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• mvn deploy to AWS (ssh via distributionManagement)

  - by Dexter

  I am working on deploying the WAR file to AWS using Maven. I am planning to use 'mvn deploy' for the same which would ssh the war file to AWS. I am following http://maven.apache.org/plugins/maven-deploy-plugin/examples/deploy-ssh-external.html. This is my POM file <project> ... <distributionManagement> <repository> <id>ssh-aws</id> <url>scpexe://<ec2 instance>.compute-1.amazonaws.com</url> </repository> </distributionManagement> <build> <extensions> <!-- Enabling the use of FTP --> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ssh-external</artifactId> <version>1.0-beta-6</version> </extension> </extensions> </build> .. </project> This is my settings.xml <server> <id>ssh-aws</id> <username>aws-user</username> </server> The only issue is that I am unable to figure out the url in distributionManagement node of pom.xml. I am able to ssh in the AWS server by the following. ssh -i ~/pemfile/pemfile-key.pem aws-user@<ec2 instance>.compute-1.amazonaws.com But when I run mvn clean deploy, I receive this.. Exit code: 1 - Permission denied (publickey). -> [Help 1] Thanks in advance.

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• Hibernate: Querying objects by attributes of inherited classes

  - by MichaelD

  Hi all, I ran into a problem with Hibernate concerning queries on classes which use inheritance. Basically I've the following class hierarchy: @Entity @Table( name = "recording" ) class Recording { ClassA attributeSet; ... } @Entity @Inheritance( strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED ) @Table( name = "classA" ) public class ClassA { String Id; ... } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB1" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB1 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P2000; } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB2" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB2 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P3000; } The hierarchy is already given like this and I cannot change it easily. As you can see ClassB1 and ClassB2 inherit from ClassA. Both classes contain a set of attributes which sometimes even have the same names (but I can't move them to ClassA since there are possible more sub-classes which do not use them). The Recording class references one instance of one of this classes. Now my question: What I want to do is selecting all Recording objects in my database which refer to an instance of either ClassB1 or ClassB2 with e.g. the field P1300 == 15.5 (so this could be ClassB1 or ClassB2 instances since the P1300 attribute is declared in both classes). What I tried is something like this: Criteria criteria = session.createCriteria(Recording.class); criteria.add( Restrictions.eq( "attributeSet.P1300", new Double(15.5) ) ); criteria.list(); But since P1300 is not an attribute of ClassA hibernate throws an exception telling me: could not resolve property: P1300 of: ClassA How can I tell hibernate that it should search in all subclasses to find the attribute I want to filter? Thanks MichaelD

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• Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

  - by swmi

  Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

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• how to get access to private members of nested class?

  - by macias

  Background: I have enclosed (parent) class E with nested class N with several instances of N in E. In the enclosed (parent) class I am doing some calculations and I am setting the values for each instance of nested class. Something like this: n1.field1 = ...; n1.field2 = ...; n1.field3 = ...; n2.field1 = ...; ... It is one big eval method (in parent class). My intention is -- since all calculations are in parent class (they cannot be done per nested instance because it would make code more complicated) -- make the setters only available to parent class and getters public. And now there is a problem: when I make the setters private, parent class cannot acces them when I make them public, everybody can change the values and C# does not have friend concept I cannot pass values in constructor because lazy evaluation mechanism is used (so the instances have to be created when referencing them -- I create all objects and the calculation is triggered on demand) I am stuck -- how to do this (limit access up to parent class, no more, no less)? I suspect I'll get answer-question first -- "but why you don't split the evaluation per each field" -- so I answer this by example: how do you calculate min and max value of a collection? In a fast way? The answer is -- in one pass. This is why I have one eval function which does calculations and sets all fields at once.

