Search Results

Search found 5625 results on 225 pages for 'sean foo'.

Page 151/225 | < Previous Page | 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158  | Next Page >

  • How to have multiple instances of jQuery plugin on single page?

    - by James Skidmore
    I'm writing a simple jQuery plugin, but I'm having trouble being able to use multiple instances on a page. For instance, here is a sample plugin to illustrate my point: (function($) { $.fn.samplePlugin = function(options) { if (typeof foo != 'undefined') { alert('Already defined!'); } else { var foo = 'bar'; } }; })(jQuery); And then if I do this: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#myDiv').samplePlugin({}); // does nothing $('#myDiv2').samplePlugion({}); // alerts "Already defined!" }); This is obviously an over-simplified example to get across the point. So my question is, how do I have two separate instances of the plugin? I'd like to be able to use it across multiple instances on the same page. I'm guessing that part of the problem might be with defining the variables in a global scope. How can I define them unique to that instance of the plugin then? Thank you for your guidance!

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2008 Installer, Custom Action. Breakpoint not firing.

    - by Snake
    Hi, I've got an installer with a custom action project. I want the action to fire at install. The action fires, when I write something to the event log, it works perfectly. But I really need to debug the file since the action is quite complicated. So I've got the following installer class: namespace InstallerActions { using System; using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Configuration.Install; using System.Diagnostics; using System.IO; [RunInstaller(true)] // ReSharper disable UnusedMember.Global public partial class DatabaseInstallerAction : Installer // ReSharper restore UnusedMember.Global { public DatabaseInstallerAction() { InitializeComponent(); } public override void Install(IDictionary stateSaver) { base.Install(stateSaver); System.Diagnostics.Debugger.Launch(); System.Diagnostics.Debugger.Break(); // none of these work Foo(); } private static void Foo() { } } } The installer just finalizes without warning me, it doesn't break, it doesn't ask me to attach a debugger. I've tried debug and release mode. Am I missing something? Thanks -Snake

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio + Database Edition + CDC = Deploy Fail

    - by Ben
    Hi All, I've got a database using change data capture (CDC) that is created from a Visual Studio database project (GDR2). My problem is that I have a stored procedure that is analyzing the CDC information and then returning data. How is that a problem you ask? Well, the order of operation is as follows. Pre-deployment Script Tables Indexes, keys, etc. Procedures Post-deployment Script Inside the post-deployment script is where I enable CDC. Here-in lies the problem. The procedure that is acting on the CDC tables is bombing because they don't exist yet! I've tried to put the call to sys.sp_cdc_enable_table in the script that creates the table, but it doesn't like that. Error 102 TSD03070: This statement is not recognized in this context. C:...\Schema Objects\Schemas\dbo\Tables\Foo.table.sql 20 1 Foo Is there a better/built-in way to enable CDC such that it's references are available when the stored procedures are created? Is there a way to run a script after tables are created but before other objects are created? How about a way to create the procedure dependencies be damned? Or maybe I'm just doing things that shouldn't be done?!?! Now, I have a work around. Comment out the sproc body Deploy (CDC is created) Uncomment sproc Deploy Everything is great until the next time I update a CDC tracked table. Then I need to comment out the 'offending' procedure. Thanks for reading my question and thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • What's the idiomatic way of inheriting data access functionality as well as object properties?

    - by Knut Arne Vedaa
    Suppose the following (slightly pseudo-code for brevity): class Basic { String foo; } class SomeExtension extends Basic { String bar; } class OtherExtension extends Basic { String baz; } class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { } } class SomeExtensionService extends BasicService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { } } class OtherExtensionService extends BasicService { OtherExtension getOtherExtension() { } } What would be the most idiomatic, elegant way to implement the get-() service methods with the most possible code reuse? Obviously you could do it like this: class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { Basic basic = new Basic(); basic.setFoo("some kind of foo"); return basic; } } class SomeExtensionService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { SomeExtension someExtension = new SomeExtension; Basic basic = getBasic(); someExtension.setFoo(basic.getFoo()); someExtension.setBar("some kind of bar"); return someExtension; } } But this would be ugly if Basic has a lot of properties, and also you only need one object, as SomeExtension already inherits Basic. However, BasicService can obviously not return a SomeExtension object. You could also have the get methods not create the object themselves, but create it at the outermost level and pass it to the method for filling in the properties, but I find that too imperative. (Please let me know if the question is confusingly formulated.)

