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  • Designing secure consumer blackberry application

    - by Kiran Kuppa
    I am evaluating a requirement for a consumer blackberry application that places high premium on security of user's data. Seems like it is an insurance company. Here are my ideas on how I could go about it. I am sure this would be useful for others who are looking for similar stuff Force the user to use device password. (I am guessing that this would be possible - though not checked it yet). Application can request notifications when the device is about to be locked and just after it has been unlocked. Encryption of application specific data can be managed at those times. Application data would be encrypted with user's password. User's credentials would be encrypted with device password. Remote backup of the data could be done over HTTPS (any better ideas are appreciated) Questions: What if the user forgets his device password. If the user forgets his application password, what is the best and secure way to reset the password? If the user losses the phone, remote backup must be done and the application data must be cleaned up. I have some ideas on how to achieve (3) and shall share them. There must be an off-line verification of the user's identity and the administrator must provide a channel using which the user must be able to send command to the device to perform the wiping of application data. The idea is that the user is ALWAYS in control of his data. Without the user's consent, even the admin must not be able to do activities such as cleaning up the data. In the above scheme of things, it appears as if the user's password need not be sent over the air to server. Am I correct? Thanks, --Kiran Kumar

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  • As a newbie, where should I go if I want to create a small GUI program?

    - by jimbmk
    Hello, I'm a newbie with a little experience writing in BASIC, Python and, of all things, a smidgeon of assembler (as part of a videogame ROM hack). I wanted to create small tool for modifying the hex values at particular points, in a particular file, that would have a GUI interface. What I'm looking for is the ability to create small GUI program, that I can distribute as an EXE (or, at least a standalone directory). I'm not keen on the idea of the .NET languages, because I don't want to force people to download a massive .NET framework package. I currently have Python with IDLE and Boa Constructor set up, and the application runs there. I've tried looking up information on compiling a python app that relies on Wxwidgets, but the search results and the information I've found has been confusing, or just completely incomprehensible. My questions are: Is python a good language to use for this sort of project? If I use Py2Exe, will WxWidgets already be included? Or will my users have to somehow install WxWidgets on their machines? Am I right in thinking at Py2Exe just produces a standalone directory, 'dist', that has the necessary files for the user to just double click and run the application? If the program just relies upon Tkinter for GUI stuff, will that be included in the EXE Py2Exe produces? If so, are their any 'visual' GUI builders / IDEs for Python with only Tkinter? Thankyou for your time, JBMK

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  • What's correct way to remove a boost::shared_ptr from a list?

    - by Catskul
    I have a std::list of boost::shared_ptr<T> and I want to remove an item from it but I only have a pointer of type T* which matches one of the items in the list. However I cant use myList.remove( tPtr ) I'm guessing because shared_ptr does not implement == for its template argument type. My immediate thought was to try myList.remove( shared_ptr<T>(tPtr) ) which is syntactically correct but it will crash from a double delete since the temporary shared_ptr has a separate use_count. std::list< boost::shared_ptr<T> > myList; T* tThisPtr = new T(); // This is wrong; only done for example code. // stand-in for actual code in T using // T's actual "this" pointer from within T { boost::shared_ptr<T> toAdd( tThisPtr ); // typically would be new T() myList.push_back( toAdd ); } { //T has pointer to myList so that upon a certain action, // it will remove itself romt the list //myList.remove( tThisPtr); //doesn't compile myList.remove( boost::shared_ptr<T>(tThisPtr) ); // compiles, but causes // double delete } The only options I see remaining are to use std::find with a custom compare, or to loop through the list brute force and find it myself, but it seems there should be a better way. Am I missing something obvious, or is this just too non-standard a use to be doing a remove the clean/normal way?

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  • How can I do such a typical unittest?

