token they can theorically make calls to the Graph API via https, even though the call back would still need to be the site established in Facebook's application set up. But what is truly a security threat is anyone using the access_token for access to their own site. I do not see the value of a single sign on via Facebook if the only thing that was established as secure was the access_token - becuase for what I can see it clearly is not secure. Access tokens that never have an expire date do not change. Access_tokens are different for every user, to access to another site could be held tight to just a single user, but compromising even a single user's data is unacceptable. http://www.creatingstory.com/images/InTheOpen.png Went back and did more research on this: FINDINGS: Went back an re ran the canvas application to verify that it was not any of my code that was not broadcasting. In this call: HTTP GET /connect.php/en_US/js/CacheData HTTP/1.1 The USER ID is clearly visible in the cookie. So USER_ID's are fully visible, but they are already. Anyone can go to pretty much any ones page and hover over the image and see the USER ID. So no big threat. APP_ID are also easily obtainable - but . . . http://www.creatingstory.com/images/InTheOpen2.png The above file clearly shows the FULL ACCESS TOKEN clearly in the OPEN via a Facebook initiated call. Am I wrong. TELL ME I AM WRONG because I want to be wrong about this. I have since reset my app secret so I am showing the real sniff of the Canvas Page being loaded. Additional data 02/20/2011: @ifaour - I appreciate the time you took to compile your response. I am pretty familiar with the OAuth process and have a pretty solid understanding of the signed_request unpacking and utilization of the access_token. I perform a substantial amount of my processing on the server and my Facebook server side flows are all complete and function without any flaw that I know of. The application secret is secure and never passed to the front end application and is also changed regularly. I am being as fanatical about security as I can be, knowing there is so much I don’t know that could come back and bite me. Two huge access_token issues: The issues concern the possible utilization of the access_token from the USER AGENT (browser). During the FB.INIT() process of the Facebook JavaScript SDK, a cookie is created as well as an object in memory called a session object. This object, along with the cookie contain the access_token, session, a secret, and uid and status of the connection. The session object is structured such that is supports both the new OAuth and the legacy flows. With OAuth, the access_token and status are pretty much al that is used in the session object. The first issue is that the access_token is used to make HTTPS calls to the GRAPH API. If you had the access_token, you could do this from any browser: https://graph.facebook.com/220439?access_token=... and it will return a ton of information about the user. So any one with the access token can gain access to a Facebook account. You can also make additional calls to any info the user has granted access to the application tied to the access_token. At first I thought that a call into the GRAPH had to have a Callback to the URL established in the App Setup, but I tested it as mentioned below and it will return info back right into the browser. Adding that callback feature would be a good idea I think, tightens things up a bit. The second issue is utilization of some unique private secured data that identifies the user to the third party data base, i.e., like in my case, I would use a single sign on to populate user information into my database using this unique secured data item (i.e., access_token which contains the APP ID, the USER ID, and a hashed with secret sequence). None of this is a problem on the server side. You get a signed_request, you unpack it with secret, make HTTPS calls, get HTTPS responses back. When a user has information entered via the USER AGENT(browser) that must be stored via a POST, this unique secured data element would be sent via HTTPS such that they are validated prior to data base insertion. However, If there is NO secured piece of unique data that is supplied via the single sign on process, then there is no way to guarantee unauthorized access. The access_token is the one piece of data that is utilized by Facebook to make the HTTPS calls into the GRAPH API. it is considered unique in regards to BOTH the USER and the APPLICATION and is initially secure via the signed_request packaging. If however, it is subsequently transmitted in the clear and if I can sniff the wire and obtain the access_token, then I can pretend to be the application and gain the information they have authorized the application to see. I tried the above example from a Safari and IE browser and it returned all of my information to me in the browser. In conclusion, the access_token is part of the signed_request and that is how the application initially obtains it. After OAuth authentication and authorization, i.e., the USER has logged into Facebook and then runs your app, the access_token is stored as mentioned above and I have sniffed it such that I see it stored in a Cookie that is transmitted over the wire, resulting in there being NO UNIQUE SECURED IDENTIFIABLE piece of information that can be used to support interaction with the database, or in other words, unless there were one more piece of secure data sent along with the access_token to my database, i.e., a password, I would not be able to discern if it is a legitimate call. Luckily I utilized secure AJAX via POST and the call has to come from the same domain, but I am sure there is a way to hijack that. I am totally open to any ideas on this topic on how to uniquely identify my USERS other than adding another layer (password) via this single sign on process or if someone would just share with me that I read and analyzed my data incorrectly and that the access_token is always secure over the wire. Mahalo nui loa in advance.