    Read the article

  • LINQ-SQL Updating Multiple Rows in a single transaction

    - by RPM1984
    Hi guys, I need help re-factoring this legacy LINQ-SQL code which is generating around 100 update statements. I'll keep playing around with the best solution, but would appreciate some ideas/past experience with this issue. Here's my code: List<Foo> foos; int userId = 123; using (DataClassesDataContext db = new FooDatabase()) { foos = (from f in db.FooBars where f.UserId = userId select f).ToList(); foreach (FooBar fooBar in foos) { fooBar.IsFoo = false; } db.SubmitChanges() } Essentially i want to update the IsFoo field to false for all records that have a particular UserId value. Whats happening is the .ToList() is firing off a query to get all the FooBars for a particular user, then for each Foo object, its executing an UPDATE statement updating the IsFoo property. Can the above code be re-factored to one single UPDATE statement? Ideally, the only SQL i want fired is the below: UPDATE FooBars SET IsFoo = FALSE WHERE UserId = 123 EDIT Ok so looks like it cant be done without using db.ExecuteCommand. Grr...! What i'll probably end up doing is creating another extension method for the DLINQ namespace. Still require some hardcoding (ie writing "WHERE" and "UPDATE"), but at least it hides most of the implementation details away from the actual LINQ query syntax.

    Read the article

  • Javascript/jQuery: programmatically follow a link

    - by Dan
    In Javascript code, I would like to programmatically cause the browser to follow a link that's on my page. Simple case: <a id="foo" href="mailto:[email protected]">something</a> function goToBar() { $('#foo').trigger('follow'); } This is hypothetical as it doesn't actually work. And no, triggering click doesn't do it. I am aware of window.location and window.open but these differ from native link-following in some ways that matter to me: a) in the presence of a <base /> element, and b) in the case of mailto URLs. The latter in particular is significant. In Firefox at least, calling window.location.href = "mailto:[email protected]" causes the window's unload handlers to fire, whereas simply clicking a mailto link does not, as far as I can tell. I'm looking for a way to trigger the browser's default handling of links, from Javascript code. Does such a mechanism exist? Toolkit-specific answers also welcome (especially for Gecko).

    Read the article

  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

    Read the article

  • Overloading generic implicit conversions

    - by raichoo
    Hi I'm having a little scala (version 2.8.0RC1) problem with implicit conversions. Whenever importing more than one implicit conversion the first one gets shadowed. Here is the code where the problem shows up: // containers class Maybe[T] case class Nothing[T]() extends Maybe[T] case class Just[T](value: T) extends Maybe[T] case class Value[T](value: T) trait Monad[C[_]] { def >>=[A, B](a: C[A], f: A => C[B]): C[B] def pure[A](a: A): C[A] } // implicit converter trait Extender[C[_]] { class Wrapper[A](c: C[A]) { def >>=[B](f: A => C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, f) } def >>[B](b: C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, { (x: A) => b } ) } } implicit def extendToMonad[A](c: C[A]) = new Wrapper[A](c) } // instance maybe object maybemonad extends Extender[Maybe] { implicit object MaybeMonad extends Monad[Maybe] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Maybe[A], f: A => Maybe[B]): Maybe[B] = { a match { case Just(x) => f(x) case Nothing() => Nothing() } } override def pure[A](a: A): Maybe[A] = Just(a) } } // instance value object identitymonad extends Extender[Value] { implicit object IdentityMonad extends Monad[Value] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Value[A], f: A => Value[B]): Value[B] = { a match { case Value(x) => f(x) } } override def pure[A](a: A): Value[A] = Value(a) } } import maybemonad._ //import identitymonad._ object Main { def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { println(Just(1) >>= { (x: Int) => MaybeMonad.pure(x) }) } } When uncommenting the second import statement everything goes wrong since the first "extendToMonad" is shadowed. However, this one works: object Main { implicit def foo(a: Int) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println("Foobar") } } implicit def foo(a: String) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println(a) } } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { 1 foobar() "bla" foobar() } } So, where is the catch? What am I missing? Regards, raichoo

