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  • Windows batch - loop over folder string and parse out last folder name

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I need to grab the folder name of a currently executing batch file. I have been trying to loop over the current directory using the following syntax (which is wrong at present): set mydir = %~p0 for /F "delims=\" %i IN (%mydir%) DO @echo %i Couple of issues in that I cannot seem to pass the 'mydir' variable value in as the search string. It only seems to work if I pass in commands; I have the syntax wrong and cannot work out why. My thinking was to loop over the folder string with a '\' delimiter but this is causing problems too. If I set a variable on each loop then the last value set will be the current folder name. For example, given the following path: C:\Folder1\Folder2\Folder3\Archive.bat I would expect to parse out the value 'Folder3'. I need to parse that value out as its name will be part of another folder I am going to create further down in the batch file. Many thanks if anyone can help. I may be barking up the wrong tree completely so any other approaches would be greatly received also. Tim

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  • Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

    - by Jack
    Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

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  • How to let one external stylsheet selectively overrule the other

    - by Ferdy
    I'm stunned by a simple thing that I want to accomplish but does not work. I have a website and I want it to support themes, which are a named set of CSS + images. No matter which theme is selected, I always include the main CSS file, which is the default theme. On top of that I'm loading a second stylesheet, the one that is theme-specific, like so: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/main.css" title=main" media="screen" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="themes/<?= $style ?>/css/<?= $style ?>.css" title="<?= $style ?>" media="screen" /> My idea is that the theme specific css should not be a full copy of the main css file. Instead, it should only contain CSS rules that overrule those of the main.css file. This makes themes much smaller and easier to maintain. I thought I could simply load two external stylesheets after each other and that for conflicting rules it will always use the theme specific css, the second file. However, it does not seem to work. If I make a dramatic styling change in the theme file then it has no effect. If I then comment the main CSS file, the theme CSS does have effect. Was I too naive in expecting this to work like this? I know I can use inline styles to overrule anything, but I prefer a setup like this if possible.

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  • C++ Problems with #import of .NET out-of-proc server.

    - by jm
    In C++ program, I am trying to #import TLB of .NET out of proc server. I get errors like: z:\server.tlh(111) : error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'GetType' z:\server.tlh(111) : error C2501: 'TypePtr' : missing storage-class or type specifiers z:\server.tli(74) : error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before 'tag::id' z:\server.tli(74) : error C2433: 'TypePtr' : 'inline' not permitted on data declarations z:\server.tli(74) : error C2501: '_TypePtr' : missing storage-class or type specifiers z:\server.tli(74) : fatal error C1004: unexpected end of file found The TLH looks like: ... _bstr_t GetToString ( ); VARIANT_BOOL Equals ( const _variant_t & obj ); long GetHashCode ( ); _TypePtr GetType ( ); long Open ( ); ... I am not really interested in the having the base object .NET object methods like GetType(), Equals(), etc. But GetType() seems to be causing problems. Some google research indicates I could #import MSCORLIB.TLB (or put it in path), but I can't get that to compile either. Any tips?

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  • MySQL 1064 error, works in command line and phpMyAdmin; not in app

    - by hundleyj
    Here is my query: select * from (select *, 3956 * 2 * ASIN(SQRT(POWER(SIN(RADIANS(45.5200077 - lat)/ 2), 2) + COS(RADIANS(45.5200077)) * COS(RADIANS(lat)) * POWER(SIN(RADIANS(-122.6942014 - lng)/2),2))) AS distance from stops order by distance, route asc) as p group by route, dir order by distance asc limit 10 This works fine at the command line and in PHPMyAdmin. I'm using Dbslayer to connect to MySQL via my JavaScript backend, and the request is returning a 1064 error. Here is the encoded DBSlayer request string: http://localhost:9090/db?{%22SQL%22:%22select%20*%20from%20%28select%20*,%203956%20*%202%20*%20ASIN%28SQRT%28POWER%28SIN%28RADIANS%2845.5200077%20-%20lat%29/%202%29,%202%29%20+%20COS%28RADIANS%2845.5200077%29%29%20*%20COS%28RADIANS%28lat%29%29%20*%20POWER%28SIN%28RADIANS%28-122.6942014%20-%20lng%29/2%29,2%29%29%29%20AS%20distance%20from%20%60stops%60%20order%20by%20%60distance%60,%20%60route%60%20asc%29%20as%20p%20group%20by%20%60route%60,%20%60dir%60%20order%20by%20%60distance%60%20asc%20limit%2010%22} And the response: {"MYSQL_ERRNO" : 1064 , "MYSQL_ERROR" : "You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '(RADIANS(45.5200077)) * COS(RADIANS(lat)) * POWER(SIN(RADIANS(-122.6942014 - lng' at line 1" , "SERVER" : "trimet"} Thanks!