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• java - powermock whenNew doesnt seem to work, calls the actual constructor

  - by user1331243

  I have two final classes that are used in my unit test. I am trying to use whenNew on the constructor of a final class, but I see that it calls the actual constructor. The code is @PrepareForTest({A.class, B.class, Provider.class}) @Test public void testGetStatus() throws Exception { B b = mock(B.class); when(b.getStatus()).thenReturn(1); whenNew(B.class).withArguments(anyString()).thenReturn(b); Provider p = new Provider(); int val = p.getStatus(); assertTrue((val == 1)); } public class Provider { public int getStatus() { B b = new B("test"); return b.getStatus(); } } public final class A { private void init() { // ...do soemthing } private static A a; private A() { } public static A getInstance() { if (a == null) { a = new A(); a.init(); } return a; } } public final class B { public B() { } public B(String s) { this(A.getInstance(), s); } public B(A a, String s) { } public int getStatus() { return 0; } } On debug, I find that its the actual class B instance created and not the mock instance that is returned for new usage and assertion fails. Any pointers on how to get this working. Thanks

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• XAttribute Generating strange namespaces

  - by Adam Driscoll

  I'm constructing an XElement with a couple attributes that have different namespaces. The code looks like this: var element = new XElement("SynchronousCommand", new XAttribute("{wcm}action", "add"), new XAttribute("{ns}id", Guid.NewGuid()), new XElement... ); The XML that is generated looks like this: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand d5p1:action="add" d5p2:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" xmlns:d5p2="ns" xmlns:d5p1="wcm"> ... </SynchronousCommand> </unattend> I'm just wondering if the auto-generated d5p2 is valid and why it is doing this. According to the XML standards here it seems like it would be valid. But why is it not: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand wcm:action="add" ns:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" > To generate the XML I'm doing this: public class unattend { public List<XElement> Any {get;} } var unattend = new unattend(); unattend.Add(element); serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, unattend);

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• Non-english domain naming issues in programming

  - by Svend

  Most programming code, I imagine is written in english. But I'm curious how people handling the issue of naming herein. Alot of programming is done within some bussiness domain, usually with well established terms for certain procedures, items. I'm from Denmark for instance, and something I work alot with has a term called "indblikskode", which sorta translates to "insight code". So, do I use the line "string indblikskode = ..." in the C# code for some webservice related to this? Or do I try to use a translation, such as "insightcode"? The bussiness I'm in isn't even consistent in it's language, for instance using the term "organisatorisk enhed" (organizatorical unit), but just as often using the abbreviation "OU", which is obviously abbreviated from the english. How do other people handle this naming issue, while keeping consistent, and sane (in everything from simple variable names in your code, to database tables, to server names)? Duplicates: Should identifiers and comments be always in English or in the native language of the application and developers? Do you use another language instead of english ?

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• What are the common compliance standards for software products?

  - by Jay

  This is a very generic question about software products. I would like to know what compliance standards are applicable to any software product. I know that question gives away nothing. So, here is an example to what I am referring to. CiSecurity Security Certification/Compliance lists out products ceritified by them to be compliant to the standards published at their website, i.e, cisecurity.org. Compliance could be as simple as answering a questionnaire for your product and approved by a thirdparty like cisecurity or it could apply to your whole organization, for instance, PCI-DSS compliance. I would be very interested in knowing the standards that products you know/designed/created, comply to. To give you the context behind this question: I am the developer of a data-masking tool. The said tool helps mask onscreen html text in a banking web application using filters. So, for instance, if the bank application lists out user information with ssn, my product when integrated with the banking product, automatically identifies ssn pattern and masks it into a pre-defined format.So, I have my product marketing team wanting more buzz words like compliance to be able to sell it to more banking clients. Hence, understanding "compliances that apply to products" is a key research item for me at this point. By which I meant, security compliances. Appreciate all your help and suggestions.

