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  • Is it possible to write a class that interacts with controls on my WPF form?

    - by Adam S
    Hi all, I'm trying to write a class that I can use to interact with a group of similar controls in my wpf application. I have hit a few roadblocks and now I am wondering if this is a poor approach to begin with. I want to do this primarily to make my code more manageable - I have to interact with around 200 - 300 controls with my code, and it could get very tricky to have all my code in the main window class. Here's something I'd like to be able to do: class ProcControl { private CheckBox * [] Boxes = new CheckBox[10]; ProcControl() { //set boxes 0-9 to point to the actual checkboxes } //provides mass checking/unchecking functionality public void Refactor(CheckBox box) { //see what box it is int box_index = 0; while (Boxes[box_index] != box) { box_index++; } } } This doesn't work as it is right now. I have not figured out how to get my Boxes[] array to point to the actual checkboxes on my form, so I can't interact with them yet. Is it even possible to make an array that points to a bunch of controls so that I may process their properties in a nice manner? Why can't I access the controls at all from inside my class?

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  • How does initializing inherited members inside base class constructor reduce the calls to…?

    - by flockofcode
    I’ve read that instead of initializing inherited members ( _c1 in our example ) inside derived constructor: class A { public int _c; } class B:A { public B(int c) { _c = c; } } we should initialize them inside base class constructor, since that way we reduce the calls to inherited members ( _c ): class A { public A(int c) { _c = c; } public int _c; } class B:A { public B(int c) : base(c) { } } If _c field is initialized inside base constructor, the order of initialization is the following: 1) First the field initializers of derived class B are called 2) Then field initializers of base class A are called (at this point _c is set to value 0) 3) B’s constructor is called, which in turn calls A’s custom constructor 4) _c field gets set to value of a parameter c ( inside A’s custom constructor ) 5) Once A’s custom constructor returns, B’s constructor executes its code. If _c field is initialized inside B's constructor, the order of initialization is the following: 1) First the field initializers of a derived class B are called 2) Then field initializers of a base class A are called(at this point _c is set to value 0) 3) B’s constructor is called, which in turn calls A’s default constructor 4) Once A’s custom constructor returns, B’s constructor sets _c field to a value of parameter c As far as I can tell, in both cases was _c called two times, so how exactly did we reduce calls to inherited member _c? thanx

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  • Ideas for a rudimentary software licensing implementation

    - by Ross
    I'm trying to decide how to implement a very basic licensing solution for some software I wrote. The software will run on my (hypothetical) clients' machines, with the idea being that the software will immediately quit (with a friendly message) if the client is running it on greater-than-n machines (n being the number of licenses they have purchased). Additionally, the clients are non-tech-savvy to the point where "basic" is good enough. Here is my current design, but given that I have little to no experience in the topic, I wanted to ask SO before I started any development on it: A remote server hosts a MySQL database with a table containing two columns: client-key and license quantity The client-side application connects to the MySQL database on startup, offering it's client-key that I've put into a properties file packaged into the distribution (I would create a new distribution for each new client) Chances are, I'll need a second table to store validation history, so that with some short logic, the software can decide if it can be run on a given machine (maybe a sliding window of n machines using the software per 24 hours) If the software cannot establish a connection to the MySQL database, or decides that it's over the n allowed machines per day, it closes The connection info for the remote server hosting the MySQL database should be hard-coded into the app? (That sounds like a bad idea, but otherwise they could point it to some other always-validates-to-success server) I think that about covers my initial design. The intent being that while it certainly isn't full-proof, I think I've made it at least somewhat difficult to create an easily-sharable cracking solution. Also, I can easily adjust the license amount for a given client/key pair. I gotta figure this has been done a million times before, so tell me about a better solution that's just as simple to implement and provides the same (low) amount of security. In the event that external libraries are used, I prefer Java, as that's what the software has been written in.