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  • Semantically linking to code snippets

    - by Tim
    What's the most simple and semantic way of presenting code snippets in HTML? Possible XHTML syntax <a href="code_sample.php" type="text/x-php"> Example of widget creation </a> Example of linked file (code_sample.php): // Create a new widget $widget = new widget(); Pros: Semantically uses title to describe the source code being referenced Up to the client to render snippet Having very many custom server-side implementations tells me it should be standardized Browsers can have plug-ins for copy+paste, download, etc Seems to me this is where it belongs (not in Javascript) Degradation: non-compliant browsers receive a link to the associated content Cons: Not semantic enough? Seems wrong to replace hyperlinks with source code for presentation <object> might be better, but wouldn't degrade as nicely. Background I'm trying to create a "personal" XHTML standard for storing notes (wow, this is probably among the nerdiest things I've said). Since notes are just "scratch" it needs to be very lightweight. SO's markdown is very lightweight but not semantic enough for my needs. Plus, now I'm just curious. What's the most ideal syntax for linking to client-rendered code-snippets?

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  • key-words highlight in <textarea> (again)

    - by Halst
    Wait, I know! I know that this "syntax highlight in textarea"-question was raised like a million times on stackoverflow! But, please, listen. offtopic: I'm not a web-developer, and technically I'm not a programmer at all. I study mechatronics and deal mostly with control-engineering and digital-hardware. And I'm so pissed off that whenever I want to share some application (that would be helpful in my field) and embed it into the web, I need to know such a crazy amount of technologies, like html, css, javascript, flash, etc.. that takes time, which I could have been spending for the benefit of my own field. Right now I'm playing with hardware-description-languages and I'm writing some Python-libraries to convert one HDL into another. And I wanted to embed such feature on the web: http://xhdl2vhdl.appspot.com/ I wanted to implement some basic syntax highlighting (only keywords highlighting will be enough) so that the code could be readable. But the whole idea highlighting something in textarea is not trivial at all. The other difficulty is that the languages I work with are rare, and there are no out-of-box solutions for them. I tried to dig into these solutions, but they are very complicated for me: http://www.nicolarizzo.com/gamesroom/experimental/CodeEditor.html http://marijn.haverbeke.nl/codemirror/jstest.html and there is no clear descriptions how to use them (for my level of knowledge of web-development). So, is there a simple solution, just to highlight a bunch of key-words in textarea or perform something equivalent? Thank you.

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  • How to make placeholder varablies in jquery validate 1.7?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am using jquery 1.4.2 and jquery validate 1.7(http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) Say I have this example that I just grabbed off some random site(http://www.webreference.com/programming/javascript/jquery/form_validation/) 8 <script type="text/javascript"> 9 $(document).ready(function() { 10 $("#form1").validate({ 11 rules: { 12 name: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true 16 }, 17 url: { 18 url: true 19 }, 20 comment: { 21 required: true 22 } 23 }, 24 messages: { 25 comment: "Please enter a comment." 26 } 27 }); 28 }); 29 </script> now is it possible to do something like this 10 $("#form1").validate({ var NameHolder = "name" 11 rules: { 12 NameHolder: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true So basically I want to make sort of a global variable to hold theses rule names( what correspond to the names on that html control). My concern is the names of html controls can change and it kinda sucks that I will have to go around and change it in many places of my code to make it work again. So basically I am wondering is there away to make a global variable to store this name. So if I need to change the name I only have to change it in one spot in my javascript file sort of the way stopping magic numbers ?