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• .NET: How to pass value when subscribing to event and obtain it when the event is triggered (Dynamic

  - by Entrase

  The task is to create event handlers in runtime. I need the one method to be called with different parameter value for different events. The events and their number are only known in runtime. So I'm trying to generate dynamic methods, each of which will be assigned to some event, but in general they all just pass some value to an instance method and call it. It would be great if something similar could be done the easier way. I mean passing some value at subscribing stage and then obtaining it when the event is triggered. This is what I'm trying to do now: public class EventSource { public event EventHandler eventOne; public event EventHandler eventTwO; public event EventHandler eventThree; } public class EventListener { SubscribeForEvents() { BindingFlags flags = BindingFlags.IgnoreCase | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance; // Suppose we've already got EventInfo // and target source somewhere // so we can do eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate) // Now we need a delegate. int value = 42; Type tDelegate = eventInfo.EventHandlerType; // http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms228976(VS.95).aspx Type returnType = GetDelegateReturnType(tDelegate); DynamicMethod listener = new DynamicMethod("", null, GetDelegateParameterTypes(tDelegate), this.GetType()); ///////// Type[] callParameters = { typeof(int) }; MethodInfo method = this.GetType().GetMethod("ToCallFromDelegate", flags); ILGenerator generator = listener.GetILGenerator(); // No success in this mess. What's wrong? generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldc_I4, value); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, method); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Pop); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); ///////////// Delegate delegate = listener.CreateDelegate(tDelegate); eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate); // When triggered, there is InvalidProgramException } void ToCallFromDelegate(int value) { doSomething(); } }

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• Type-safe mapping from Class<T> to Thing<T>

  - by Joonas Pulakka

  I want to make a map-kind of container that has the following interface: public <T> Thing<T> get(Class<T> clazz); public <T> void put(Class<T> clazz, Thing<T> thing); The interesting point is that the Ts in each Class<T><- Thing<T> pair is the same T, but the container should be able to hold many different types of pairs. Initially I tried a (Hash)Map. But, for instance, Map<Class<T>, Thing<T>> is not right, because then T would be same T for all pairs in that map. Of course, Map<Class<?>, Thing<?>> works, but then I don't have type-safety guarantees so that when I get(String.class), I can't be sure that I get a Thing<String> instance back. Is there a way to accomplish the kind of type safety that I'm looking for?

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• Is there a default way to get hold of an internal property in jQueryUi widget?

  - by prodigitalson

  Im using an existing widget from the jquery-ui labs call selectmenu. It has callback options for the events close and open. The problem is i need in these event to animate a node that is part of the widget but not what its connected to. In order to do this i need access to this node. for example if i were to actually modify the widget code itself: // ... other methods/properties "open" : function(event){ // ... the original logic // this is my animation $(this.list).slideUp('slow'); // this is the orginal call to _trigger this._trigger('open', event, $this._uiHash()); }, // ... other methods/properties However when in the scope of the event handler i attach this is the orginal element i called the widget on. I need the widget instance or specifically the widget instance's list property. $('select#custom').selectmenu({ 'open': function(){ // in this scope `this` is an HTMLSelectElement not the ui widget } }); Whats the best way to go about getting the list property from the widget?

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• Access modifiers - Property on business objects - getting and setting

  - by Mike

  Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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• Where do I put javaassist code?

  - by DutrowLLC

  I have an application running on google app engine. I'm using restlets and I have a couple of layers set up including the restlet layer, the model layer, the business layer, and the data layer. I'm attempting to use javaassist to modify some classes, but I'm unsure where to actually put the code. I tried to put the code in the static initialization block: public class Person { String firstName; String getFirstName(){return null;} static{ ClassPool pool = ClassPool.getDefault(); try { CtClass CtPerson = pool.get("Person"); CtMethod CtGetFirstName = CtPerson.getDeclaredMethod("GetFirstName"); CtGetFirstName.setBody("return firstName;"); CtPerson.toClass(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } ...but that resulted in this error: javassist.CannotCompileException:.....attempted duplicate class definition...". I guess it makes sense that I can't edit the class file in the middle of its generation. I know the code works because I was able to run it correctly by simply putting it in a location that would run when I sent the program a command. (accessed a Restlet resource). The code ran fine if an instance of the class had not already been instantiated, however once I instantiated an instance of the affected class, the javaassist code failed. I assume I need to put this code somewhere that it will only run either: once after the program starts, directly before a class is instantiated for the first time, or even better, during compile time.

