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• filter by value in object of array

  - by zahir hussain

  hi i want to know how to filter the value in object of array... i just display the below is one data of my object array Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am zahir [c] => google.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am zahir [c] => yahoo.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am beni [c] => google.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) . . . Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am sani [c] => yahoo.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) i have to filter the [c] value... thanks and advance

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• How to pass Event as a parameter in JQuery function

  - by Manas Saha

  Hi I am learning JQuery and I have written a small function where I am attaching a function with a button's click event. this is the head element of the HTML <script type="text/javascript"> $(pageLoaded); function pageLoaded() { $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, function buttonClick(event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } ); } </script> This is the body of the HTML <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" /> <div id = "displayArea" style="border:2px solid black; width:300px; height:200px"> This code works fine. But when I try to write the buttonClick function outside the anonymus method, it does not work anymore. I tried to call it this way: $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, buttonClick(event)); function buttonClick(var event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } This is not working. Am I doing some mistake while passing the Event as parameter? what is the correct way to do it without using anonymous methods?

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• [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

  - by Jergason

  I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

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• Set a callback function to a new window in javascript

  - by SztupY

  Is there an easy way to set a "callback" function to a new window that is opened in javascript? I'd like to run a function of the parent from the new window, but I want the parent to be able to set the name of this particular function (so it shouldn't be hardcoded in the new windows page). For example in the parent I have: function DoSomething { alert('Something'); } ... <input type="button" onClick="OpenNewWindow(linktonewwindow,DoSomething);" /> And in the child window I want to: <input type="button" onClick="RunCallbackFunction();" /> The question is how to create this OpenNewWindow and RunCallbackFunction functions. I though about sending the function's name as a query parameter to the new window (where the server side script generates the appropriate function calls in the generated child's HTML), which works, but I was thinking whether there is another, or better way to accomplish this, maybe something that doesn't even require server side tinkering. Pure javascript, server side solutions and jQuery (or other frameworks) are all welcomed.

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• Pulling a value from one jQuery function into another

  - by Travis

  I'm trying to take the hex value chosen from a jQuery colorpicker plugin, and store it as a cookie using the jQuery cookie plugin. I just don't know the appropriate way to tie the two together (new to js and jQuery). Here's my colorpicker function: $('#colorSelector').ColorPicker({ color: '#ffffff', onShow: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeIn(500); return false; }, onHide: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeOut(500); return false; }, onChange: function (hsb, hex, rgb) { $('#colorSelector div, .preview-image, .cover ').css('backgroundColor', '#' + hex); $('body').css('backgroundColor', '#' + hex); $.cookie('bgColor', 'picker'); return false; } }); And here's my cookie function as is: var bgColor = $.cookie('bgColor'); if (bgColor == 'picker') { $('#colorSelector div, .preview-image, .cover ').css('backgroundColor', '#' + hex); }; I can set and store the cookie value as a standard css background-color, but can't figure out how to pull the "'backgroundColor', '#' + hex" value into the cookie function.

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• In Javascript, is it true that function aliasing works as long as the function being aliased doesn't

  - by Jian Lin

  In Javascript, if we are aliasing a function, such as in: f = g; f = obj.display; obj.f = foo; all the 3 lines above, they will work as long as the function / method on the right hand side doesn't touch this? Since we are passing in all the arguments, the only way it can mess up is when the function / method on the right uses this? Actually, line 1 is probably ok if g is also a property of window? If g is referencing obj.display, then the same problem is there. In line 2, when obj.display touches this, it is to mean the obj, but when f() is invoked, the this is window, so they are different. In line 3, it is the same: when f() is invoked inside of obj's code, then the this is obj, while foo might be using this to refer to window if it were a property of window. (global function). So line 2 can be written as f = function() { obj.display.apply(obj, arguments) } and line 3: obj.f = function() { foo.apply(window, arguments) } Is this the correct method, and are there there other methods besides this?

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• NSDrawer delegate pointing to deallocated object?