    Read the article

  • multiple definition in header file

    - by Jérôme
    Here is a small code-example from which I'd like to ask a question : complex.h : #ifndef COMPLEX_H #define COMPLEX_H #include <iostream> class Complex { public: Complex(float Real, float Imaginary); float real() const { return m_Real; }; private: friend std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& o, const Complex& Cplx); float m_Real; float m_Imaginary; }; std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& o, const Complex& Cplx) { return o << Cplx.m_Real << " i" << Cplx.m_Imaginary; } #endif // COMPLEX_H complex.cpp : #include "complex.h" Complex::Complex(float Real, float Imaginary) { m_Real = Real; m_Imaginary = Imaginary; } main.cpp : #include "complex.h" #include <iostream> int main() { Complex Foo(3.4, 4.5); std::cout << Foo << "\n"; return 0; } When compiling this code, I get the following error : multiple definition of operator<<(std::ostream&, Complex const&) I've found that making this fonction inline solves the problem, but I don't understand why. Why does the compiler complain about multiple definition ? My header file is guarded (with #define COMPLEX_H). And, if complaining about the operator<< fonction, why not complain about the public real() fonction, which is defined in the header as well ? And is there another solution as using the inline keyword ?

    Read the article

  • Access values of a group of select boxes in php from post

    - by 2Real
    Hi, I'm new to PHP, and I can't figure this out. I'm trying to figure out how to access the data of a group of select boxes I have defined in my HTML code. I tried grouping them as a class, but that doesn't seem to work... maybe I was doing it wrong. This is the following HTML code. <form action="" method="post"> <select class="foo"> <option> 1.....100</option> </select> <select class="foo"> <option> 1.... 500></option> </select> <input type="submit" value="Submit" name="submit"/> </form> I essentially want to group all my select boxes and access all the values in my PHP code. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Rename files and directories using substitution and variables

    - by rednectar
    I have found several similar questions that have solutions, except they don't involve variables. I have a particular pattern in a tree of files and directories - the pattern is the word TEMPLATE. I want a script file to rename all of the files and directories by replacing the word TEMPLATE with some other name that is contained in the variable ${newName} If I knew that the value of ${newName} was say "Fred lives here", then the command find . -name '*TEMPLATE*' -exec bash -c 'mv "$0" "${0/TEMPLATE/Fred lives here}"' {} \; will do the job However, if my script is: newName="Fred lives here" find . -name '*TEMPLATE*' -exec bash -c 'mv "$0" "${0/TEMPLATE/${newName}}"' {} \; then the word TEMPLATE is replaced by null rather than "Fred lives here" I need the "" around $0 because there are spaces in the path name, so I can't do something like: find . -name '*TEMPLATE*' -exec bash -c 'mv "$0" "${0/TEMPLATE/"${newName}"}"' {} \; Can anyone help me get this script to work so that all files and directories that contain the word TEMPLATE have TEMPLATE replaced by whatever the value of ${newName} is eg, if newName="A different name" and a I had directory of /foo/bar/some TEMPLATE directory/with files then the directory would be renamed to /foo/bar/some A different name directory/with files and a file called some TEMPLATE file would be renamed to some A different name file

    Read the article

  • Permission denied to access property 'toString'

    - by Anders
    I'm trying to find a generic way of getting the name of Constructors. My goal is to create a Convention over configuration framework for KnockoutJS My idea is to iterate over all objects in the window and when I find the contructor i'm looking for then I can use the index to get the name of the contructor The code sofar (function() { constructors = {}; window.findConstructorName = function(instance) { var constructor = instance.constructor; var name = constructors[constructor]; if(name !== undefined) { return name; } var traversed = []; var nestedFind = function(root) { if(typeof root == "function" || traversed[root]) { return } traversed[root] = true; for(var index in root) { if(root[index] == constructor) { return index; } var found = nestedFind(root[index]); if(found !== undefined) { return found; } } } name = nestedFind(window); constructors[constructor] = name; return name; } })(); var MyApp = {}; MyApp.Foo = function() { }; var instance = new MyApp.Foo(); console.log(findConstructorName(instance)); The problem is that I get a Permission denied to access property 'toString' Exception, and i cant even try catch so see which object is causing the problem Fiddle http://jsfiddle.net/4ZwaV/

    Read the article

  • Returning pointers in a thread-safe way.