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  • jQuery validation with submit handler

    - by James
    I setup the form validation using jQuery validation plug-in's validate method and I have a submit handler that modifies the input element's value (I use YUI editor and it needs saveHTML() call to copy the iframe's content to the textarea element.). When submitting the form, I want the validator to validate the form after executing my submit handler. But it doesn't execute my submit handler if it is registered after the validate call. For example, <form id="form1" action="/test"> <input type="text" name="txt1" id="txt1" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); }); The form is validated after my submit handler so submit is canceled. $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); }); However if I change the order the form is validated before my submit handler.

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  • How do I use a custom cookie session serializer in Rack?

    - by Damien Wilson
    Hello SO. I'm currently integrating Warden into a new Rack application I'm building. I'd like to implement a recent patch to Rack that allows me to specify how sessions are serialized; specifically, I'd like to use Rack::Session::Cookie::Identity as the session processor. Unfortunately, the documentation is a little unclear as to what syntax I should use to configure Rack::Session::Cookie in my rackup file, can anyone here tell me what I'm doing wrong? config.ru require 'my_sinatra_app' app = self use Rack::Session::Cookie.new(app, Rack::Session::Cookie::Identity.new), {:key => "auth_token"} use Warden::Manager do |warden| # Must come AFTER Rack::Session warden.default_strategies :password warden.failure_app Jelli::Auth.run! end run MySinatraApp error message from thin !! Unexpected error while processing request: undefined method `new' for #<Rack::Session::Cookie:0x00000110124128> PS: I'm using bundler to manage my gem dependencies and I've likewise included rack's master branch as the desired version. Update: As suggested in the comments below, I have read the documentation; sadly the suggested syntax in the docs is not working. Update: Still no luck on my end; offering up a bounty to whoever can help me figure this out.

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  • What are Code Smells? What is the best way to correct them?

    - by Rob Cooper
    OK, so I know what a code smell is, and the Wikipedia Article is pretty clear in its definition: In computer programming, code smell is any symptom in the source code of a computer program that indicates something may be wrong. It generally indicates that the code should be refactored or the overall design should be reexamined. The term appears to have been coined by Kent Beck on WardsWiki. Usage of the term increased after it was featured in Refactoring. Improving the Design of Existing Code. I know it also provides a list of common code smells. But I thought it would be great if we could get clear list of not only what code smells there are, but also how to correct them. Some Rules Now, this is going to be a little subjective in that there are differences to languages, programming style etc. So lets lay down some ground rules: ** ONE SMELL PER ANSWER PLEASE! & ADVISE ON HOW TO CORRECT! ** See this answer for a good display of what this thread should be! DO NOT downmod if a smell doesn't apply to your language or development methodology We are all different. DO NOT just quickly smash in as many as you can think of Think about the smells you want to list and get a good idea down on how to work around. DO downmod answers that just look rushed For example "dupe code - remove dupe code". Let's makes it useful (e.g. Duplicate Code - Refactor into separate methods or even classes, use these links for help on these common.. etc. etc.). DO upmod answers that you would add yourself If you wish to expand, then answer with your thoughts linking to the original answer (if it's detailed) or comment if its a minor point. DO format your answers! Help others to be able to read it, use code snippets, headings and markup to make key points stand out!

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  • How do I interact with a Perl object that has a hash attribute?