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• template specialization of a auto_ptr<T>

  - by Chris Kaminski

  Maybe I'm overcomplicating things, but then again, I do sort of like clean interfaces. Let's say I want a specialization of auto_ptr for an fstream - I want a default fstream for the generic case, but allow a replacement pointer? tempate <> class auto_ptr<fstream> static fstream myfStream; fstream* ptr; public: auto_ptr() { // set ptr to &myfStream; } reset(fstream* newPtr) { // free old ptr if not the static one. ptr = newPtr }; } Would you consider something different or more elegant? And how would you keep something like the above from propagating outside this particular compilation unit? [The actual template is a boost::scoped_ptr.] EDIT: It's a contrived example. Ignore the fstream - it's about providing a default instance of object for an auto_ptr. I may not want to provide a specialized instance, but would like to keep the auto_ptr semantics for this static default object. class UserClass { public: auto_ptr<fstream> ptr; UserClass() { } } I may not provide an dynamic object at construction time - I still want it to have a meaningful default. Since I'm not looking at ownership-transfer semantics, it really shouldn't matter that my pointer class is pointing to a statically allocated object, no?

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• FileReference.save() duplicates ByteArray

  - by bartekb

  Hi, I've encountered a memory problem using FileReference.save(). My Flash application generates of a lot of data in real-time and needs to save this data to a local file. As I understand, Flash 10 (as opposed to AIR) does not support streaming to a file. But, what's even worse is that FileReference.save() duplicates all the data before saving it. I was looking for a workaround to this doubled memory usage and thought about the following approach: What if I pass a custom subclass of ByteArray as an argument to FileReference.save(), where this ByteArray subclass would override all read*() methods. The overridden read*() methods would wait for a piece of data to be generated by my application, return this piece of data and immediately remove it from the memory. I know how much data will be generated, so I could also override length/bytesAvailable methods. Would it be possible? Could you give me some hint how to do it? I've created a subclass of ByteArray, registered an alias for it, passed an instance of this subclass to FileReference.save(), but somehow FileReference.save() seems to treat it just as it was a ByteArray instance and doesn't call any of my overridden methods... Thanks a lot for any help!

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• c#3.5 Deserialization error - object reference not set

  - by BBR

  I am trying to deserialize an xml string in c#3.5, the code below does work in c# 4.0. When I try to run in the code in c#3.5 I get an Object reference not set to an instance of an object exception when the code tries in initialize the XmlSerializer. Any help would be appreciated. string xml = "<boolean xmlns=\"http://schemas.microsoft.com/2003/10/serialization/\">false</boolean>"; var xSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(bool), null, null, new XmlRootAttribute("boolean"), "http://schemas.microsoft.com/2003/10/serialization/"); using (var sr = new StringReader(xml)) using (var xr = XmlReader.Create(sr)) { var y = xSerializer.Deserialize(xr); } System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="System.Xml" StackTrace: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer..ctor(Type type, XmlAttributeOverrides overrides, Type[] extraTypes, XmlRootAttribute root, String defaultNamespace, String location, Evidence evidence) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer..ctor(Type type, XmlAttributeOverrides overrides, Type[] extraTypes, XmlRootAttribute root, String defaultNamespace) .... at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException:

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• Add namespace to XmlTextWriter using C#

  - by xml

  Hi, I have an serializeable class that his root is serizlized to XmlRootAttribute with namespace. I want to add additional namespace to this root elemt, how can i do it? adding XmlAttribute failed to compile. The code: [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRootAttribute("Root", Namespace = "http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope", IsNullable = false)] public class MyClass { [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElement("...")] public ClassA A; [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElement("..")] public ClassB b; } After the serialization i'm getting something like that: <Root xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope"> <ClassA/> <ClassB/> </Envelope> I want to add to the rood additioanl namespace, e.g. i want the xml to be: <Root xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" **xmlns:tns="anotherXml"** xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope"> <ClassA/> <ClassB/> </Envelope> Any idea?