    - by Malcom.Z
    This is a simple structure in my project: MyAPP--- note--- __init__.py views.py urls.py test.py models.py auth-- ... template--- auth--- login.html register.html note--- noteshow.html media--- css--- ... js--- ... settings.py urls.py __init__.py manage.py I want to make a unittest which can test the noteshow page working propeyly or not. The code: from django.test import TestCase class Note(TestCase): def test_noteshow(self): response = self.client.get('/note/') self.assertEqual(response.status_code, 200) self.assertTemplateUsed(response, '/note/noteshow.html') The problem is that my project include an auth mod, it will force the unlogin user redirecting into the login.html page when they visit the noteshow.html. So, when I run my unittest, in the bash it raise an failure that the response.status_code is always 302 instead of 200. All right though through this result I can check the auth mod is running well, it is not like what I want it to be. OK, the question is that how can I make another unittest to check my noteshow.template is used or not? Thanks for all. django version: 1.1.1 python version: 2.6.4 Use Eclipse for MAC OS

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  • Error // Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] // when running 'rails server'

    - by madphill
    Background info: I'm using GIT to get a repository of a project with Ruby files in it. The project lives in my SITES folder under home directory on my Mac. I have Ruby: 1.8.7 I have just upgraded Rails to: 3.0.3 All I am trying to accomplish is to be able to render localhost.com:3000 in my browser of the GIT project i've already downloaded so I can work on it locally. I ran the command 'rails server' and was returned the message below:: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/bin/ruby -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository Runtime options: -f, [--force] # Overwrite files that already exist -s, [--skip] # Skip files that already exist -p, [--pretend] # Run but do not make any changes -q, [--quiet] # Supress status output Rails options: -h, [--help] # Show this help message and quit -v, [--version] # Show Rails version number and quit Description: The 'rails new' command creates a new Rails application with a default directory structure and configuration at the path you specify. Example: rails new ~/Code/Ruby/weblog This generates a skeletal Rails installation in ~/Code/Ruby/weblog. See the README in the newly created application to get going.

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  • Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

    - by Matt Davis
    I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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  • Scheduling of tasks to a single resource using Prolog

    - by Reed Debaets
    I searched through here as best I could and though I found some relevant questions, I don't think they covered the question at hand: Assume a single resource and a known list of requests to schedule a task. Each request includes a start_after, start_by, expected_duration, and action. The goal is to schedule the tasks for execution as soon as possible while keeping each task scheduled between start_after and start_by. I coded up a simple prolog example that I "thought" should work but I've been unfortunately getting errors during run time: "=/2: Arguments are not sufficiently instantiated". Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated startAfter(1,0). startAfter(2,0). startAfter(3,0). startBy(1,100). startBy(2,500). startBy(3,300). duration(1,199). duration(2,199). duration(3,199). action(1,'noop1'). action(2,'noop2'). action(3,'noop3'). can_run(R,T) :- startAfter(R,TA),startBy(R,TB),T>=TA,T=<TB. conflicts(T,R1,T1) :- duration(R1,D1),T=<D1+T1,T>T1. schedule(R1,T1,R2,T2,R3,T3) :- can_run(R1,T1),\+conflicts(T1,R2,T2),\+conflicts(T1,R3,T3), can_run(R2,T2),\+conflicts(T2,R1,T1),\+conflicts(T2,R3,T3), can_run(R3,T3),\+conflicts(T3,R1,T1),\+conflicts(T3,R2,T2). % when traced I *should* see T1=0, T2=400, T3=200 Edit: conflicts goal wasn't quite right: needed extra TT1 clause. Edit: Apparently my schedule goal works if I supply valid Request,Time pairs ... but I'm stucking trying to force prolog to find valid values for T1..3 when given R1..3?

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  • Core Data - How to check if a managed object's properties have been deallocated?