    - by brydgesk
    I have a class with several variables, one of which is a hash (_runs): sub new { my ($class, $name) = @_; my $self = { _name => $name, ... _runs => (), _times => [], ... }; bless ($self, $class); return $self; } Now, all I'm trying to do is create an accessor/mutator, as well as another subroutine that pushes new data into the hash. But I'm having a hell of a time getting all the referencing/dereferencing/$self calls working together. I've about burned my eyes out with "Can't use string ("blah") as a HASH ref etc etc" errors. For the accessor, what is 'best practice' for returning hashes? Which one of these options should I be using (if any)?: return $self->{_runs}; return %{ $self->{_runs} }; return \$self->{_runs}; Further, when I'm using the hash within other subroutines in the class, what syntax do I use to copy it? my @runs = $self->{_runs}; my @runs = %{ $self->{_runs} }; my @runs = $%{ $self->{_runs} }; my @runs = $$self->{_runs}; Same goes for iterating over the keys: foreach my $dt (keys $self->{_runs}) foreach my $dt (keys %{ $self->{_runs} }) And how about actually adding the data? $self->{_runs}{$dt} = $duration; %{ $self->{_runs} }{$dt} = $duration; $$self->{_runs}{$dt} = $duration; You get the point. I've been reading articles about using classes, and articles about referencing and dereferencing, but I can't seem to get my brain to combine the knowledge and use both at the same time. I got my _times array working finally, but mimicking my array syntax over to hashes didn't work.

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  • Combining the jquery Calendar picker with the jquery validation and getting them to play nice?

    - by MBonig
    I'm just starting to get into jquery/javascript programming so this may be a beginner question but I sure can't seem to find anything about it. I have a text field on a form. I've used the JQuery UI Calendar picker to make data entry better. I've also added jquery validation to ensure that if the user enters the date by hand that it's still valid. Here is the html: <input class="datepicker" id="Log_ServiceStartTime_date" name="Log_ServiceStartTime_date" type="text" value="3/16/2010"></input> and javascript: $('form').validate(); $('#Log_ServiceStartTime_date').rules('add','required'); $('#Log_ServiceStartTime_date').rules('add','date'); the problem I'm having is this: If a user puts in a bad date, or no date at all, the validation correctly kicks in and the error description displays. However, if the user clicks on the textbox to bring up the calendar picker and selects a date, the date fills into the field but the validation does not go away. If the user clicks into the textbox and then back out, the validation correctly goes away. How can I get the calendar picker to kick off the validation routine once a date is selected? thanks

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  • Checking if any of a list of values falls within a table of ranges

    - by Conspicuous Compiler
    I'm looking to check whether any of a list of integers fall in a list of ranges. The ranges are defined in a table defined something like: # Extra Type Field Default Null Key 0 int(11) rangeid 0 NO PRI 1 int(11) max 0 NO MUL 2 int(11) min 0 NO MUL Using MySQL 5.1 and Perl 5.10. I can check whether a single value, say 7, is in any of the ranges with a statement like SELECT 1 FROM range WHERE 7 BETWEEN min AND max If 7 is in any of those ranges, I get a single row back. If it isn't, no rows are returned. Now I have a list of, say, 50 of these values, not stored in a table at present. I assemble them using map: my $value_list = '(' . ( join ', ', map { int $_ } @values ) . ')' ; I want to see if any of the items in the list fall inside of any of the ranges, but am not particularly concerned with which number nor which range. I'd like to use a syntax such as: SELECT 1 FROM range WHERE (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 42, 309, 10000) BETWEEN min AND max MySQL kindly chastises me for such syntax: Operand should contain 1 column(s) I pinged #mysql who were quite helpful. However, having already written this up by the time they responded and thinking it'd be helpful to fix the answer in a more permanent medium, I figured I'd post the question anyhow. Maybe SO will provide a different solution?

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  • Pull specific information from a long list with Perl

    - by melignus
    The file that I've got to work with here is the result of an LDAP extraction but I need to ultimately get the information formatted over to something that a spreadsheet can use. So, the data is as follows: DataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataData DataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataData displayName: John Doe name: ##userName DataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataData DataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataData displayName: Jane Doe name: ##userName DataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataData DataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataDataData displayName: Ted Doe name: ##userName The format that I need to export to is: firstName lastName userName firstName lastName userName firstName lastName userName Where the spaces are tabs so I can then impor that file into a database. I have experience doing this in VBScript but I'm trying to switch over to using Perl for as much server administration as possible. I'm not sure on the syntax for what I want which is basically while not endoffile{ detect "displayName: " & $firstName & " " & $lastName detect "name: ##" & $userName write $firstName tab $lastName tab $userName to file } Also if someone could point me to a resource specifically on the text parsing syntax that Perl uses, I'd be very grateful. Most of the resources that I've come across haven't been very helpful.