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  • How can i use Google-o-Meter or Google Vizualisation API with Jenkins

    - by kamal
    Here is a sample that displays a static chart: google.load("visualization", "1.0", {packages:["imagechart"]}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawChart); function drawChart() { var dataTable = new google.visualization.DataTable(); dataTable.addColumn('string'); dataTable.addColumn('number'); dataTable.addColumn('string'); // Row data is [chl, data point, point label] dataTable.addRows([ ['January',40,undefined], ['February',60,'Initial recall'], ['March',60,'Product withdrawn'], ['April',45,undefined], ['May',47,'Relaunch'], ['June',75,undefined], ['July',70,undefined], ['August',72,undefined] ]); var options = {cht: 'lc', chds:'0,160', annotationColumns:[{column:2, size:12, type:'flag', priority:'high'},]}; var chart = new google.visualization.ImageChart(document.getElementById('line_div')); chart.draw(dataTable, options); } How can i replace the static values and variables in dataTable.addRows([ with real live data ? In case the compete code is not visible, refer to : http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/gallery/genericimagechart.html When this Javascript is copied to the "Description" it renders a chart, what i want to know is how to replace the name/value in dataTable.addRows, to the name/values coming from Jenkins

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  • Updating extra attributes in a has_many, :through relationship using Rails

    - by Robbie
    I've managed to set up a many-to-many relationship between the following models Characters Skills PlayerSkills PlayerSkills, right now, has an attribute that Skills don't normally have: a level. The models look something like this (edited for conciseness): class PlayerSkill < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :character belongs_to :skill end class Skill < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :player_skills has_many :characters, :through => :player_skills attr_accessible :name, :description end class Character < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_many :player_skills has_many :skills, :through => :player_skills end So nothing too fancy in the models... The controller is also very basic at this point... it's pretty much a stock update action. The form I'm looking to modify is characters#edit. Right now it renders a series of checkboxes which add/remove skills from the characters. This is great, but the whole point of using has_many :through was to track a "level" as well. Here is what I have so far: - form_for @character do |f| = f.error_messages %p = f.label :name %br = f.text_field :name %p = f.label :race %br = f.text_field :race %p = f.label :char_class %br = f.text_field :char_class %p - @skills.each do |skill| = check_box_tag "character[skill_ids][]", skill.id, @character.skills.include?(skill) =h skill.name %br %p = f.submit After it renders "skill.name", I need it to print a text_field that updates player_skill. The problem, of course, is that player_skill may or may not exist! (Depending on if the box was already ticked when you loaded the form!) From everything I've read, has_many :through is great because it allows you to treat the relationship itself as an entity... but I'm completely at a loss as to how to handle the entity in this form. As always, thanks in advance for any and all help you can give me!

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  • In Java, howd do I iterate through lines in a textfile from back to front

    - by rogue780
    Basically I need to take a text file such as : Fred Bernie Henry and be able to read them from the file in the order of Henry Bernie Fred The actual file I'm reading from is 30MB and it would be a less than perfect solution to read the whole file, split it into an array, reverse the array and then go from there. It takes way too long. My specific goal is to find the first occurrence of a string (in this case it's "InitGame") and then return the position beginning of the beginning of that line. I did something like this in python before. My method was to seek to the end of the file - 1024, then read lines until I get to the end, then seek another 1024 from my previous starting point and, by using tell(), I would stop when I got to the previous starting point. So I would read those blocks backwards from the end of the file until I found the text I was looking for. So far, I'm having a heck of a time doing this in Java. Any help would be greatly appreciated and if you live near Baltimore it may even end up with you getting some fresh baked cookies. Thanks!

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  • Create a menu in a perspective in Eclipse

    - by Krt_Malta
    Hi. I am developing an Eclipse plug-in and I'd like to associate a new menu (at the top of the screen along with File, Edit etc) with a perspective I'm creating. I did the menu ok but it is being displayed even in other perspectives. How can I associate it only with my perspective? This is the code I am using in plugin.xml: <plugin> <extension point="org.eclipse.ui.perspectives"> <perspective class="org.eclipse.ui.articles.perspective.API_Development" id="org.eclipse.ui.articles.perspective.API_Development" name="API Development"> </perspective> </extension> <extension point="org.eclipse.ui.actionSets"> <actionSet label="Sample Action Set" visible="true" id="API_Development_Menu.actionSet"> <menu label="API Development" id="sampleMenu"> <separator name="sampleGroup"> </separator> </menu> </actionSet> </extension> </plugin> Thanks and regards, Kurt