  - by Isaac

  A user has sent in a crash report with the stack trace listed below (I have not been able to reproduce the crash myself, but every other crash this user has reported has been a valid bug, even when I couldn't reproduce the effect). The application is a reference-counted Objective-C/Cocoa app. If I am interpreting it correctly, the crash is caused by attempting to send a drawerDidOpen: message to a deallocated object. The only object that should be receiving drawerDidOpen: is the drawer's delegate object (nowhere does any object register to receive drawer notifications), and the drawer's delegate object is instantiated via the XIB/NIB file, wired to the delegate outlet of the drawer, and not referenced anywhere else. Given that, how can I protect against the delegate getting dealloc'd before the drawer notification? Or, alternately, what have I misinterpreted that might be causing the crash? Crash log/stack trace: Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x0000000000000010 Crashed Thread: 0 Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: drawerDidOpen: Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff8272011c objc_msgSend + 40 1 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87d0786e _nsnote_callback + 167 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831bcaea __CFXNotificationPost + 954 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831a9098 _CFXNotificationPostNotification + 200 4 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87cfe7d8 -[NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object:userInfo:] + 101 5 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff8512e944 _NSDrawerObserverCallBack + 840 6 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831d40d7 __CFRunLoopDoObservers + 519 7 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831af8c4 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 548 8 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8ada RunCurrentEventLoopInMode + 333 9 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b883d ReceiveNextEventCommon + 148 10 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8798 BlockUntilNextEventMatchingListInMode + 59 11 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8a2a _DPSNextEvent + 708 12 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8379 -[NSApplication nextEventMatchingMask:untilDate:inMode:dequeue:] + 155 13 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84dae05b -[NSApplication run] + 395 14 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84da6d7c NSApplicationMain + 364 15 (my app's identifier) 0x0000000100001188 start + 52

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• how to create a mootools 1.1 function with array

  - by liz

  i have a series of select lists, that i am using to populate text boxes with ids. so you click a select option and another text box is filled with its id. with just one select/id pair this works fine, but i have multiples, and the only thing that changes is the id of the select and input.. in fact just the ending changes, the inputs all start with featredproductid and the select ids all start with recipesproduct and then both end with the category. i know that listing this over and over for each category is not the way to do it. i think i need to make an array of the categories var cats = ['olive oil', "grains", "pasta"] and then use a forEach function? maybe? here is the clunky code window.addEvent('domready', function() { $('recipesproductoliveoil').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidoliveoil").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); $('recipesproductgrains').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidgrains").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); $('recipesproductpasta').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidpasta").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); $('recipesproductpantry').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidpantry").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); }); keep in mind this is mootools 1.1 (no i cant update it sorry). i am sure this is kind of basic, something i seem to have wrapping my brain around. but i am quite sure doing it as above is not really good...

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• Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

  - by bert

  How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

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• C# struct with object as data member

  - by source-energy

  As we know, in C# structs are passed by value, not by reference. So if I have a struct with the following data members: private struct MessageBox { // data members private DateTime dm_DateTimeStamp; // a struct type private TimeSpan dm_TimeSpanInterval; // also a struct private ulong dm_MessageID; // System.Int64 type, struct private String dm_strMessage; // an object (hence a reference is stored here) // more methods, properties, etc ... } So when a MessageBox is passed as a parameter, a COPY is made on the stack, right? What does that mean in terms of how the data members are copied? The first two are struct types, so copies should be made of DateTime and TimeSpan. The third type is a primitive, so it's also copied. But what about the dm_strMessage, which is a reference to an object? When it's copied, another reference to the same String is created, right? The object itself resides in the heap, and is NOT copied (there is only one instance of it on the heap.) So now we have to references to the same object of type String. If the two references are accessed from different threads, it's conceivable that the String object could be corrupted by being modified from two different directions simultaneously. The MSDN documentation says that System.String is thread safe. Does that mean that the String class has a built-in mechanism to prevent an object being corrupted in exactly the type of situation described here? I'm trying to figure out if my MessageBox struct has any potential flaws / pitfalls being a structure vs. a class. Thanks for any input. Source.Energy.

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• How to get the Entire Function from a file

  - by SoLoGHoST

  Ok, I'm reading through a file now, line by line. I know each functions name in the file, since it is defined elsewhere in an XML document. That is what should be this: function function_name Where function_name is the name of the function. I get all of the function definitions from an XML document that I already have put into an array of function names, and I need to grab just those functions from the php file. And rebuild that php file so that it only has those functions in it. That is to say, if a php file has more functions than what is defined in the XML tag, than I need to strip out those functions, and rewrite the .php file with only the functions that the user specified in the XML file. So, the dilemma I face is how to determine the END of a function reading line by line, and I'm aware that functions can have function within them. So I don't want to remove the functions within them. Just functions that are standalone and aren't defined within the accompanying XML file. Any ideas on how to do this?? Thanks :)

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• How to call IronPython function from C#/F#?