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  • gridview image column problem

    - by jame
    Work on vs05 C# asp.net .My SQL Syntax is :**** if exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[Images]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1) drop table [dbo].[Images] GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Images] ( [ID] [numeric](18, 0) IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL , [ImageName] [varchar] (50) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL , [Image] [image] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] TEXTIMAGE_ON [PRIMARY] GO I want to show this Images table values in a grid view.....I do it ...but the image value can not show ....asp.net syntax for gridview is <asp:GridView ID="GridView2" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="ImageName" HeaderText="ImageName" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Image"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Image") %>'></asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" ImageUrl='<%# Eval("Image") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> i write the below code on pageload event. i want images table values must shown when the page is load... string strSQL = "Select * From Images"; DataTable dt = clsDB.getDataTable(strSQL); this.GridView2.DataSource = dt; this.GridView2.DataBind(); Why not i get the image on my image column of the gridview.....what's the problem is how to solve?

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  • Java Scanner newline parsing with regex (Bug?)

    - by SEK
    I'm developing a syntax analyzer by hand in Java, and I'd like to use regex's to parse the various token types. The problem is that I'd also like to be able to accurately report the current line number, if the input doesn't conform to the syntax. Long story short, I've run into a problem when I try to actually match a newline with the Scanner class. To be specific, when I try to match a newline with a pattern using the Scanner class, it fails. Almost always. But when I perform the same matching using a Matcher and the same source string, it retrieves the newline exactly as you'd expect it too. Is there a reason for this, that I can't seem to discover, or is this a bug, as I suspect? FYI: I was unable to find a bug in the Sun database that describes this issue, so if it is a bug, it hasn't been reported. Example Code: Pattern newLinePattern = Pattern.compile("(\\r\\n?|\\n)", Pattern.MULTILINE); String sourceString = "\r\n\n\r\r\n\n"; Scanner scan = new Scanner(sourceString); scan.useDelimiter(""); int count = 0; while (scan.hasNext(newLinePattern)) { scan.next(newLinePattern); count++; } System.out.println("found "+count+" newlines"); // finds 7 newlines Matcher match = newLinePattern.matcher(sourceString); count = 0; while (match.find()) { count++; } System.out.println("found "+count+" newlines"); // finds 5 newlines

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  • How to Resolve a Transformation Service with BRE that occurs after an Orchestration in an Itinerary?

    - by Maxime Labelle
    In trying to implement simple integration patterns with Biztalk ESB Toolkit 2.0, I'm facing a problem trying to resolve a Transformation Itinerary Service that occurs after an Orchestration. I'm using the BRE Resolver to execute rules that need to inspect the Context Message Type property to determine the appropriate map to use. However, once the message reaches the step in the Itinerary associated with the Transformation Service, the map fails to execute. From careful investigation, it appears that the message type is not supplied to the "Resolution" object that is used internally by the BRE resolver. Indeed, since the message leaving the preceding Orchestration is typed System.Xml.XmlDocument, the type of the message is "demoted" from the context. By tracking rules engine execution, I can observe that the type of the message is indeed lost when reaching the BRE resolver. The type of the message is empty, whereas the strongly-typed of the document is Microsoft.XLANGs.BaseTypes.Any. The Orchestration service that I use is taken straight from the samples that ship with ESB Toolkit 2.0. Is there a way to perform Context-Based BRE resolution after an Orchestration in an Itinerary?

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  • Apache ReWriteEngine throwing 500 Internal Server Error for too many internal redirects... why?!?!?!