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mod_rewrite: no access to real files and directories

- by tshabalala

Hello. I use mod_rewrite/.htaccess for pretty URLs. I forward all the requests to my index.php, like this: RewriteRule ^/?([a-zA-Z0-9/-]+)/?$ /index.php [NC,L] The index.php then handles the requests. I'm also using this condition/rule to eliminate trailing slashes (or rather rewrite them to the URL without a trailing slash, with a 301 redirect; I'm doing this to avoid duplicate content and because I like no trailing slashes better): RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^\.localhost$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+)/$ http://%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] This works well, except that I now get an infinite loop when trying to access a (real) directory (the rewrite rule removes the trailing slash, the server adds it again, ...). I solved this by setting the DirectorySlash directive to Off: DirectorySlash Off I don't know how good this solution is, I don't feel too confident about it tbh. Anyway, what I'd like to do is completely ignore "real" files and directories, since I don't need them and I only use pretty URLs with "virtual" files/directories anyway. This would allow me to avoid the DirectorySlash workaround/hack too. Is this possible? Thanks!

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Please tell me what is wrong with my threading!!!

- by kiddo

I have a function where I will compress a bunch of files into a single compressed file..it is taking a long time(to compress),so I tried implementing threading in my application..Say if I have 20 files for compression,I separated that as 5*4=20,inorder to do that I have separate variables(which are used for compression) for all 4 threads in order to avoid locks and I will wait until the 4 thread finishes..Now..the threads are working but i see no improvement in their performance..normally it will take 1 min for 20 files(for example) after implementing threading ...there is only 5 or 3 sec difference., sometimes the same. here i will show the code for 1 thread(so it is for other3 threads) //main thread myClassObject->thread1 = AfxBeginThread((AFX_THREADPROC)MyThreadFunction1,myClassObject); .... HANDLE threadHandles[4]; threadHandles[0] = myClassObject->thread1->m_hThread; .... WaitForSingleObject(myClassObject->thread1->m_hThread,INFINITE); UINT MyThreadFunction(LPARAM lparam) { CMerger* myClassObject = (CMerger*)lparam; CString outputPath = myClassObject->compressedFilePath.GetAt(0);//contains the o/p path wchar_t* compressInputData[] = {myClassObject->thread1outPath, COMPRESS,(wchar_t*)(LPCTSTR)(outputPath)}; HINSTANCE loadmyDll; loadmydll = LoadLibrary(myClassObject->thread1outPath); fp_Decompress callCompressAction = NULL; int getCompressResult=0; myClassObject->MyCompressFunction(compressInputData,loadClient7zdll,callCompressAction,myClassObject->thread1outPath, getCompressResult,minIndex,myClassObject->firstThread,myClassObject); return 0; }

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printing out dictionnaires

- by kyril

I have a rather specific question: I want to print out characters at a specific place using the \033[ syntax. This is what the code below should do: (the dict cells has the same keys as coords but with either '*' or '-' as value.) coords = {'x'+str(x)+'y'+str(y) : (x,y) for x,y, in itertools.product(range(60), range(20))} for key, value in coords.items(): char = cells[key] x,y = value HORIZ=str(x) VERT=str(y) char = str(char) print('\033['+VERT+';'+HORIZ+'f'+char) However, I noticed that if I put this into a infinite while loop, it does not always prints the same characters at the same position. There are only slight changes, but it deletes some and puts them back in after some loops. I already tried it with lists, and there it seems to behave just fine, so I tend to think it has something todo with the dict, but I can not figure out what it could be. You can see the Problem in a console here: SharedConsole.I am happy for every tip on this matter. On a related topic: After the printing, some changes should be made at the values of the cells dict, but for reason unknown to me, the only the first two rules are executed and the rest is ignored. The rules should test how many neighbours (which is in population) are around the cell and apply the according rule. In my implemention of this I have some kind of weird tumor growth (which should not happen, as if there more than three around they should the cell should die) (see FreakingTumor): if cells_copy [coord] == '-': if population == 3: cells [coord] = '*' if cells_copy [coord] == '*': if population > 3: cells [coord] = '-' elif population <= 1: cells [coord] = '-' elif population == 2 or 3: cells [coord] = '*' I checked the population variable several times, so I am quite sure that is not the matter. I am sorry for the slow consoles. Thanks in advance! Kyril