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• How do I reference my MainViewController from another class?

  - by todd412

  Hi, I am building an iPhone Utility app that uses UIImageView to display an animation. Within the MainViewController's viewDidLoad() method, I am creating an instance of a CustomClass, and then setting up the animations: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; cc = [CustomClass new]; NSArray * imageArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-1-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-2-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-3-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-4-off.jpg"], nil]; offSequence = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; offSequence.animationImages = imageArray; offSequence.animationDuration = .8; offSequence.contentMode = UIViewContentModeBottomLeft; [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; [offSequence startAnimating]; } That works fine. However, I would like to be able to move all the above code that sets up the UIImageView into my CustomClass. The problem is in the second to last line: [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; I basically need to replace 'self' with a reference to the MainControllerView, so I can call addSubview from within my CustomClass. I tried creating an instance var of CustomClass called mvc and a setter method that takes a reference to the MainViewController as an argument as such: - (void) setMainViewController: (MainViewController *) the_mvc { mvc = the_mvc; } And then I called it within MainViewController like so: [cc setMainController:MainViewController:self]; But this yields all sorts of errors which I can post here, but it strikes me that I may be overcomplicating this. Is there an easier way to reference the MainViewController that instanatiated my CustomClass?

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• Google App Engine how to get an object from the servlet ?

  - by Frank

  I have the following class objects in Google App Engine's dadastore, I can see them from the "Datastore Viewer " : import javax.jdo.annotations.IdGeneratorStrategy; import javax.jdo.annotations.IdentityType; import javax.jdo.annotations.PersistenceCapable; import javax.jdo.annotations.Persistent; import javax.jdo.annotations.PrimaryKey; @PersistenceCapable(identityType=IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class Contact_Info_Entry implements Serializable { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy=IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) Long Id; public static final long serialVersionUID=26362862L; String Contact_Id="",First_Name="",Last_Name="",Company_Name="",Branch_Name="",Address_1="",Address_2="",City="",State="",Zip="",Country=""; double D_1,D_2; boolean B_1,B_2; Vector<String> A_Vector=new Vector<String>(); public Contact_Info_Entry() { } ...... } How can my java applications get the object from a servlet url ? For instance if have an instance of Contact_Info_Entry who's Contact_Id is "ABC-123", and my App Id is : nm-java When my java program accesses the url : "http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_Contact_Info?Contact_Id=ABC-123 How will the Check_Contact_Info servlet get the object from datastore and return it to my app ? public class Check_Contact_Info_Servlet extends HttpServlet { static boolean Debug=true; public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException { } ... protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException,IOException { doGet(request,response); } } Frank

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• two controllers in one layout, rails 3

  - by Grizlord

  Okay, I have two models, a recipe model and a category model. In my layout(application.html.erb) I have a main container div that "yields" the recipes index action. I'm trying to list all the category names as links in a side bar(also a div) by iterating over them in an unordered list. When you click one of the links it will go to the category show page which will then list all the recipes in that category. Here is how I'm trying to list the links in - <div class="container" id="categories"> <% for category in @categories %> <ul> <li><%= link_to category.name, category %></li> </ul> <% end %> </div> The problem is I get a NoMethodError - You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil.each It is not retrieving the records from the model. Any suggestions on how to get this done would be greatly appreciated. I tried to render a partial as some of the other similar posts have said but still get the same error. This is the exact error - NoMethodError in Recipes#index Showing /Users/grizlord/Rails/recipe2/app/views/layouts/application.html.erb where line #39 raised: You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil.each Extracted source (around line #39): 36: </div> 37: <div class="container" id="categories"> 38: Browse by Category 39: <% for category in @categories %> 40: <ul> 41: <li><%= link_to category.name, category %></li> 42: </ul>

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• Property on business objects - getting and setting

  - by Mike

  Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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• What is the IoC / "Springy" way to handle MVP in GWT? (Hint, probably not the Spring Roo 1.1 way)