    - by georryan
    I've created a program that uses core data and it works beautifully. I've since attempted to move all my core data methods calls and fetch routines into a class that is self contained. My main program then instantiates that class and makes some basic method calls into that class, and the class then does all the core data stuff behind the scenes. What I'm running into, is that sometimes I'll find that when I grab a managed object from the context, I'll have a valid object, but its properties have been deallocated, and I'll cause a crash. I've played with the zombies and looked for memory leaks, and what I have gathered is it seems that the run loop is probably responsible for deallocating the memory, but I'm not sure. Is there a way to determine if that memory has been deallocated and force the core data to get it back if I need to access it? My managedObjectContext never gets deallocated, and the fetchedResultsController never does, either. I thought maybe I needed to use the [managedObjectContext refreshObject:mergeData:] method, or the [managedObjectContext setRetainsRegisteredObjects:] method. Although, I'm under the impression that last one may not be the best bet since it will be more memory intensive (from what I understand). These errors only popped up when I moved the core data calls into another class file, and they are random when they show up. Any insight would be appreciated. -Ryan

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  • Deployment Setup (.Net) - Search target machine -> Registry search (64 bit)

    - by Joonas Kirsebom
    I have a windows installer project which installs some software (winform, service, mce addin). During the installation I need to search the machine for a registry key. This is done with with the "Launch Condition" - "Add Registry Search" (Deployment Project). I have filled out all the properties right, and checked against the regestry that the value actually can be found. The problem is that the "Registry Search" searches in the x86 part of the registry (HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\...) although my system is a x64 and the deployment setup is also set to x64. Does anyone know how to force the "Registry Search" to search the x64 registry? Or know about a workaround? The weird thing about this, is that Registry setting in the deployment setup is writing to the right registry (x64). My idea is that the "Registry Search" program is only developed to the x86 architecture, and therefore can't read the right registry. I found this article from microsoft, so it seams that they know about this problem. https://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/ViewFeedback.aspx?FeedbackID=110105&wa=wsignin1.0#details My system is: Windows 7 64bit Visual Studio 2008

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  • Prototype VS jQuery

    - by aSeptik
    Hi All guys! First of, thank's for your time; then i want go directly to the point by saying that, i don't want to open another "Yet Another Js VS Js" 3d , the web is almost busy of this! I want also make a premise, i have used both theese js frameworks and i love it and i know, that there are a lot of good js frameworks around, maybe better then this two; but, as you know we need to be perfomant and quickly by doing our works, so i want keep this two, that are the most famous and therefore have a great community support! now, if you are going to say me, that the choise depends on what i'm going to do!? then i can think, hey, in the end they are both javascript and they have almost the same methods and functions and for achieve a task they needs almost the same lines of code! So i want hear from you guys, from you that have really used one of theese, for a real Rich Internet Application what are the real points of force and what the weaknesses you find!? Regards.

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  • Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

    - by alyoshak
    When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

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  • Embedding/deploying custom font in .NET app

    - by Swingline Rage
    Is there an official way to distribute (deploy) a specific font with a .NET application? We have a (public domain) "LED font" that prints numbers with the retro LED instrumentface look. This is a standard True Type or Open Type font like any other except it looks funky. Obviously for that to work, this font needs to be on the user's machine. But we'd prefer to not force the user to "install our special font into your font folder". We'd prefer to either load a Font object directly from the TTF, or programatically install the font so it's available. How do applications handle this sort of things? Eg, I notice Adobe XYZ installs various fonts on the system without user intervention. That's what we'd like to do. EDIT: okay, ideally, we'd prefer not to install the font directly. We don't want our nifty themed LED font showing up in the user's font dropdown in MS Word. We'd prefer to use this font, but restrict its use or appearance to our app. Any way to do this? Thanks!