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  • Calculate total batch upload transfer percent with limited information

    - by GONeale
    Hi there, I have a system which uploads to a server file by file and displays a progress bar on file upload progress, then underneath a second progress bar which I want to indicate percentage of batch complete across all files queued to upload. Information and algorithms I can work out are: Bytes Sent / Total Bytes To Send = First progress bar (eg. 512KB of 1024KB (50%)) That works fine. However supposing I have two other files left to upload, but both file sizes are unknown (as this is only known once the file is about to commence upload, at which point it is compressed and file size is determined) how would I go about making my third progress bar? I didn't think this would be possible as I would need "Total Bytes Sent" / "Total Bytes To Send", to replicate the logic of my first progress bar on a larger scale, however I did get a version working: "Current file number we are on" / "total number of files to send" returning the percentage through the batch, however obviously will not incrementally update and it's pretty crude. So on further thinking I thought if I could incorporate the current file % with this algorithm I could perhaps get the correct progress percentage of my batch's current point. I tried this algorithm, but alas to no such avail (sorry to any math heads, it's probably quite apparent why it won't work) ("Current file number we are on" / "total number of files to send") * ("Bytes Sent" / "Total Bytes To Send") For example I thought I was on the right track when testing with this example: 2/3 (2nd of 3rd file) = 66% (this is right so far) but then when I added * 0.20 (for indicating only 20% of 2nd file has uploaded) we went back to 13%. What I need is only a little over 33%! I did try the inverse at 0.80 and a (2/3 * (2/3 * 0.2)) Can this be done without knowing entire bytes in batch to upload? Please help! Thank you!

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  • What is faster- Java or C# (Or good old C)?

    - by Rexsung
    I'm currently deciding on a platform to build a scientific computational product on, and am deciding on either C#, Java, or plain C with Intels compiler on Core2 Quad CPU's. It's mostly integer arithmetic. My benchmarks so far show Java and C are about on par with each other, and dotNET/C# trails by about 5%- however a number of my coworkers are claiming that dotNET with the right optimizations will beat both of these given enough time for the JIT to do its work. I always assume that the JIT would have done it's job within a few minutes of the app starting (Probably a few seconds in my case, as it's mostly tight loops), so I'm not sure whether to believe them Can anyone shed any light on the situation? Would dotNET beat Java? (Or am I best just sticking with C at this point?). The code is highly multithreaded and data sets are several terabytes in size. Haskell/erlang etc are not options in this case as there is a significant quantity of existing legacy C code that will be ported to the new system, and porting C to Java/C# is a lot simpler than to Haskell or Erlang. (Unless of course these provide a significant speedup). Edit: We are considering moving to C# or Java because they may, in theory, be faster. Every percent we can shave off our processing time saves us tens of thousands of dollars per year. At this point we are just trying to evaluate whether C, Java, or c# would be faster.

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  • Reading email address from contacts fails with weird memory issue

    - by CapsicumDreams
    Hi all, I'm stumped. I'm trying to get a list of all the email address a person has. I'm using the ABPeoplePickerNavigationController to select the person, which all seems fine. I'm setting my ABRecordRef personDealingWith; from the person argument to - (BOOL)peoplePickerNavigationController:(ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:(ABRecordRef)person property:(ABPropertyID)property identifier:(ABMultiValueIdentifier)identifier { and everything seems fine up till this point. The first time the following code executes, all is well. When subsequently run, I can get issues. First, the code: // following line seems to make the difference (issue 1) // NSLog(@"%d", ABMultiValueGetCount(ABRecordCopyValue(personDealingWith, kABPersonEmailProperty))); // construct array of emails ABMultiValueRef multi = ABRecordCopyValue(personDealingWith, kABPersonEmailProperty); CFIndex emailCount = ABMultiValueGetCount(multi); if (emailCount 0) { // collect all emails in array for (CFIndex i = 0; i < emailCount; i++) { CFStringRef emailRef = ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(multi, i); [emailArray addObject:(NSString *)emailRef]; CFRelease(emailRef); } } // following line also matters (issue 2) CFRelease(multi); If compiled as written, the are no errors or static analysis problems. This crashes with a *** -[Not A Type retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x4e9dc60 error. But wait, there's more! I can fix it in either of two ways. Firstly, I can uncomment the NSLog at the top of the function. I get a leak from the NSLog's ABRecordCopyValue every time through, but the code seems to run fine. Also, I can comment out the CFRelease(multi); at the end, which does exactly the same thing. Static compilation errors, but running code. So without a leak, this function crashes. To prevent a crash, I need to haemorrhage memory. Neither is a great solution. Can anyone point out what's going on?