  - by Ehrann Mehdan

  This is the Spring Roo 1.1 way of doing a factory that returns a GWT Activity (Yes, Spring Framework) public Activity getActivity(ProxyPlace place) { switch (place.getOperation()) { case DETAILS: return new EmployeeDetailsActivity((EntityProxyId<EmployeeProxy>)place.getProxyId(), requests, placeController, ScaffoldApp.isMobile() ? EmployeeMobileDetailsView.instance() : EmployeeDetailsView.instance()); case EDIT: return makeEditActivity(place); case CREATE: return makeCreateActivity(); } throw new IllegalArgumentException("Unknown operation " + place.getOperation()); } It seems to me that we just went back hundred of years if we use a switch case with constants to make a factory. Now this is official auto generated Spring roo 1.1 with GWT / GAE integration, I kid you not I can only assume this is some executives empty announcements because this is definitly not Spring It seems VMWare and Google were too fast to get something out and didn't quite finish it, isn't it? Am I missing something or this is half baked and by far not the way Spring + GWT MVP should work? Do you have a better example of how Spring, GWT (2.1 MVP approach) and GAE should connect? I would hate to do all the plumbing of managing history and activities like this. (no annotations? IOC?) I also would hate to reinvent the wheel and write my own Spring enhancement just to find someone else did the same, or worse, find out that SpringSource and Google will release roo 1.2 soon and make it right

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• Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

  - by Kenny Peng

  I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

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• ASP:GridView does not show data with ObjectdataSource

  - by Kashif

  I have been trying to bind a DataGrid with ObjectDataSource having custom paging but no output is display on my usercontrol. Here is the code I am using <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="LeadId" DataSourceID="dsBuyingLead1" AllowPaging="True"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="Subject" HeaderText="Subject" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="ExpiryDate" HeaderText="ExpiryDate" ReadOnly="True" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="dsBuyingLead1" runat="server" EnablePaging="True" DataObjectTypeName="Modules.SearchBuyingLeadInfo" OldValuesParameterFormatString="original_{0}" SelectMethod="GetAllBuyingLeads" StartRowIndexParameterName="startRow" MaximumRowsParameterName="maximumRows" SelectCountMethod="GetAllBuyingLeadsCount" TypeName="Modules.SearchController"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="searchText" QueryStringField="q" Type="String" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Here are my methods from SearchController class: [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static long GetAllBuyingLeadsCount(string searchText) { return DataProvider.Instance().GetAllBuyingLeadsCount(searchText); } [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static List<SearchBuyingLeadInfo> GetAllBuyingLeads (string searchText, int startRow, int maximumRows) { List<SearchBuyingLeadInfo> l = CBO.FillCollection<SearchBuyingLeadInfo> ( DataProvider.Instance() .GetAllBuyingLeadswithText(searchText, startRow, maximumRows) ); return l; } Where SearchBuyingLeadInfo is my Data Access Object class I have verified by setting up break points that both GetAllBuyingLeadsCount and GetAllBuyingLeads return non-zero values but unfortunately nothing is displayed on the grid. Only the column headers are displayed. Can anyone tell me what am I missing?

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• XSLT: Add namespace to root element

  - by Ingrid

  I need to change namespaces in the root element as follows: input document: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <foo xsi:schemaLocation="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9 http://www.loc.gov/ead/ead.xsd" xmlns:ns2="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" xmlns="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> desired output: <foo audience="external" xsi:schemaLocation="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9 http://www.loc.gov/ead/ead.xsd" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" xmlns="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9"> I was trying to do it as I copy over the whole document and before I give any other transformation instructions, but the following doesn't work: <xsl:template match="* | processing-instruction() | comment()"> <xsl:copy copy-namespaces="no"> <xsl:for-each select="."> <xsl:attribute name="audience" select="'external'"/> <xsl:namespace name="xlink" select="'http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink'"/> </xsl:for-each> <xsl:apply-templates/> <xsl:copy-of select="@*"/> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> Thanks for any advice!

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