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Multithreading: Read from / write to a pipe

- by Tero Jokinen

I write some data to a pipe - possibly lots of data and at random intervals. How to read the data from the pipe? Is this ok: in the main thread (current process) create two more threads (2, 3) the second thread writes sometimes to the pipe (and flush-es the pipe?) the 3rd thread has infinite loop which reads the pipe (and then sleeps for some time) Is this so far correct? Now, there are a few thing I don't understand: do I have to lock (mutex?) the pipe on write? IIRC, when writing to pipe and its buffer gets full, the write end will block until I read the already written data, right? How to check for read data in the pipe, not too often, not too rarely? So that the second thread wont block? Is there something like select for pipes? It is possible to set the pipe to unbuffered more or I have to flush it regularly - which one is better? Should I create one more thread, just for flushing the pipe after write? Because flush blocks as well, when the buffer is full, right? I just don't want the 1st and 2nd thread to block.... [Edit] Sorry, I thought the question is platform agnostic but just in case: I'm looking at this from Win32 perspective, possibly MinGW C...

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Why is textbox.focus throwing the lostfocus event?

- by cost

I've seen a few similar questions on SO but nothing that seems to actually address the issue. Here's a simplified version of the function. Private Sub Check_Quantity(sender As System.Object, e As System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs) _ Handles textbox_quantity.LostFocus Dim worked As Boolean = Integer.TryParse(textbox_quantity.Text, quantity) If Not worked Then MsgBox("Enter a valid number for the quantity") textbox_quantity.Focus() textbox_quantity.SelectAll() quantity = 0 End If End Sub It's important to note that this is WPF. What I want to do is very simple. When someone finishes with the textbox the program checks that what they entered is a number. If it does it sticks this in an integer. If not, it tells them to fix it and keeps the focus on the textbox. The issue is a few things, but what it comes down to is this function runs in an infinite loop. This same function works fine in WinForms, but not in WPF. On some other questions people have said that the messagebox appearing causes focus to be lost, but in testing this isn't true. It still loops regardless of if the messagebox is called or not. The problem is the call to textbox_quantity.Focus(). Without that it works fine. Regardless of whether it's there or not though, focus is not set to the textbox, though textbox_quantity.Focus() still returns a value of true. Any thought of what's going on and maybe how I could fix it?

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Recursion problem overloading an operator

- by Tronfi

I have this: typedef string domanin_name; And then, I try to overload the operator< in this way: bool operator<(const domain_name & left, const domain_name & right){ int pos_label_left = left.find_last_of('.'); int pos_label_right = right.find_last_of('.'); string label_left = left.substr(pos_label_left); string label_right = right.substr(pos_label_right); int last_pos_label_left=0, last_pos_label_right=0; while(pos_label_left!=string::npos && pos_label_right!=string::npos){ if(label_left<label_right) return true; else if(label_left>label_right) return false; else{ last_pos_label_left = pos_label_left; last_pos_label_right = pos_label_right; pos_label_left = left.find_last_of('.', last_pos_label_left); pos_label_right = right.find_last_of('.', last_pos_label_left); label_left = left.substr(pos_label_left, last_pos_label_left); label_right = right.substr(pos_label_right, last_pos_label_right); } } } I know it's a strange way to overload the operator <, but I have to do it this way. It should do what I want. That's not the point. The problem is that it enter in an infinite loop right in this line: if(label_left<label_right) return true; It seems like it's trying to use this overloading function itself to do the comparision, but label_left is a string, not a domain name! Any suggestion?

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Facebook / Offline Permission - Trying to perform an action on a set of offline users.