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  • Div click and AUTOCOMPLETE password dialog problem

    - by ticky
    And what if you want to autocomplete passwords? I am using similar thing here... I am using Div (id=loginButton) and it has some image - I don't want button control in MVC application (), neither image button. I have hidden input control which is hidden button actually (id=submit_btn). So, on div's (id=loginButton) click, I want to call hidden input control (id=submit_btn) and it's submit action. HTML: <div id="loginButton" > </div> <input type="submit" style="display:none" name="submit" id="submit_btn" /> And JQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $('#loginButton').click(function() { $('#LoginForm').submit(); }); $("form[action$='HandleLoginForm']").submit(function() { Login(); return false; }); return false; }); Function Login() is working with Ajax, without downloading file dialog, but I need also auto complete passwords dialog. function Login() { var urlData = $("#LoginForm").serialize(); if (returnUrl != "") { urlData = $("#LoginForm").serialize() + "&returnUrl=" + returnUrl; } $.ajax({ url: $("#LoginForm").attr("action"), type: "POST", data: urlData, dataType: "json", success: function(result) { if (result.Content != null) { if (result.Valid) { window.location = result.Content.toString(); } else { document.body.innerHTML = result.Content.toString(); } } } }); return false; } It is easy when you use only <input type="submit"> instead of DIV. Form knows that it is for auto completing passwords, but if I use div and force hidden button click like in the code from below, it doesn't show autocomplete password dialog. $('#submit_btn').click(); It will not work. User is logged in, but no reminding for browser to store password. I need this.

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  • C# string.Split() Matching Both Slashes?

    - by Sheep Slapper
    I've got a .NET 3.5 web application written in C# doing some URL rewriting that includes a file path, and I'm running into a problem. When I call string.Split('/') it matches both '/' and '\' characters. Is that... supposed to happen? I assumed that it would notice that the ASCII values were different and skip it, but it appears that I'm wrong. // url = 'someserver.com/user/token/files\subdir\file.jpg string[] buffer = url.Split('/'); The above code gives a string[] with 6 elements in it... which seems counter intuitive. Is there a way to force Split() to match ONLY the forward slash? Right now I'm lucky, since the offending slashes are at the end of the URL, I can just concatenate the rest of the elements in the string[], but it's a lot of work for what we're doing, and not a great solution to the underlying problem. Anyone run into this before? Have a simple answer? I appreciate it!

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  • Can I ignore a SIGFPE resulting from division by zero?

    - by Mikeage
    I have a program which deliberately performs a divide by zero (and stores the result in a volatile variable) in order to halt in certain circumstances. However, I'd like to be able to disable this halting, without changing the macro that performs the division by zero. Is there any way to ignore it? I've tried using #include <signal.h> ... int main(void) { signal(SIGFPE, SIG_IGN); ... } but it still dies with the message "Floating point exception (core dumped)". I don't actually use the value, so I don't really care what's assigned to the variable; 0, random, undefined... EDIT: I know this is not the most portable, but it's intended for an embedded device which runs on many different OSes. The default halt action is to divide by zero; other platforms require different tricks to force a watchdog induced reboot (such as an infinite loop with interrupts disabled). For a PC (linux) test environment, I wanted to disable the halt on division by zero without relying on things like assert.

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  • Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

    - by NoozNooz42
    Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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  • Multiple, Simultaneous Factories and Protocols in Twisted: Same Service, Different Ports

    - by RichardCroasher
    Greetings, Forum. I'm working on a program in Python that uses Twisted to manage networking. The basis of this program is a TCP service that is to listen for connections on multiple ports. However, instead of using one Twisted factory to handle a protocol object for each port, I am trying to use a separate factory for each port. The reason for this is to force a separation among the groups of clients connecting to the different ports. Unfortunately, it appears that this architecture isn't quite working: clients that connect to one port appear to be available among all the factories (e.g., the protocol class used by each factory includes a 'self.factory.clients.append (self)' statement...instead of adding a given client to just the factory for a particular port, the client is added to all factories), and whenever I shutdown service on one port the listeners on all ports also stop. I've been working with Twisted for a short while, and fear I simply don't fully understand how its factory classes are managed. My question is: is it simply not possible to have multiple, simultaneous instances of the same factory and same protocol in use across different ports (without these instances stepping on each other's toes)?