    - by Roddy
    Assume I have a thread-safe collection of Things (call it a ThingList), and I want to add the following function. Thing * ThingList::findByName(string name) { return &item[name]; // or something similar.. } But by doing this, I've delegated the responsibility for thread safety to the calling code, which would have to do something like this: try { list.lock(); // NEEDED FOR THREAD SAFETY Thing *foo = list.findByName("wibble"); foo->Bar = 123; list.unlock(); } catch (...) { list.unlock(); throw; } Obviously a RAII lock/unlock object would simplify/remove the try/catch/unlocks, but it's still easy for the caller to forget. There are a few alternatives I've looked at: Return Thing by value, instead of a pointer - fine unless you need to modify the Thing Add function ThingList::setItemBar(string name, int value) - fine, but these tend to proliferate Return a pointerlike object which locks the list on creation and unlocks it again on destruction. Not sure if this is good/bad practice... What's the right approach to dealing with this?

    Read the article

  • Where does "new" fit in the flex creation cycle?

    - by deux11
    In the following code, the call to myChild.bar() results in an exception because myChild is null. myParent is a valid object. What I don't understand is why myChild has not been created yet. I have read the following document related to object creation sequence, but I am unsure how "new" is related: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=layoutperformance_03.html Any help is appreciated! // Main.mxml <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="created()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public var myParent:Parent = new Parent(); public function created():void { myParent.foo(); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> // Parent.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns="*"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function foo():void { myChild.bar(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <Child id="myChild"/> </mx:Canvas> // Child.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function bar():void { trace("Hello World"); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Canvas>

    Read the article

  • Does it ever make sense to make a fundamental (non-pointer) parameter const?

    - by Scott Smith
    I recently had an exchange with another C++ developer about the following use of const: void Foo(const int bar); He felt that using const in this way was good practice. I argued that it does nothing for the caller of the function (since a copy of the argument was going to be passed, there is no additional guarantee of safety with regard to overwrite). In addition, doing this prevents the implementer of Foo from modifying their private copy of the argument. So, it both mandates and advertises an implementation detail. Not the end of the world, but certainly not something to be recommended as good practice. I'm curious as to what others think on this issue. Edit: OK, I didn't realize that const-ness of the arguments didn't factor into the signature of the function. So, it is possible to mark the arguments as const in the implementation (.cpp), and not in the header (.h) - and the compiler is fine with that. That being the case, I guess the policy should be the same for making local variables const. One could make the argument that having different looking signatures in the header and source file would confuse others (as it would have confused me). While I try to follow the Principle of Least Astonishment with whatever I write, I guess it's reasonable to expect developers to recognize this as legal and useful.

    Read the article

  • Why does GCC need extra declarations in templates when VS does not?

    - by Kyle
    template<typename T> class Base { protected: Base() {} T& get() { return t; } T t; }; template<typename T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Base<T>::get; // Line A Base<T>::t; // Line B void foo() { t = 4; get(); } }; int main() { return 0; } If I comment out lines A and B, this code compiles fine under Visual Studio 2008. Yet when I compile under GCC 4.1 with lines A and B commented, I get these errors: In member function ‘void TemplateDerived::foo()’: error: ‘t’ was not declared in this scope error: there are no arguments to ‘get’ that depend on a template parameter, so a declaration of ‘get’ must be available Why would one compiler require lines A and B while the other doesn't? Is there a way to simplify this? In other words, if derived classes use 20 things from the base class, I have to put 20 lines of declarations for every class deriving from Base! Is there a way around this that doesn't require so many declarations?

    Read the article

  • getElementByTagName does not return comment nodes in javascript

    - by Sourabh
    Hi , I want to retrieve all the nodes present in particular DIV element.see the below test page (firefox) <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE> New Document </TITLE> <META NAME="Generator" CONTENT="EditPlus"> <META NAME="Author" CONTENT=""> <META NAME="Keywords" CONTENT=""> <META NAME="Description" CONTENT=""> <script> function processTags() { var chNodes = document.getElementById('foo').getElementsByTagName('*') ; console.log(chNodes); } </script> </HEAD> <BODY onload="processTags();"> <div id="foo"> <!-- this is a comment -->this is some text ? <span>this is inside span</span> <div><p>test</p>test<div> </div> </BODY> </HTML> But it does not give me comments tag.. what is the best way to retrieve all tags ??