    - by Stephen G
    I'm trying to implement a new ReWrite rule on my local dev machine. I have 13 rules set up already, and all work fine (even as of this writing). However, for some reason the newest one is throwing me 500 Internal Server Errors. The ReWrite rule is: RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*) /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*)/ /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 Checked my apache logs and got this: [Thu Jan 13 22:07:43 2011] [error] [client ::1] mod_rewrite: maximum number of internal redirects reached. Assuming configuration error. Use 'RewriteOptions MaxRedirects' to increase the limit if neccessary., referer: http://localhost:8888/stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/all/index.php?curr=7 On the script I am trying to redirect to view/index.php?stuff=$1, there is nothing that even remotely resembles a redirect of any kind. I do have a very, very basic session verifier being called at the top of the landing script, which is as follows: //Start session session_start(); //Check whether the session variable SESS_MEMBER_ID is present or not if(!isset($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) || (trim($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) == '')) { header("location: ".$root_http.""); exit(); } However, when I access the page directly, it acts as it should, and there is no redirect. All of my other ReWrite rules and their corresponding landing pages are set up the exact same way. This is blowing my mind. Any help, PLEASE!?

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  • Using mod-rewrite to conditionally select existing file in a subdirectory based on Host header?

    - by Kevin Hakanson
    I'm working through a problem where I want to select a different static content file based on the incoming Host header. The simple example is a mapping from URLs to files like this: www.example.com/images/logo.gif - \images\logo.gif skin2.example.com/images/logo.gif - \images\skin2\logo.gif skin3.example.com/images/logo.gif - \images\skin3logo.gif I have this working with the following RewriteRules, but I don't like how I have to repeat myself so much. Each host has the same set of rules, and each RewriteCond and RewriteRule has the same path. I'd like to use the RewriteMap, but I don't know how to use it to map the %{HTTP_HOST} to the path. <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot "C:/Program Files/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2/htdocs" ServerName www.example.com ServerAlias skin2.example.com ServerAlias skin3.example.com RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} skin2.example.com RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}$1/skin2/$2 -f RewriteRule ^(.*)/(.*) $1/skin2/$2 [L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} skin3.example.com RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}$1/skin3/$2 -f RewriteRule ^(.*)/(.*) $1/skin3/$2 [L] </VirtualHost> The concept behind the rules is if the same filename exists in a subdirectory for that host, use it instead of the direct targeted file. This uses host based subdirectories at the lowest level, and not a top level subdirectory to separate content.

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  • SQL - Updating records based on most recent date

    - by Remnant
    I am having difficulty updating records within a database based on the most recent date and am looking for some guidance. By the way, I am new to SQL. As background, I have a windows forms application with SQL Express and am using ADO.NET to interact with the database. The application is designed to enable the user to track employee attendance on various courses that must be attended on a periodic basis (e.g. every 6 months, every year etc.). For example, they can pull back data to see the last time employees attended a given course and also update attendance dates if an employee has recently completed a course. I have three data tables: EmployeeDetailsTable - simple list of employees names, email address etc., each with unique ID CourseDetailsTable - simple list of courses, each with unique ID (e.g. 1, 2, 3 etc.) AttendanceRecordsTable - has 3 columns { EmployeeID, CourseID, AttendanceDate, Comments } For any given course, an employee will have an attendance history i.e. if the course needs to be attended each year then they will have one record for as many years as they have been at the company. What I want to be able to do is to update the 'Comments' field for a given employee and given course based on the most recent attendance date. What is the 'correct' SQL syntax for this? I have tried many things (like below) but cannot get it to work: UPDATE AttendanceRecordsTable SET Comments = @Comments WHERE AttendanceRecordsTable.EmployeeID = (SELECT EmployeeDetailsTable.EmployeeID FROM EmployeeDetailsTable WHERE (EmployeeDetailsTable.LastName =@ParameterLastName AND EmployeeDetailsTable.FirstName =@ParameterFirstName) AND AttendanceRecordsTable.CourseID = (SELECT CourseDetailsTable.CourseID FROM CourseDetailsTable WHERE CourseDetailsTable.CourseName =@CourseName)) GROUP BY MAX(AttendanceRecordsTable.LastDate) After much googling, I discovered that MAX is an aggregate function and so I need to use GROUP BY. I have also tried using the HAVING keyword but without success. Can anybody point me in the right direction? What is the 'conventional' syntax to update a database record based on the most recent date?

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  • How to eliminate duplicate rows?