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  • Close application on error

    - by poke
    I’m currently writing an application for the Android platform that requires a mounted SD card (or ExternalStorage). I know that it might not be the best way to require something like that, but the application will work with quite a lot of data, and I don’t even want to think about storing that on the device’s storage. Anyway, to ensure that the application won’t run without the external storage, I do a quick check in the activity’s onCreate method. If the card is not mounted, I want to display an error message and then quit the application. My current approach looks like this: public void onCreate ( Bundle savedInstanceState ) { super.onCreate( savedInstanceState ); setContentView( R.layout.main ); try { // initialize data storage // will raise an exception if it fails, or the SD card is not mounted // ... } catch ( Exception e ) { AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder( this ); builder .setMessage( "There was an error: " + e.getMessage() ) .setCancelable( false ) .setNeutralButton( "Ok.", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick ( DialogInterface dialog, int which ) { MyApplication.this.finish(); } } ); AlertDialog error = builder.create(); error.show(); return; } // continue ... } When I run the application, and the exception gets raised (I raise it manually to check if everything works), the error message is displayed correctly. However when I press the button, the application closes and I get an Android error, that the application was closed unexpectedly (and I should force exit). I read some topics before on closing an application, and I know that it maybe shouldn’t happen like that. But how should I instead prevent the application from continuing to run? How do you close the application correctly when an error occurs?

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  • Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

    - by Graham
    All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

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  • Http Digest Authentication, Handle different browser char-sets...

    - by user160561
    Hi all, I tried to use the Http Authentication Digest Scheme with my php (apache module) based website. In general it works fine, but when it comes to verification of the username / hash against my user database i run into a problem. Of course i do not want to store the user´s password in my database, so i tend to store the A1 hashvalue (which is md5($username . ':' . $realm . ':' . $password)) in my db. This is just how the browser does it too to create the hashes to send back. The Problem: I am not able to detect if the browser does this in ISO-8859-1 fallback (like firefox, IE) or UTF-8 (Opera) or whatever. I have chosen to do the calculation in UTF-8 and store this md5 hash. Which leads to non-authentication in Firefox and IE browsers. How do you solve this problem? Just do not use this auth-scheme? Or Store a md5 Hash for each charset? Force users to Opera? (Terms of A1 refer to the http://php.net/manual/en/features.http-auth.php example.) (for digest access authentication read the according wikipedia entry)

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  • If attacker has original data and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

    - by Brad Cupit
    If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require storage in the database. I'm leaning towards the the one-way-hash-stored-in-the-db, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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  • Is it possible to unstick a remote IIS ASP server after an exception hangs the session?

    - by user89691
    I have been coding an app in classic ASP that accesses 2 Access databases. I had a page I was working on throw an exception, which is normal during development and causes no lasting problems. This time however, after the exception any attempt to open either of the databases would freeze the session with an infinite script timeout. If I delete the session cookie I an able to access ASP pages again until I try to open the database again. The database that was open when the exception was thrown is left open. There is a LDB lock file and I can't rename or delete either the LDB or MDB file, though I can download the MDB file with FTP. The 2nd access database is not open but any attempt to read this also hangs the session. Accessing HTML pages is fine. The site is hosted with Hostway and they are not interested ("Coding problem = Your problem" even though it leaves my site dead in the water, I suspect until the next reboot, whenever that might be). Here is the dump from the relevant ASP page that threw the exception: Active Server Pages error 'ASP 0115' Unexpected error /translatestats.asp A trappable error (C0000005) occurred in an external object. The script cannot continue running. Active Server Pages error 'ASP 0240' Script Engine Exception /translatestats.asp A ScriptEngine threw exception 'C0000005' in 'IActiveScript::Close()' from 'CActiveScriptEngine::FinalRelease()'. Is there any way I can unstick the site / force close the database remotely ?