    Read the article

  • Long running method causing race condition

    - by keeleyt83
    Hi, I'm relatively new with hibernate so please be gentle. I'm having an issue with a long running method (~2 min long) and changing the value of a status field on an object stored in the DB. The pseudo-code below should help explain my issue. public foo(thing) { if (thing.getStatus() == "ready") { thing.setStatus("finished"); doSomethingAndTakeALongTime(); } else { // Thing already has a status of finished. Send the user back a message. } } The pseudo-code shouldn't take much explanation. I want doSomethingAndTakeALongTime() to run, but only if it has a status of "ready". My issue arises whenever it takes 2 minutes for doSomethingAndTakeALongTime() to finish and the change to thing's status field doesn't get persisted to the database until it leaves foo(). So another user can put in a request during those 2 minutes and the if statement will evaluate to true. I've already tried updating the field and flushing the session manually, but it didn't seem to work. I'm not sure what to do from here and would appreciate any help. PS: My hibernate session is managed by spring.

    Read the article

  • Consistent HashCode() and Equals() results, but inconsistent TreeMap.containsKey() result

    - by smessing
    I have the following object Node: private class Node implements Comparable<Node>(){ private String guid(); ... public boolean equals(Node o){ return (this == o); } public int hashCode(){ return guid.hashCode(); } ... } And I use it in the following TreeMap: TreeMap<Node, TreeSet<Edge>> nodes = new TreeMap<Node, TreeSet<Edge>>(); Now, the tree map is used in a class called Graph to store nodes currently in the graph, along with a set of their edges (from the class Edge). My problem is when I try to execute: public containsNode(n){ for (Node x : nodes.keySet()) { System.out.println("HASH CODE: "); System.out.print(x.hashCode() == n.hashCode()); System.out.println("EQUALS: "); System.out.print(x.equals(n)); System.out.println("CONTAINS: "); System.out.print(nodes.containsKey(n)); System.out.println("N: " + n); System.out.println("X: " + x); } } I sometimes get the following: HASHCODE: true EQUALS: true CONTAINS: false N: foo X: foo Anyone have an idea as to what I'm doing wrong? I'm still new to all this, so I apologize in advance if I'm overlooking something simple (I know hashCode() doesn't really matter for TreeMap, but I figured I'd include it).

    Read the article

  • getting a "default" concrete class that implements an interface

    - by Roger Joys
    I am implementing a custom (and generic) Json.net serializer and hit a bump in the road that I could use some help on. When the deserializer is mapping to a property that is an interface, how can I best determine what sort of object to construct to deserialize to to place into the interface property. I have the following: [JsonConverter(typeof(MyCustomSerializer<foo>))] class foo { int Int1 { get; set; } IList<string> StringList {get; set; } } My serializer properly serializes this object, and but when it comes back in, and I try to map the json parts to to object, I have a JArray and an interface. I am currently instantiating anything enumerable like List as theList = Activator.CreateInstance(property.PropertyType); This works create to work with in the deserialization process, but when the property is IList, I get runtime complaints (obviously) about not being able to instantiate an interface. So how would I know what type of concrete class to create in a case like this? Thank you

    Read the article

  • How do I use an index in an array reference as a method reference in Perl?

    - by Robert P
    Similar to this question about iterating over subroutine references, and as a result of answering this question about a OO dispatch table, I was wondering how to call a method reference inside a reference, without removing it first, or if it was even possible. For example: package Class::Foo; use 5.012; #Yay autostrict! use warnings; # a basic constructor for illustration purposes.... sub new { my $class = shift; return bless {}, $class; } # some subroutines for flavor... sub sub1 { say 'in sub 1' } sub sub2 { say 'in sub 2' } sub sub3 { say 'in sub 3' } # and a way to dynamically load the tests we're running... sub sublist { my $self = shift; return [ $self->can('sub1'); $self->can('sub3'}; $self->can('sub2'); ]; } package main; my $instance = Class::Foo->new(a => 1, b => 2, c => 3); my $tests = $instance->sublist(); my $index = int(rand($#{$tests})); # <-- HERE So, at HERE, we could do: my $ref = $tests->{$index}; $instance->$ref(); but how would we do this, without removing the reference first?

    Read the article

  • java: retrieving the "canonical value" from a Set<T> where T has a custom equals()

    - by Jason S
    I have a class Foo which overrides equals() and hashCode() properly. I would like to also would like to use a HashSet<Foo> to keep track of "canonical values" e.g. I have a class that I would like to write like this, so that if I have two separate objects that are equivalent I can coalesce them into references to the same object: class Canonicalizer<T> { final private Set<T> values = new HashSet<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { T canonical = this.values.get(value); if (canonical == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future this.values.add(value); return value; } else { return canonical; } } } except that Set doesn't have a "get" method that would return the actual value stored in the set, just the "contains" method that returns true or false. (I guess that it assumes that if you have an object that is equal to a separate object in the set, you don't need to retrieve the one in the set) Is there a convenient way to do this? The only other thing I can think of is to use a map and a list: class Canonicalizer<T> { // warning: neglects concurrency issues final private Map<T, Integer> valueIndex = new HashMap<T, Integer>(); final private List<T> values = new ArrayList<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { Integer i = this.valueIndex.get(value); if (i == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future i = this.values.size(); this.values.add(value); this.valueIndex.put(value, i); return value; } else { // in the set return this.values.get(i); } } }

    Read the article

  • C++. How to define template parameter of type T for class A when class T needs a type A template parameter?