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  • Why did this work with Visual C++, but not with gcc?

    - by Carlos Nunez
    I've been working on a senior project for the last several months now, and a major sticking point in our team's development process has been dealing wtih rifts between Visual-C++ and gcc. (Yes, I know we all should have had the same development environment.) Things are about finished up at this point, but I ran into a moderate bug just today that had me wondering whether Visual-C++ is easier on newbies (like me) by design. In one of my headers, there is a function that relies on strtok to chop up a string, do some comparisons and return a string with a similar format. It works a little something like the following: int main() { string a, b, c; //Do stuff with a and b. c = get_string(a,b); } string get_string(string a, string b) { const char * a_ch, b_ch; a_ch = strtok(a.c_str(),","); b_ch = strtok(b.c_str(),","); } strtok is infamous for being great at tokenizing, but equally great at destroying the original string to be tokenized. Thus, when I compiled this with gcc and tried to do anything with a or b, I got unexpected behavior, since the separator used was completely removed in the string. Here's an example in case I'm unclear; if I set a = "Jim,Bob,Mary" and b="Grace,Soo,Hyun", they would be defined as a="JimBobMary" and b="GraceSooHyun" instead of staying the same like I wanted. However, when I compiled this under Visual C++, I got back the original strings and the program executed fine. I tried dynamically allocating memory to the strings and copying them the "standard" way, but the only way that worked was using malloc() and free(), which I hear is discouraged in C++. While I'm curious about that, the real question I have is this: Why did the program work when compiled in VC++, but not with gcc? (This is one of many conflicts that I experienced while trying to make the code cross-platform.) Thanks in advance! -Carlos Nunez

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  • SQL Server Index cost

    - by yellowstar
    I have read that one of the tradeoffs for adding table indexes in SQL Server is the increased cost of insert/update/delete queries to benefit the performance of select queries. I can conceptually understand what happens in the case of an insert because SQL Server has to write entries into each index matching the new rows, but update and delete are a little more murky to me because I can't quite wrap my head around what the database engine has to do. Let's take DELETE as an example and assume I have the following schema (pardon the pseudo-SQL) TABLE Foo col1 int ,col2 int ,col3 int ,col4 int PRIMARY KEY (col1,col2) INDEX IX_1 col3 INCLUDE col4 Now, if I issue the statement DELETE FROM Foo WHERE col1=12 AND col2 > 34 I understand what the engine must do to update the table (or clustered index if you prefer). The index is set up to make it easy to find the range of rows to be removed and do so. However, at this point it also needs to update IX_1 and the query that I gave it gives no obvious efficient way for the database engine to find the rows to update. Is it forced to do a full index scan at this point? Does the engine read the rows from the clustered index first and generate a smarter internal delete against the index? It might help me to wrap my head around this if I understood better what is going on under the hood, but I guess my real question is this. I have a database that is spending a significant amount of time in delete and I'm trying to figure out what I can do about it. When I display the execution plan for the deletion, it just shows an entry for "Clustered Index Delete" on table Foo which lists in the details section the other indices that need to be updated but I don't get any indication of the relative cost of these other indices. Are they all equal in this case? Is there some way that I can estimate the impact of removing one or more of these indices without having to actually try it?