  - by prosseek

  This is kind of follow up questions of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2969194/integration-of-c-f-ironpython-and-ironruby In order to use C/C++ function from Python, SWIG is the easiest solution. The reverse way is also possible with Python C API, for example, if we have a python function as follows def add(x,y): return (x + 10*y) We can come up with the wrapper in C to use this python as follows. double Add(double a, double b) { PyObject *X, *Y, *pValue, *pArgs; double res; pArgs = PyTuple_New(2); X = Py_BuildValue("d", a); Y = Py_BuildValue("d", b); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 0, X); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 1, Y); pValue = PyEval_CallObject(pFunc, pArgs); res = PyFloat_AsDouble(pValue); Py_DECREF(X); Py_DECREF(Y); Py_DECREF(pArgs); return res; } How about the IronPython/C# or even F#? How to call the C#/F# function from IronPython? Or, is there any SWIG equivalent tool in IronPython/C#? How to call the IronPython function from C#/F#? I guess I could use "engine.CreateScriptSourceFromString" or similar, but I need to find a way to call IronPython function look like a C#/F# function.

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• Haskell quiz: a simple function

  - by levy

  I'm not a Haskell programmer, but I'm curious about the following questions. Informal function specification: Let MapProduct be a function that takes a function called F and multiple lists. It returns a list containing the results of calling F with one argument from each list in each possible combination. Example: Call MapProduct with F being a function that simply returns a list of its arguments, and two lists. One of the lists contains the integers 1 and 2, the other one contains the strings "a" and "b". It should return a list that contains the lists: 1 and "a", 1 and "b", 2 and "a", 2 and "b". Questions: How is MapProduct implemented? What is the function's type? What is F's type? Can one guess what the function does just by looking at its type? Can you handle inhomogeneous lists as input? (e.g. 1 and "a" in one of the input lists) What extra limitation (if any) do you need to introduce to implement MapProduct?

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• ZF2 - How to use the Hydrator/exchangeArray() to populate a nested object

  - by Dominic Watson

  I've got an object with values that are stored in my database. My object also contains another object which is stored in the database using just the ID of it (foreign key). http://framework.zend.com/manual/2.0/en/modules/zend.stdlib.hydrator.html Before the Hydrator/exchangeArray functionality in ZF2 you would use a Mapper to grab everything you need to create the object. Now I'm trying to eliminate this extra layer by just using Hydration/exchangeArray to populate my objects but am a bit stuck on creating the nested object. Should my entity have the Inner object's table injected into it so I can create it if the ID of it is passed to my 'exchangeArray' ? Here are example entities as an example. // Village id, name, position, square_id // Map Square id, name, type Upon sending square_id to my Village's exchangeArray() function. It would get the mapTable and use hydrator to pull in the square using the ID I have. It doesn't seem right to be to have mapper instances inside my entity as I thought they should be disconnected from anything but it's own entity specific parameters and functionality?

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• Why use object.prototype.constructor in OOP javascript?

  - by Matt

  I've recently started reading up on OOP javascript and one thing that authors seem to skip over is when an object A has been declared and suddenly I see "A.prototype.constructor =A; For example, var A = function(){}; // This is the constructor of "A" A.prototype.constructor = A; A.prototype.value = 1; A.prototype.test = function() { alert(this.value); } var a = new A(); // create an instance of A alert(a.value); // => 1 So I run the command in firebug "var A = function(){};" and then "A.Constructor" Which reveals it's a function. I understand this. I run the code "A.prototype.constructor = A;" and I thought this changes the A constructor from Function to A. The constructor property of A has been changed right? Instead when I run "A.constructor" it gives me function () still. What's the point? I also see A.constructor.prototype.constructor.prototype.. what is going on?

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• Need an advice for unit testing using mock object

  - by Andree

  Hi there, I just recently read about "Mocking objects" for unit testing and currently I'm having a difficulties implementing this approach in my application. Please let me explain my problem. I have a User model class, which is dependent on 2 data sources (database and facebook web service). The controller class simply use this User model as an interface to access data and it doesn't care about where the data came from. Currently I never done any unit test to this User model because it is dependent on an external web service. But just a while ago, I read about object mocking and now I know that it is a common approach to unit test a class that depends on external resources (like in my case). Now I want to create a unit test for the User model, but then I encountered a design issue: In order for the User model to use a mocked Facebook SDK, I have to inject this mocked Facebook SDK to the User object (probably using a setter). Therefore I can't construct the Facebook SDK inside the User object. I have to construct it outside the User object, and inject the SDK into the User object. The real client of my User model is the application's controller. Therefore I have to construct the Facebook SDK inside the controller and inject it to the user object. Well, this is a problem because I want my controller to be as clean as possible. I want my controller to be ignorant about the application's data source. I'm not good at explaining something systematically, so you'll probably sleeping before reading this last paragraph. But anyway, I want to ask if anyone here ever encountered the same problem as mine? How do you solve this problem? Regards, Andree