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  • Computing complex math equations in python

    - by dassouki
    Are there any libraries or techniques that simplify computing equations ? Take the following two examples: F = B * { [ a * b * sumOf (A / B ''' for all i ''' ) ] / [ sumOf(c * d * j) ] } where: F = cost from i to j B, a, b, c, d, j are all vectors in the format [ [zone_i, zone_j, cost_of_i_to_j], [..]] This should produce a vector F [ [1,2, F_1_2], ..., [i,j, F_i_j] ] T_ij = [ P_i * A_i * F_i_j] / [ SumOf [ Aj * F_i_j ] // j = 1 to j = n ] where: n is the number of zones T = vector [ [1, 2, A_1_2, P_1_2], ..., [i, j, A_i_j, P_i_j] ] F = vector [1, 2, F_1_2], ..., [i, j, F_i_j] so P_i would be the sum of all P_i_j for all j and Aj would be sum of all P_j for all i I'm not sure what I'm looking for, but perhaps a parser for these equations or methods to deal with multiple multiplications and products between vectors? To calculate some of the factors, for example A_j, this is what i use from collections import defaultdict A_j_dict = defaultdict(float) for A_item in TG: A_j_dict[A_item[1]] += A_item[3] Although this works fine, I really feel that it is a brute force / hacking method and unmaintainable in the case we want to add more variables or parameters. Are there any math equation parsers you'd recommend? Side Note: These equations are used to model travel. Currently I use excel to solve a lot of these equations; and I find that process to be daunting. I'd rather move to python where it pulls the data directly from our database (postgres) and outputs the results into the database. All that is figured out. I'm just struggling with evaluating the equations themselves. Thanks :)

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  • Android ScrollView jumps around when resized

    - by Mike
    I have a ScrollView that contains an number of other views (TextViews, ImageViews, etc.). The ScrollView is taller than the screen. I have an AsyncTask that updates the children of the ScrollView based on an http response. I've discovered an interesting behavior that I can't figure out how to work around. If I set any of the children's visibilities to View.INVISIBLE as part of the AsyncTask.onPostExecute(), everything works fine. However, if I set any of the children's visibilities to View.GONE, the ScrollView jumps down from the top when onPostExecute() is called. Exactly how far seems to vary. I'm guessing that re-laying out the ScrollView is causing it to scroll away from the top for some reason. So the question is: is there a way to either prevent or work around this behavior? PS. Using ScrollView.jump(FOCUS_UP) as a workaround isn't ideal since that'll force the user to the top even if they had intended to scroll down. EDIT: Actually, I was wrong. The problem wasn't with a child view being marked gone, the problem was with a sibling view being marked gone and the ScrollView getting resized. My ScrollView is inside a LinearLayout that also contains a Button. When the button is set to GONE, the ScrollView gets resized to take up the available space, causing it to scroll away from the top. Different cause, still looking for a workaround though if possible.

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  • How to develop JSP/Servlets Web App using MVC pattern?

    - by A.S al-shammari
    I'm developing a JSP/Servlets web app (no frameworks). I want to use MVC pattern. I designed my project like this : Controller :a servlet that reads a request, extracts the values,communicates with model objects and gives information to a JSP page. View : JSP Pages. Model : Java Classes / Java Beans .. etc . The problem : Index.jsp is the starting point (default page) in my web site. So, the Index.jsp becomes the controller to parse the request! .For example , the following request : index.jsp?section=article&id=10 parsed in index.jsp as following : <div class="midcol"> <!-- Which section? --> <%String fileName = request.getParameter("section"); if (fileName == null) { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/frontpage.jsp"; } else { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/" + fileName + ".jsp"; } %> <jsp:include page='<%= fileName%>' /> </div> Here, I can't force the servlet to be a controller .. because the index.jsp is the controller here since it's the starting point! Is there any solution to forward the request from index.jsp to the servlet and then go back to index.jsp ? Or any solution that achieves the MVC goal - the servlet should be the controller - ? I'm thinking of making a FrontPageController servlet as default page instead of index.jsp ! but I don't know if it's a perfect idea ?!

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