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  • MVC: model of type Nullable<T>

    - by Fyodor Soikin
    I have a partial view that inherits from ViewUserControl<Guid?> - i.e. it's model is of type Nullable<Guid>. Very simple view, nothing special, but that's not the point. Somewhere else, I do Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", someGuid ), where someGuid is of type Nullable<Guid>. Everything's perfectly legal, should work OK, right? But here's the gotcha: the second argument of Html.RenderPartial is of type object, and therefore, Nullable<Guid> being a value type, it must be boxed. But nullable types are somehow special in the CLR, so that when you box one of those, you actually get either a boxed value of type T (Nullable's argument), or a null if the nullable didn't have a value to begin with. And that last case is actually interesting. Turns out, sometimes, I do have a situation when someGuid.HasValue == false. And in those cases, I effectively get a call Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", null ). And what does the HtmlHelper do when the model is null? Believe it or not, it just goes ahead and takes the parent view's model. Regardless of it's type. So, naturally, in those cases, I get an exception saying: "The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Parent.View.Model.Type', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'System.Guid?'" So the question is: how do I make MVC correctly pass new Nullable<Guid> { HasValue = false } instead of trying to grab the parent's model? Note: I did consider wrapping my Guid? in an object of another type, specifically created for this occasion, but this seems completely ridiculous. Don't want to do that as long as there's another way. Note 2: now that I've wrote all this, I've realized that the question may be reduced to how to pass a null for model without ending up with parent's model?

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  • Readonly SiteMapNodes in ASP.Net MVC?

    - by BenN
    I'm using MVCSiteMap as a SiteMapProvider for my MVC site. I have a node set up like so.... <mvcSiteMapNode key="1" title="Product" controller="Product" action="Display" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id"> <mvcSiteMapNode key="11" title="More Details" controller="Product" action="MoreDetails" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id" /> </mvcSiteMapNode> ...Which means I can go to ~/Product/Display/12 and get a correct sitemap node for product id 12 (in this case just Product. And I can go to ~/Product/MoreDetails/12 and get the sitemap path for the MoreDetails (Product - More Details). The problem is that the link back to Product in this sitemap doesn't work - it skips the id off the end, instead linking to ~/Product/Display/. Which sucks. I've discovered I can edit the Title of a node using SiteMap.CurrentNode.Title = "My New Title"; But... SiteMap.CurrentNode.ParentNode.Url = "http://www.google.com"; Doesn't set the Url for the parent node; it gets the default link described before. Any ideas how I can set the URL of a SiteMapNode?

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  • Create serial number column in telerik mvc grid

    - by Jayaraj
    I could create a grid with telerik mvc <% Html.Telerik().Grid(Model) .Name("ProductGrid") .Columns(columns => { columns.Bound(h => h.ProductName).Width("34%"); columns.Bound(h => h.Description).Width("60%"); columns.Bound(h => h.ProductID).Format(Html.ImageLink("Edit", "Products", new { Id = "{0}" }, "/Content/images/icon_edit.gif", "", new { Id = "edit{0}" }, null).ToString()).Encoded(false).Title("").Sortable(false).Width("3%"); columns.Bound(h => h.ProductID).Format(Html.ImageLink("Delete", "Products", new { Id = "{0}" }, "/Content/images/icon_delete.gif", "", new { onclick = string.Format("return confirm('Are you sure to delete this add on?');") },null).ToString()).Encoded(false).Title("").Sortable(false).Width("3%"); }) .EnableCustomBinding(true) .DataBinding(databinding => databinding.Ajax().Select("_Index", "ProductGrid")) .Pageable(settings => settings.Total((int)ViewData["TotalPages"]) .PageSize(10)) .Sortable() .Render(); %> but I need to add a serial number column in telerik grid.How can i do this?

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  • .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

    - by user135498
    Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

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  • ASP.NET MVC Map String Url To A Route Value Object

    - by mwgriffiths
    I am creating a modular ASP.NET MVC application using areas. In short, I have created a greedy route that captures all routes beginning with {application}/{*catchAll}. Here is the action: // get /application/index public ActionResult Index(string application, object catchAll) { // forward to partial request to return partial view ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(catchAll); // this gets called in the view page and uses a partial request class to return a partial view } Example: The Url "/Application/Accounts/LogOn" will then cause the Index action to pass "/Accounts/LogOn" into the PartialRequest, but as a string value. // partial request constructor public PartialRequest(object routeValues) { RouteValueDictionary = new RouteValueDictionary(routeValues); } In this case, the route value dictionary will not return any values for the routeData, whereas if I specify a route in the Index Action: ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }); It works, and the routeData values contains a "controller" key and an "action" key; whereas before, the keys are empty, and therefore the rest of the class wont work. So my question is, how can I convert the "/Accounts/LogOn" in the catchAll to "new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }"?? If this is not clear, I will explain more! :) Matt This is the "closest" I have got, but it obviously wont work for complex routes: // split values into array var routeParts = catchAll.ToString().Split(new char[] { '/' }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); // feels like a hack catchAll = new { controller = routeParts[0], action = routeParts[1] };