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• ajax call success function never called

  - by Shai

  The following code is a very simple ajax call to server that alerts back on success and complete events. From a reason I cannot understand on my development machine it works fins and alerts on success and complete but on server it never alerts on success. WHY ??? ** <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.7.1.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function dummy() { $.ajax({ url: 'services/chatEngine.asmx/dummy', async: true, type: "POST", complete: function () { alert('Done'); }, success: function (a, b, c) { alert('Success'); } }); } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <ajaxToolkit:ToolkitScriptManager ID="ToolkitScriptManager1" runat="server"> </ajaxToolkit:ToolkitScriptManager> <div id="userList">Users:<br /></div> <input id="Button3" type="button" value="dummy" onclick="dummy()" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> ** The server side dummy function returns nothing, code follows - Public Function dummy() As String Return "" End Function

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• Form iteration function not working properly

  - by Moses

  My function is supposed to iterate all forms in the document, and bind an onclick function to each 'calculate' element int he form. The problem is, the function that executes on any of the click events executes in the context of the the last i in the loop. Here is the JavaScript that I'm using: window.onload = function(){ calculateSavings(); } function calculateSavings(){ for (i = 0; i < document.forms.length; i++) { var e = document.forms[i]; e.calculate.onclick = function() { var hours = e.hours.value; var rate = e.rate.value; alert(hours * rate); } } } And here is the HTML it is attached to: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <form> <label for="hours">Hours: </label><input type="text" id="hours" name="hours"> <label for="rate">Rate: </label><input type="text" id="rate" name="rate"> <input type="button" name="calculate" value="Calculate"> <div id="savings"></div> </form> <form> <label for="hours">Hours: </label><input type="text" id="hours" name="hours"> <label for="rate">Rate: </label><input type="text" id="rate" name="rate"> <input type="button" name="calculate" value="Calculate"> <div id="savings"></div> </form> </body> </html> I'm sure this is a really basic question but the solution is completely eluding me at this point.

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• Why is my JavaScript function "a" not defined?

  - by 4l3x

  When I call my JavaScript function B, the javascript console in firefox said that function A is not defined, but on chrome browser if defined. And when I call function "A" in body segment: <input type="button" onclick="A()" value=" ..A.. "> , firefox said that function B is not defined? :S <html> <head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function B(){ alert(" hi B "); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onClick="A()" value=" ..A..">'); }; function A(){ alert(" hi A"); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..b..">'); if (window.WebCL == undefined) { alert("Unfortunately your system does not support WebCL. "); return false; } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..B.. "> </body> </html>

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• How make this jquery function reusable?

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  Comsider this jquery function, function showresults(jsonobj) { $.each(jsonobj, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span style="display: inline-block;width:150px;" class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); } Here i am iterating my json data and drawing div elements.... As you see these div elements are hardcoded how to pass these html div elements dynamically by a variable... var divs=<div></div> function showresults(jsonobj,divs) { $.each(jsonobj, function(i, employee) { divs += divs Is this correct way of doing but there will be an error employee object wont be there know when my divs variable declared outside the function... Any suggestion...

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• Error while converting function from oracle to SQL Server