    - by jaybny
    Executor class has template of type P and it takes a P object in constructor. Algo class has a template E and also has a static variable of type E. Processor class has template T and a collection of Ts. Question how can I define Executor< Processor<Algo> > and Algo<Executor> ? Is this possible? I see no way to defining this, its kind of an "infinite recursive template argument" See code. template <class T> class Processor { map<string,T> ts; void Process(string str, int i) { ts[str].Do(i); } } template <class P> class Executor { Proc &p; Executor(P &p) : Proc(p) {} void Foo(string str, int i) { p.Process(str,i); } Execute(string str) { } } template <class E> class Algo { static E e; void Do(int i) {} void Foo() { e.Execute("xxx"); } } main () { typedef Processor<Algo> PALGO; // invalid typedef Executor<PALGO> EPALGO; typedef Algo<EPALGO> AEPALGO; Executor<PALGO> executor(PALGO()); AEPALGO::E = executor; }

    Read the article

  • Unpacking varargin to individual variables

    - by Richie Cotton
    I'm writing a wrapper to a function that takes varargin as its inputs. I want to preserve the function signature in the wrapper, but nesting varargin causes all the variable to be lumped together. function inner(varargin) %#ok<VANUS> % An existing function disp(nargin) end function outer(varargin) % My wrapper inner(varargin); end outer('foo', 1:3, {}) % Uh-oh, this is 1 I need a way to unpack varargin in the outer function, so that I have a list of individual variables. There is a really nasty way to do this by constructing a string of the names of the variables to pass the inner, and calling eval. function outer2(varargin) %#ok<VANUS> % My wrapper, second attempt inputstr = ''; for i = 1:nargin inputstr = [inputstr 'varargin{' num2str(i) '}']; %#ok<AGROW> if i < nargin inputstr = [inputstr ', ']; %#ok<AGROW> end end eval(['inner(' inputstr ')']); end outer2('foo', 1:3, {}) % 3, as it should be Can anyone think of a less hideous way of doing things, please?

    Read the article

  • Basic problems (type inference or something else?) in Objective-C/Cocoa.

    - by Matt
    Hi, Apologies for how basic these questions are to some. Just started learning Cocoa, working through Hillegass' book, and am trying to write my first program (a GUI Cocoa app that counts the number of characters in a string). I tried this: NSString *string = [textField stringValue]; NSUInteger *stringLength = [string length]; NSString *countString = (@"There are %u characters",stringLength); [label setStringValue:countString]; But I'm getting errors like: Incompatible pointer conversion initializing 'NSUInteger' (aka 'unsigned long'), expected 'NSUInteger *'[-pedantic] for the first line, and this for the second line: Incompatible pointer types initializing 'NSUInteger *', expected 'NSString *' [-pedantic] I did try this first, but it didn't work either: [label setStringValue:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"There are %u characters",[[textField stringValue] length]]] On a similar note, I've only written in easy scripting languages before now, and I'm not sure when I should be allocing/initing objects and when I shouldn't. For example, when is it okay to do this: NSString *myString = @"foo"; or int *length = 5; instead of this: NSString *myString = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:"foo"]; And which ones should I be putting into the header files? I did check Apple's documentation, and CocoaDev, and the book I'm working for but without luck. Maybe I'm looking in the wrong places.. Thanks to anyone who takes the time to reply this: it's appreciated, and thanks for being patient with a beginner. We all start somewhere. EDIT Okay, I tried the following again: [label setStringValue:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"There are %u characters",[[textField stringValue] length]]] And it actually worked this time. Not sure why it didn't the first time, though I think I might have typed %d instead of %u by mistake. However I still don't understand why the code I posted at the top of my original post doesn't work, and I have no idea what the errors mean, and I'd very much like to know because it seems like I'm missing something important there.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158  | Next Page >