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  • ASP.NET MVC routing issue with Google Chrome client

    - by synergetic
    My Silverlight 4 app is hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 web application. It works fine when I browse with Internet Explorer 8. However Google Chrome (version 5) cannot find ASP.NET controllers. Specifically, the following ASP.NET controller works both with Chrome and IE. //[OutputCache(NoStore = true, Duration = 0, VaryByParam = "None")] public ContentResult TestMe() { ContentResult result = new ContentResult(); XElement response = new XElement("SvrResponse", new XElement("Data", "my data")); result.Content = response.ToString(); return result; } If I uncomment [OutputCache] attribute then it works with IE but not with Chrome. Also, I use custom model binding with controllers, so if I write the following: public ContentResult TestMe(UserContext userContext) { ... } it also works with IE, but again not with Chrome which gives me error message saying that resource was not found. Of course, I configured IIS 6 for handling all requests via aspnet_isapi.dll and I have registered custom model binder in my web app's Global.asax inside Application_Start() method. Can someone explain me what might be the cause? Thank you.

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  • MVC.NET custom validator is not working

    - by IvanMushketyk
    I want to write a custom validator for MVC.NET framework that checks if entered date is in the future. To do it, I wrote the following class: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class InTheFutureAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "{0} should be date in the future"; public InTheFutureAttribute() : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return string.Format(ErrorMessageString, name); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime time = (DateTime)value; if (time < DateTime.Now) { return false; } return true; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var clientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule() { ErrorMessage = FormatErrorMessage(metadata.GetDisplayName()), ValidationType = "wrongvalue" }; return new[] { clientValidationRule }; } } and added attribute to field that I want to check. On the View page I create input field in the following way: <div class="editor-label-search"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> <div class="editor-field-search-date"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.checkIn) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#checkIn').datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Content/images/calendar.gif', duration: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy' }); }); </script> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> When I submit the form for the controller that requires model with checked attribute code in my validator is called and it returns false, but instead of displaying an error it just call my controller's action and send invalid model to it. Am I doing something wrong? How can I fix it? Thank you in advance.

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  • ASP.Net MVC ActionLink's and Shared Hosting Aliased Domains

    - by Peter Meyer
    So, I've read this and I've got a similar issue: I have a shared hosting account (with GoDaddy, though that's not exactly relevant, I believe) and I've got an MVC (RC1) site deployed to a sub-folder which where I have another domain name mapped (or aliased). The sub-folder is also setup as an application root as well. The site works without issue, the problem is that I don't like the links that are being generated using Html.ActionLink and Ajax.ActionLink. It's inserting the sub folder name as part of the URL as described in this other question. Thing is, the site works fine, but I'd like to make the links generated relative to the domain name. To use an example: http://my.abc.com "primary" domain; maps to \ on file system http://my.xyz.com setup to map to \_xyz.com folder on file system My generated links on xyz.com look like this: Intended Generated -------- --------- http://my.xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 http://my.xyz.com/_xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 and, FWIW, the site works. So, the question: Is there something I can do to get rid of that folder name in the links being generated? I have a couple of brute force ideas, but they aren't too elegant.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • PHP: MVC and Model

    - by Pirkka
    Hello I`ve been wondering this one thing about creating models. If I make for example Page model. Is it the both: It can retrieve one row from the table or all the rows. Somehow Im mixing the objects and the database. I have thought it like this: I would have to make a Page-class that would represent one row in the table. It also would have all the basic CRUD-methods. Then I would have to do a Pages-class (somekind of collection) that would retrieve rows from the table and instantiate a Page object from each row. Is this kind of weird? If someone could explain to me the idea of model throughout.. Im again confused. Maybe Im thinking the whole OOP too difficult.. And by the way this forum is great. Hopefully people will just understand my problems. Heh. I was a long time procedural style programmer and now in 3 months I have dived into OOP and MVC and PHP frameworks and I just get more excited day by day when I explore this stuff!