    - by Odette
    hi guys im back with my original query and i just have one question please (ps: I know i have to vote and regsiter and I promise I will do that today) With the following query (t-sql) I am getting the correct results, except that there are duplicates now. I have been reading up and think I can use the PARTITION BY syntax - can you please show me how to incorporate the PARTITION BY syntax? WITH CALC1 AS (SELECT OTQUOT, OTIT01 AS ITEMS, ROUND(OQCQ01 * OVRC01,2) AS COST FROM @[email protected] WHERE OTIT01 < '' UNION ALL ... SELECT OTQUOT, OTIT10 AS ITEMS, ROUND(OQCQ10 * OVRC10,2) AS COST FROM @[email protected] WHERE OTIT10 < '' ) SELECT OTQUOT, DESC, ITEMS, RN FROM ( SELECT OTQUOT, ITEMS, B.IXRPGP AS GROUP, C.OTRDSC AS DESC, COST, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OTQUOT ORDER BY COST DESC) AS RN FROM CALC1 AS A INNER JOIN @[email protected] AS B ON (A.ITEMS = B.IKITMC) INNER JOIN DATAGRP.GDSGRP AS C ON (B.IXRPGP = C.OKRPGP) ) T RESULTS: 60408169 FENCING GNCPDCTP18BGBG 1 60408169 FENCING CGIFESHPD1795BG 2 60408169 FENCING GTTCGIBG 3 60408169 FENCING GBTCGIBG 4 How do I get rid of the duplicates? thanks Bill and all the others for your help (I am still learning!)

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  • Perl - Using hashes in classes

    - by brydgesk
    I have a class with several variables, one of which is a hash (_runs): sub new { my ($class, $name) = @_; my $self = { _name => $name, ... _runs => (), _times => [], ... }; bless ($self, $class); return $self; } Now, all I'm trying to do is create an accessor/mutator, as well as another subroutine that pushes new data into the hash. But I'm having a hell of a time getting all the referencing/dereferencing/$self calls working together. I've about burned my eyes out with "Can't use string ("blah") as a HASH ref etc etc" errors. For the accessor, what is 'best practice' for returning hashes? Which one of these options should I be using (if any)?: return $self->{_runs}; return %{ $self->{_runs} }; return \$self->{_runs}; Further, when I'm using the hash within other subroutines in the class, what syntax do I use to copy it? my @runs = $self->{_runs}; my @runs = %{ $self->{_runs} }; my @runs = $%{ $self->{_runs} }; my @runs = $$self->{_runs}; Same goes for iterating over the keys: foreach my $dt (keys $self->{_runs}) foreach my $dt (keys %{ $self->{_runs} }) And how about actually adding the data? $self->{_runs}{$dt} = $duration; %{ $self->{_runs} }{$dt} = $duration; $$self->{_runs}{$dt} = $duration; You get the point. I've been reading articles about using classes, and articles about referencing and dereferencing, but I can't seem to get my brain to combine the knowledge and use both at the same time. I got my _times array working finally, but mimicking my array syntax over to hashes didn't work.

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  • Mysql and PHP - Reading multiple insert queries from a file and executing at runtime

    - by SpikETidE
    Hi everyone... I am trying out a back-up and restore system. Basically, what i try to do is, when creating the back up i make a file which looks like DELETE FROM bank_account; INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('1', 'IB6872', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '2', '1', '0', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '1', '2010-04-13 17:09:05');INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('2', 'IB7391', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '3', '1', '0', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '1', '2010-04-13 17:09:32'); and so on and so forth. When i restore the db i just read the query from the file, save it to a string and then execute it over the DB using mysql_query(); The problem is, when i run the query through mysql_query(), the execution stops after the delete query with the error 'Error in syntax near '; INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('1', 'IB6872', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '2',' at line 1. But when i run the queries directly over the Db, using phpmyadmin it executes without any errors. As far as i can see, i can't notice any syntax error in the query. Can anyone point out where there might be a glitch...? Thanks and regards....

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  • Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to MSSQL

    - by colithium
    Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to MSSQL Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: MSSQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that MSSQL understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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