- by blueigloo

Hi there, We're building an app which in part of its functionality tries to capture the number of likes associated to a particular video owned by a user. Users of the app are asked for extended off-line access and we capture the key for each user: The format is like this: 2.hg2QQuYeftuHx1R84J1oGg__.XXXX.1272394800-nnnnnn Each user has their offline / infinite key stored in a table in a DB. The object_id which we're interested in is also stored in the DB. At a later stage (offline) we try to run a batch job which reads the number of likes for each user's video. (See attached code) For some reason however, after the first iteration of the loop - which yields the likes correctly, we get a failure with the oh so familiar message: "Session key is invalid or no longer valid" Any insight would be most appreciated. Thanks, B List<DVideo> videoList = db.SelectVideos(); foreach (DVideo video in videoList) { long userId = 0; ConnectSession fbSession = new ConnectSession(APPLICATION_KEY, SECRET_KEY); //session key is attached to the video object for now. fbSession.SessionKey = video.UserSessionKey; fbSession.SessionExpires = false; string fbuid =video.FBUID; long.TryParse(fbuid, out userId); if (userId > 0) { fbSession.UserId = userId; fbSession.Login(); Api fbApi = new Facebook.Rest.Api(fbSession); string xmlQueryResult = fbApi.Fql.Query("SELECT user_id FROM like WHERE object_id = " + video.FBVID); XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(new StringReader(xmlQueryResult)); int likesCount = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName("user_id").Count; //Write entry in VideoWallLikes if (likesCount > 0) { db.CountWallLikes(video.ID, likesCount); } fbSession.Logout(); } fbSession = null; }

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Interview question: C program to sort a binary array in O(n)

- by Zacky112

I've comeup with the following program to do it, but it does not seem to work and goes into infinite loop. Its working is similar to quicksort. int main() { int arr[] = {1,1,0,1,0,0,0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1}; int N = 18; int *front, *last; front = arr; last = arr + N; while(front <= last) { while( (front < last) && (*front == 0) ) front++; while( (front < last) && (*last == 1) ) last--; if( front < last) { int temp = *front; *front = *last; *last = temp; front ++; last--; } } for(int i=0;i<N;i++) printf("%d ",arr[i]); return 0; }

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Listening Port Permanently. if file is on my stream, Get file. How to?

- by Phsika

i writed 2 client and server program. client dend file also server listen port and than get file.But i need My server App must listen on 51124 port permanently. if any file on my stream, show my message "there is a file on your stream" and than show me savefile dialog. But my server app in "Infinite loop". 1) listen 51124 port every time 2) do i have a file on my stream, show me a messagebox. private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { TcpListener Dinle = new TcpListener(51124); try { Dinle.Start(); Socket Baglanti = Dinle.AcceptSocket(); if (!Baglanti.Connected) { MessageBox.Show("No Connection!"); } else { while (true) { byte[] Dizi = new byte[250000]; Baglanti.Receive(Dizi, Dizi.Length, 0); string Yol; saveFileDialog1.Title = "Save File"; saveFileDialog1.ShowDialog(); Yol = saveFileDialog1.FileName; FileStream Dosya = new FileStream(Yol, FileMode.Create); Dosya.Write(Dizi, 0, Dizi.Length - 20); Dosya.Close(); listBox1.Items.Add("dosya indirildi"); listBox1.Items.Add("Dosya Boyutu=" + Dizi.Length.ToString()); listBox1.Items.Add("Indirilme Tarihi=" + DateTime.Now); listBox1.Items.Add("--------------------------------"); } } } catch (Exception) { throw; } } My Algorithm: if(AnyFileonStream()==true) { GetFile() //Also continue to listening 51124 port... } How can i do that?

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Turn based synchronization between threads