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  • ASP.NET MVC Posted date field comes in as 1/1/0001

    - by engil
    Just started working with .NET and MVC(1). I'm having a problem wherein in my add action the entered date for some reason ends up as 1/1/0001 instead of what is entered thus causing a date overflow. In my model, this field ("Added") is is of type datetime and does not allow nulls. In my controller I have: public ActionResult Add() { Instance instance = new Instance() { Added = DateTime.Now, Active = true }; return View(instance); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Add(Instance instance) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { System.Diagnostics.Trace.Write("test"); instanceRepository.Add(instance); instanceRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = instance.InstanceID }); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(instance.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(instance); } And in my view I have: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Added) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Added,String.Format("{0:g}",Model.Added))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Added) %> When I first go to Instances/Add the default value is set correctly, however as soon as I submit the date turns into 1/1/0001 (from my understanding this indicates that it was either null or in an unrecognizable format) When I debug and palce a watch on Request.Form I see the date coming in encoded ie Request.Form {Added=4%2f9%2f2010+8%3a24%3a39+AM} - is this an issue? I know its probably not enough information to make a conlusive determination on why this is failing, but if someone could provide some good debugging tips on how to determine where the submitted date is getting munged I'd really appreciate it.

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  • How does MVC ViewData work?

    - by Matt
    I am toying around with an MVC application just to learn the technology. I am mocking up a check register application that keeps track of a checking account, what has cleared the bank and what has not. I am using EF for my model and everything seems to be working correctly insofar as Edit, Create, etc. However, I have a couple of totals at the top. One to show the bank's balance and another to show the actual balance. It works most of the time but when I do Edit's it does not always accurately reflect the new total and I need it to update everytime a change is made (i.e when something clears the bank): [Authorize(Roles = "admin, checkUser")] public ActionResult Index() { var resultSet = from myChecking in chk.tblCheckings orderby myChecking.id descending select myChecking; ViewData.Model = resultSet.Take(45).ToList(); //for balances var actualBalance = from theChecking in chk.tblCheckings select theChecking.deposit - theChecking.withdrawal; var bankBalance = from theChecking in chk.tblCheckings where theChecking.cleared == true select theChecking.deposit - theChecking.withdrawal; //get bank balance ViewData["bankBalance"] = bankBalance.Sum(); //get actual balance ViewData["actualBalance"] = actualBalance.Sum(); return View(); } I am showing the actual and other balance in the Index view as follows: <td colspan="9" style="text-align: center; font-size: 11pt; color: white;"> <%= string.Format("Bank Balance: {0:c}", ViewData["bankBalance"]) %> ------ <%= string.Format("Actual Balance: {0:c}", ViewData["actualBalance"]) %> </td>

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  • Injecting Dependencies into Domain Model classes with Nhibernate (ASP.NET MVC + IOC)

    - by Sunday Ironfoot
    I'm building an ASP.NET MVC application that uses a DDD (Domain Driven Design) approach with database access handled by NHibernate. I have domain model class (Administrator) that I want to inject a dependency into via an IOC Container such as Castle Windsor, something like this: public class Administrator { public virtual int Id { get; set; } //.. snip ..// public virtual string HashedPassword { get; protected set; } public void SetPassword(string plainTextPassword) { IHashingService hasher = IocContainer.Resolve<IHashingService>(); this.HashedPassword = hasher.Hash(plainTextPassword); } } I basically want to inject IHashingService for the SetPassword method without calling the IOC Container directly (because this is suppose to be an IOC Anti-pattern). But I'm not sure how to go about doing it. My Administrator object either gets instantiated via new Administrator(); or it gets loaded via NHibernate, so how would I inject the IHashingService into the Administrator class? On second thoughts, am I going about this the right way? I was hoping to avoid having my codebase littered with... currentAdmin.Password = HashUtils.Hash(password, Algorithm.Sha512); ...and instead get the domain model itself to take care of hashing and neatly encapsulate it away. I can envisage another developer accidently choosing the wrong algorithm and having some passwords as Sha512, and some as MD5, some with one salt, and some with a different salt etc. etc. Instead if developers are writing... currentAdmin.SetPassword(password); ...then that would hide those details away and take care of those problems listed above would it not?