  - by sss

  Hi, I am migrating a function from Oracle to SQL Server 2008. This function raises SELECT statements included within a function cannot return data to a client as error. How can I solve this problem? Original PLSQL Code CREATE OR REPLACE function f_birim_cevrim_katsayi (p_ID_MAMUL in number, p_ID_BIRIMDEN in number, p_ID_BIRIME in number) return number is v_katsayi number; begin v_katsayi:=0; if p_ID_BIRIMDEN!=p_ID_BIRIME then for c in ( select * from CR_BIRIM_CEVRIM where ID_MAMUL = p_ID_MAMUL and ( (ID_BIRIM = p_ID_BIRIMDEN and ID_BIRIM2 = p_ID_BIRIME) OR ( ID_BIRIM2 = p_ID_BIRIMDEN and ID_BIRIM = p_ID_BIRIME) ) and VALID = 1) loop if c.ID_BIRIM=p_ID_BIRIMDEN then v_katsayi:=c.MT_ORAN; else v_katsayi:=1/c.MT_ORAN; end if; end loop; else v_katsayi:=1; end if; return round(v_katsayi,10); exception when others then return 0; end; T-SQL code: If Exists ( SELECT name FROM sysobjects WHERE name = 'f_birim_cevrim_katsayi' AND type = 'FN') DROP FUNCTION f_birim_cevrim_katsayi GO CREATE FUNCTION f_birim_cevrim_katsayi ( @p_ID_MAMUL FLOAT , @p_ID_BIRIMDEN FLOAT , @p_ID_BIRIME FLOAT ) RETURNS float AS BEGIN DECLARE @adv_error INT DECLARE @v_katsayi FLOAT SELECT @v_katsayi = 0 IF @p_ID_BIRIMDEN != @p_ID_BIRIME BEGIN DECLARE cursor_for_inline_select1 CURSOR LOCAL FOR SELECT * FROM CR_BIRIM_CEVRIM WHERE ID_MAMUL = @p_ID_MAMUL AND ((ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN AND ID_BIRIM2 = @p_ID_BIRIME) OR (ID_BIRIM2 = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN AND ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIME)) AND VALID = 1 OPEN cursor_for_inline_select1 FETCH NEXT FROM cursor_for_inline_select1 WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS <> -1) BEGIN IF c.ID_BIRIM = @p_ID_BIRIMDEN BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = c.MT_ORAN END ELSE BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = 1/c.MT_ORAN END END CLOSE cursor_for_inline_select1 DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 END ELSE BEGIN SELECT @v_katsayi = 1 END DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 return ROUND(@v_katsayi, 10) GOTO ExitLabel1 Exception1: BEGIN DEALLOCATE cursor_for_inline_select1 return 0 END ExitLabel1: return ROUND(@v_katsayi, 10) END GO

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• What goes into main function?

  - by Woltan

  I am looking for a best practice tip of what goes into the main function of a program using c++. Currently I think two approaches are possible. (Although the "margins" of those approaches can be arbitrarily close to each other) 1: Write a "Master"-class that receives the parameters passed to the main function and handle the complete program in that "Master"-class (Of course you also make use of other classes). Therefore the main function would be reduced to a minimum of lines. #include "MasterClass.h" int main(int args, char* argv[]) { MasterClass MC(args, argv); } 2: Write the "complete" program in the main function making use of user defined objects of course! However there are also global functions involved and the main function can get somewhat large. I am looking for some general guidelines of how to write the main function of a program in c++. I came across this issue by trying to write some unit test for the first approach, which is a little difficult since most of the methods are private. Thx in advance for any help, suggestion, link, ...

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• Returning two or more values from a function

  - by cf_PhillipSenn

  I need to return multiple values from a ColdFusion function in an ajax callback function. Here's what I've got: $('input[name="StateName"]').live('change', function() { var StateID = $(this).parents('tr').attr('id'); var StateName = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ url: 'Remote/State.cfc' ,type: "POST" ,data: { 'method': 'UpdateStateName' ,'StateID': StateID ,'StateName': StateName } ,success: function(result){ if (isNaN(result)) { $('#msg').text(result).addClass('err'); } else { $('#' + result + ' input[name="StateName"]').addClass('changed'); }; } ,error: function(msg){ $('#msg').text('Connection error').addClass('err'); } }); }); If I trap a database error, then the success callback is fired, and the result is Not a Number (It is in fact, the text of the error message). I need the function to also pass back other values. One might be the primary key of the row that caused the error. Another might be the old StateName, so that I can refresh the old value on the screen so that the client will know absolutely for sure that their change did not take effect. I guess I'm breaking the rule of atomicity here and need to fix that, because I'm using result as both the primary key of the row that was updated, or it's the error message if the update fails. I need to return both the primary key and the error message.

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• Core Data object into an NSDictionary with possible nil objects

  - by Chuck

  I have a core data object that has a bunch of optional values. I'm pushing a table view controller and passing it a reference to the object so I can display its contents in a table view. Because I want the table view displayed a specific way, I am storing the values from the core data object into an array of dictionaries then using the array to populate the table view. This works great, and I got editing and saving working properly. (i'm not using a fetched results controller because I don't have anything to sort on) The issue with my current code is that if one of the items in the object is missing, then I end up trying to put nil into the dictionary, which won't work. I'm looking for a clean way to handle this, I could do the following, but I can't help but feeling like there's a better way. *passedEntry is the core data object handed to the view controller when it is pushed, lets say it contains firstName, lastName, and age, all optional. if ([passedEntry firstName] != nil) { [dictionary setObject:[passedEntry firstName] forKey:@"firstName"] } else { [dictionary setObject:@"" forKey:@"firstName"] } And so on. This works, but it feels kludgy, especially if I end up adding more items to the core data object down the road.

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• Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

  - by christian

  I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

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