- by Amarus

I'm trying to find a way to synchronize multiple threads having the following conditions: * There are two types of threads: 1. A single "cyclic" thread executing an infinite loop to do cyclic calculations 2. Multiple short-lived threads not started by the main thread * The cyclic thread has a sleep duration between each cycle/loop iteration * The other threads are allowed execute during the inter-cycle sleep of the cyclic thread: - Any other thread that attempts to execute during an active cycle should be blocked - The cyclic thread will wait until all other threads that are already executing to be finished Here's a basic example of what I was thinking of doing: // Somewhere in the code: ManualResetEvent manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(true); // Allow Externally call CountdownEvent countdownEvent = new CountdownEvent(1); // Can't AddCount a CountdownEvent with CurrentCount = 0 void ExternallyCalled() { manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); // Wait until CyclicCalculations is having its beauty sleep countdownEvent.AddCount(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that it should wait for this method call to finish before starting the next cycle Thread.Sleep(1000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic countdownEvent.Signal(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that this call is finished } void CyclicCalculations() { while (!stopCyclicCalculations) { manualResetEvent.Reset(); // Block all incoming calls to ExternallyCalled from this point forward countdownEvent.Signal(); // Dirty workaround for the issue with AddCount and CurrentCount = 0 countdownEvent.Wait(); // Wait until all of the already executing calls to ExternallyCalled are finished countdownEvent.Reset(); // Reset the CountdownEvent for next cycle. Thread.Sleep(2000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic manualResetEvent.Set(); // Unblock all threads executing ExternallyCalled Thread.Sleep(1000); // Inter-cycles delay } } Obviously, this doesn't work. There's no guarantee that there won't be any threads executing ExternallyCalled that are in between manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); and countdownEvent.AddCount(); at the time the main thread gets released by the CountdownEvent. I can't figure out a simple way of doing what I'm after, and almost everything that I've found after a lengthy search is related to producer/consumer synchronization which I can't apply here.

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Call 32-bit or 64-bit program from bootloader

- by user1002358

There seems to be quite a lot of identical information on the Internet about writing the following 3 bootloaders: Infinite loop jmp $ Print a single character Print "Hello World". This is fantastic, and I've gone through these 3 variations with very little trouble. I'd like to write some 32- or 64-bit code in C and compile it, and call that code from the bootloader... basically a bootloader that, for example, sets the computer up to run some simple numerical simulation. I'll start by listing primes, for example, and then maybe some input/output from the user to maybe compute a Fourier transform. I don't know. I haven't found any information on how to do this, but I can already foresee some problems before I even begin. First of all, compiling a C program compiles it into one of several different files, depending on the target. For Windows, it's a PE file. For Linux, it's a .out file. These files are both quite different. In my instance, the target isn't Windows or Linux, it's just whatever I have written in the bootloader. Secondly, where would the actual code reside? The bootloader is exactly 512 bytes, but the program I write in C will certainly compile to something much larger. It will need to sit on my (virtual) hard disk, probably in some sort of file system (which I haven't even defined!) and I will need to load the information from this file into memory before I can even think about executing it. But from my understanding, all this is many, many orders of magnitude more complex than a 12-line "Hello World" bootloader. So my question is: How do I call a large 32- or 64-bit program (written in C/C++) from my 16-bit bootloader.

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How to output multiple rows from an SQL query using the mysqli object

- by Jonathan

Assuming that the mysqli object is already instantiatied (and connected) with the global variable $mysql, here is the code I am trying to work with. class Listing { private $mysql; function getListingInfo($l_id = "", $category = "", $subcategory = "", $username = "", $status = "active") { $condition = "`status` = '$status'"; if (!empty($l_id)) $condition .= "AND `L_ID` = '$l_id'"; if (!empty($category)) $condition .= "AND `category` = '$category'"; if (!empty($subcategory)) $condition .= "AND `subcategory` = '$subcategory'"; if (!empty($username)) $condition .= "AND `username` = '$username'"; $result = $this->mysql->query("SELECT * FROM listing WHERE $condition") or die('Error fetching values'); $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; return $info; } } there are several hundred listings in the db and when I call $result-fetch_array() it places in an array the first row in the db. however when I try to call the object, I can't seem to access more than the first row. for instance: $listing_row = new Listing; while ($listing = $listing_row-getListingInfo()) { echo $listing[0]; } this outputs an infinite loop of the same row in the db. Why does it not advance to the next row? if I move the code: $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; if I move this outside the class, it works exactly as expected outputting a row at a time while looping through the while statement. Is there a way to write this so that I can keep the fetch_array() call in the class and still loop through the records?