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  • ASP.NET MVC application architecture "guidelines"

    - by Joe Future
    I'm looking for some feedback on my ASP.NET MVC based CMS application architecture. Domain Model - depends on nothing but the System classes to define types. For now, mostly anemic. Repository Layer - abstracted data access, only called by the services layer Services Layer - performs business logic on domain models. Exposes view models to the controllers. ViewModelMapper - service that translates back and forth between view models and domain models Controllers - super thin "traffic cop" style functionality that interacts with the service layer and only talks in terms of view models, never domain models My domain model is mostly used as data transfer (DTO) objects and has minimal logic at the moment. I'm finding this is nice because it depends on nothing (not even classes in the services layer). The services layer is a bit tricky... I only want the controllers to have access to viewmodels for ease of GUI programming. However, some of the services need to talk to each other. For example, I have an eventing service that notifies other listener services when content is tagged, when blog posts are created, etc. Currently, the methods that take domain models as inputs or return them are marked internal so they can't be used by the controllers. Sounds like overkill? Not enough abstraction? I'm mainly doing this as a learning exercise in being strict about architecture, not for an actual product, so please no feedback along the lines of "right depends on what you want to do". thanks! Jason

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  • Spring MVC + Hibernate encoding problem

    - by Bar
    I work on Spring MVC + Hibernate application, use MySQL (ver. 5.0.51a) with the InnoDB engine. The problem appears when I am sending a form with cyrillic characters. As the result, database contains senseless chars in unknown encoding. All the JSP pages, database (+ tables and fields) created using UTF-8. Hibernate config also contains property which sets encoding to UTF-8. I had solved this by creating filter which encodes request content with UTF-8. Exemplary code: … encoding = "UTF-8"; request.setCharacterEncoding(encoding); chain.doFilter(request, response); … But it visibly slows down the app. The interesting thing is that executing insert query directly from the app (i.e. running from Eclipse as Java Application) works perfect. Any suggestions are welcome. TIA, Michael.

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  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • MVC : Checkboxes generated using JavaScript not appearing in FormCollection on postback

    - by Andy Evans
    I took over another project (written by one contractor, modified by another and now it's not working) written using MVC/C# where a view that has a table (see below) is dynamically populated using JSON/Javascript - the first column of which is a checkbox. View (spark view engine) <table id='component_list' name='component_list' cellpadding='0' border='0' cellspacing='0'> <thead> <tr> <th>&nbsp;</th> <th>Component</th> <th>Component Type</th> <th>Evenflo Part #</th> <th>Supplier Part #</th> <th>Supplier</th> <th>Requirement</th> <th>Location</th> <th>Region</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> </tbody> </table> When the page is rendered, I look at the source for the page and do not see the table data (I wouldn't expect to see this). However, when the form is posted back, controller, the FormCollection is empty. Supposedly this had been working before the last contractor got their hands on it - which is another post all together. My goal right now is having the checkboxes in the FormCollection. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks,

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  • Controller class not available in Add View ASP.NET MVC

    - by Tassadaque
    Hi I have created the following controller i want to add view that should have the data access class UserMagnament.Controller.menuitems but when i add view by right clicking on view folder,it is not showing "UserMagnament.Controller.menuitems" in add data class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using UserManagement.Models; namespace UserManagement.Controllers { public class menuitems { EvoLetDataContext db1 = new EvoLetDataContext(); public menuitems() { } public IQueryable<UMUserType> menuitems() { return db1.UMUserTypes; //this.Packages = _SysPackage; //this.Modules = _SysModule; } public List<SysPackage> Packages { get; private set; } public List<SysModule> Modules { get; private set; } } public class Default1Controller : Controller { // // GET: /Default1/ public ActionResult Index() { return View(new menuitems()); } } }

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  • MVC: Submit one form from a page with multiple forms

    - by Rob
    I'm working in an ASP.NET 3.5 MVC application where i've got a view with multiple forms in it. Form 1 contains information about products and will form a shoppingcart with a remove button. Form 2 is as below and is to be used to get the information from the shoppingcart and create an order of it. <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%=Html.Hidden(Order.ProductId", "E63EF586-F625-4C8D-B82E-E63A6FA4A63C")%> <%=Html.Hidden(Order.Amount", 1)%> <input type="submit" value="Pay" /> <%} % The first form contains a similar beginform with a foreach loop to get the information about the products from the model. When i use the submit button on the second form everything seems to be submitted and the action in the controller for the first form is trying to handle the request. That is where the error occurce because the information in the viewmodel isn't corresponding to what is being expected. The controller which is trying to handle the request: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult ShowShoppingcartForm([Bind(Prefix = "Order")] MyViewmodel viewModel) { //.. } The controller which is expected to handle the request: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SaveOrder([Bind(Prefix = "Order")] MyViewmodel viewModel) { throw new NotImplementedException(); }

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  • ASP.Net MVC, JS injection and System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path