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Space between 2 vertices on a heightmap

- by Sietse

First off, I am sorry for the crazy title. I couldn't really think of something else. I am working on a hobby project, it's a infinite world generated with Perlin Noise, Java and LWJGL. But I am having a problem, it is kinda hard to explain, so I made a video: http://youtu.be/D_NUBJZ_5Kw Obviously the problem is the black spaces in between all the pieces of ground. I have no idea what is causing it. I already tried making all the values doubles instead of floats, but that didn't fix it. Here is a piece of code I am using: float height2, height = (float)getHeight(x, y); height2 = (float) ((getHeight(x-1, y+1) + height) / 2); vertexhelper.addVertexColorAndTexture(x, height2, y+1, r, g, b, a, 0f, 1f); height2 = (float) ((getHeight(x+1, y+1) + height) / 2); vertexhelper.addVertexColorAndTexture(x+1, height2, y+1, r, g, b, a, 1f, 1f); height2 = (float) ((getHeight(x+1, y-1) + height) / 2); vertexhelper.addVertexColorAndTexture(x+1, height2, y, r, g, b, a, 1f, 0f); height2 = (float) ((getHeight(x-1, y-1) + height) / 2); vertexhelper.addVertexColorAndTexture(x, height2, y, r, g, b, a, 0f, 0f); I loop through this at the initialization of a chunk with x-16 and y-16. vertexhelper is a class I made that just puts everything in a array. (I am using floats here, but that's after doing the maths, so that shouldn't be a problem) I highly appreciate you reading this.

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Disable home button in android toddler app?

- by cmerrell

I've developed and app that is a slide show of pictures which each play a sound when you tap them. It's like a picture book for ages 2-4. The problem is, since android won't let you capture a home button press and essentially disable it, when parents give the phone to their child to play with unattended (brave parent), the child can inadvertenly exit the app and then make calls or otherwise tweak the phone. There are two other apps that currently have a psuedo fix for this issue. The apps are Toddler Lock and ToddlePhone. I've tried contacting the developers of these apps for some guidance but they haven't been willing to disclose anything, which if fine, but does anyone here have any suggestions? It looks like both of those other apps are acting like a home screen replacement app. When you enable the "childproof mode" on those apps the user is prompted to chose and app for the action and the choices are "Launcher, LauncherPro, etc." plus the toddler app. You then have to make the toddler app the default and voila, the phone is "locked" and can only be "unlocked" using a key combination or touching the four corners of the screen, etc. when you "unlock" the phone. your normal home screen app default restored. You don't even have to make the toddler app the default the next time you enable the "childproof mode". I have read that these two apps have problems with Samsung phones and they can cause an an infinite crash-and-restart-loop that requires a factory reset to fix. Obviously this is not the ideal solution to the problem but it looks like the only one availiable at this point. Does anyone have any ideas on how to implement a "childproof mode"?

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Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

- by Matt Rowles

I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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Manipulating existing XDocument (fails)

- by Daemonfire3002nd

Hi there, I got the following Code snippet from my Silverlight Application: var messages = from message in XcurrentMsg.Descendants("message") where DateTime.Parse(message.Attribute("timestamp").Value).CompareTo(DateTime.Parse(MessageCache.Last_Cached())) > 0 select new { ip = message.Attribute("ip").Value, timestamp = message.Attribute("timestamp").Value, text = message.Value, }; if (messages == null) throw new SystemException("No new messages recorded. Application tried to access non existing resources!"); foreach (var message in messages) { XElement temporaryElement = new XElement("message", message.text.ToString(), new XAttribute("ip", message.ip.ToString()), new XAttribute("timestamp", message.timestamp.ToString())); XcurrentMsg.Element("root").Element("messages").Add(temporaryElement); AddMessage(BuildMessage(message.ip, message.timestamp, message.text)); msgCount++; } MessageCache.CacheXML(XcurrentMsg); MessageCache.Refresh(); XcurrentMsg is a XDocument fetched from my server containing messages: Structure <root> <messages> <message ip="" timestamp=""> Text </message> </messages> </root> I want to get all "message" newer than the last time I cached the XcurrentMsg. This works fine as long as I cut out the "XElement temporaryElement" and the "XcurrentMsg.Element...." and simply use the currentMsg string as output. But I want to have "new messages" being saved in my XcurrentMsg / Cache. Now if I do not cut this part out, my Application gets awesome crazy. I think it writes infinite elements to the XcurrentMsg without stopping. I can not figure out what's the problem. regards,

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