    - by Mose
    Hi, In my ASP.Net MVC application, I use custom error handling. I want to perform custom actions for each error case I meet in my application. So I override Application_Error, get the Server.GetLastError(); and do my business depending on the exception, the current user, the current URL (the application runs on many domains), the user IP, and many others. Obviousely, the application is often the target of hackers. In almost all the case it's not a problem to detect and manage it, but for some JS URL attacks, my error handling does not perform what I want it to do. Ex (from logs) : http://localhost:1809/Scripts/]||!o.support.htmlSerialize&&[1 When I got such an URL, an exception is raised when accessing the ConnectionStrings section in the web.config, and I can't even redirect to another URL. It leads to a "System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path, etc." The screenshot below shows the problem : http://screencast.com/t/Y2I1YWU4 An obvious solution is to write a HTTP module to filter the urls before they reach my application, but I'd like to avoid it because : I like having the whole security being managed in one place (in the Application_Error() method) In the module I cannot access the whole data I have in the application itself (application specific data I don't want to debate here) Questions : Did you meet this problem ? How did you manage it ? Thanks for you suggestions, Mose

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  • Go for Zend framework or Django for a modular web application?

    - by dr. squid
    I am using both Zend framework and Django, and they both have they strengths and weakness, but they are both good framworks in their own way. I do want to create a highly modular web application, like this example: modules: Admin cms articles sections ... ... ... I also want all modules to be self contained with all confid and template files. I have been looking into a way to solve this is zend the last days, but adding one omer level to the module setup doesn't feel right. I am sure this could be done, but should I? I have also included Doctrine to my zend application that could give me even more problems in my module setup! When we are talking about Django this is easy to implement (Easy as in concept, not in implementation time or whatever) and a great way to create web apps. But one of the downsides of Django is the web hosing part. There are some web hosts offering Django support, but not that many.. So then I guess the question is what have the most value; rapid modular development versus hosting options! Well, comments are welcome! Thanks

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  • Deploying ASP.Net MVC application

    - by a_m0d
    I've recently reached the stage where an ASP.net MVC application I am developing is ready to be deployed to the production server. I've worked out how to publish the application - I've got all the files on the server, and can access them over the internet. However, I can't work out how to deploy my database. The server has the SQL Server Management Studio Express installed, as the database used is a SQL Server Express database. I have the server instance up and running - I just don't know how to add the tables, etc. to the database. I have created the "CREATE TABLE" scripts on the development machine, but as far as I can see, Management Studio does not provide any way to actually run these scripts. I have looked through all the menu items that I could see, and none of them worked. Even using the "Create new query..." option and pasting the script in didn't work. When I try "File-Open..." and select a script to run, set the correct database from the dropdown list on the toolbar, and then execute the script, it complains about not finding the database file (even when I set the USE [...] statement to the correct path. Deleting the USE [...] statement, the script complains that it can't find the [dbo].[Invoices] object; however, it shouldn't be able to find it, because its trying to create it! tl;dr: What's the best way to make sure that the database on the production machine matches the database on my development machine?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Conditional validation

    - by Peter Stegnar
    How to use data annotations to do a conditional validation on model? For example, lets say we have the following model (Person and Senior): public class Person { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")] public string Name { get; set; } public bool IsSenior { get; set; } public Senior Senior { get; set; } } public class Senior { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")]//this should be conditional validation, based on the "IsSenior" value public string Description { get; set; } } And the following view: <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> I would like to be the "Senior.Description" property conditional required field based on the selection of the "IsSenior" propery (true - required). How to implement conditional validation in ASP.NET MVC 2 with data annotations? UPDATE Found nice solution. Look below.

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  • Asp.net mvc retriev images from db and display on Page

    - by Trey Carroll
    //Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<FilmFestWeb.Models.ListVideosViewModel>" <h2>ListVideos</h2> <% foreach(BusinessObjects.Video vid in Model.VideoList){%> <div class="videoBox"> <%= Html.Encode(vid.Name) %> <img src="<% vid.ThumbnailImage; %>" /> </div> <%} %> //ListVideosViewModel public class ListVideosViewModel { public IList<Video> VideoList { get; set; } } //Video public class Video { public long VideoId { get; set; } public long TeamId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Tags { get; set; } public string TeamMembers { get; set; } public string TranscriptFileName { get; set; } public string VideoFileName { get; set; } public int TotalNumRatings { get; set; } public int CumulativeTotalScore { get; set; } public string VideoUri { get; set; } public Image ThumbnailImage { get; set; } } I am getting the "red x" that I usually associate with image file not found. I have verified that my database table shows <binary data> after the stored proc that uploads the image executes. Any insight or advice would be greatly appreciated.

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