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  • How can I extend this SQL query to find the k nearest neighbors?

    - by Smigs
    I have a database full of two-dimensional data - points on a map. Each record has a field of the geometry type. What I need to be able to do is pass a point to a stored procedure which returns the k nearest points (k would also be passed to the sproc, but that's easy). I've found a query at http://blogs.msdn.com/isaac/archive/2008/10/23/nearest-neighbors.aspx which gets the single nearest neighbour, but I can't figure how to extend it to find the k nearest neighbours. This is the current query - T is the table, g is the geometry field, @x is the point to search around, Numbers is a table with integers 1 to n: DECLARE @start FLOAT = 1000; WITH NearestPoints AS ( SELECT TOP(1) WITH TIES *, T.g.STDistance(@x) AS dist FROM Numbers JOIN T WITH(INDEX(spatial_index)) ON T.g.STDistance(@x) < @start*POWER(2,Numbers.n) ORDER BY n ) SELECT TOP(1) * FROM NearestPoints ORDER BY n, dist The inner query selects the nearest non-empty region and the outer query then selects the top result from that region; the outer query can easily be changed to (e.g.) SELECT TOP(20), but if the nearest region only contains one result, you're stuck with that. I figure I probably need to recursively search for the first region containing k records, but without using a table variable (which would cause maintenance problems as you have to create the table structure and it's liable to change - there're lots of fields), I can't see how.

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  • Deploying ASP.NET MVC to IIS6: pages are just blank

    - by BryanGrimes
    I have an MVC app that is actually on a couple other servers but I didn't do the deploy. For this deploy I have added the wildcard to aspnet_isapi.dll which has gotten rid of the 404 error. But the pages are not pulling up, rather everything is just blank. I can't seem to find any IIS configuration differences. The Global asax.cs file does have routing defined, but as I've seen on a working server, that file isn't just hanging out in the root or anything so obvious. What could I be missing here? All of the servers are running IIS6 and I have compared the setups and they look the same to me at this point. Thanks... Bryan EDIT for the comments thus far: I've looked in the event logs with no luck, and scoured various IIS logs per David Wang: blogs.msdn.com. Below is the Global.asax.cs file... public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("error.axd"); // for Elmah // For deployment to IIS6 routes.Add(new Route ( "{controller}.mvc/{action}/{id}", new RouteValueDictionary(new { action = "Index", id = (string)null }), new MvcRouteHandler() )); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeSave", "Time/Save", new { controller = "Time", action = "Save" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeAdd", "Time/Add", new { controller = "Time", action = "Add" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeEdit", "Time/Edit/{id}", new { controller = "Time", action = "Edit", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "FromSalesforce", "Home/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); routes.MapRoute( "Default2", "{controller}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } Maybe this is as stupid as the asax file not being somewhere it needs to be, but heck if I know at this point.

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  • Google Maps API - Get points along route between lat/long

    - by user311374
    I have a web site that I am trying to get completed and I need to have the user click points on a map and then work out the route on the roads between the two points. So the user clicks the first point on 1st street, and then clicks another point on 4th street, and the map will find the best way to get there and plot the route on the map. I am assuming this can be done using directions and parse it up, but I have been searching for an hour now and can't find what I am looking for (maybe bad search terms). I need to be able to plot the map manually (?) so I can calculate the distance, etc... of the route as the user continues to click. The site that is in beta is http://www.RunMyRoute.com/UserRoutes/Create and you can see I am trying to create running routes. I want the user to have the option for the route to follow the roads versus just a straight line between two points on the map. Any help on this would be great! Simon.

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  • Find all cycles in graph, redux

    - by Shadow
    Hi, I know there are a quite some answers existing on this question. However, I found none of them really bringing it to the point. Some argue that a cycle is (almost) the same as a strongly connected components (s. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/546655/finding-all-cycles-in-graph/549402#549402) , so one could use algorithms designed for that goal. Some argue that finding a cycle can be done via DFS and checking for back-edges (s. boost graph documentation on file dependencies). I now would like to have some suggestions on whether all cycles in a graph can be detected via DFS and checking for back-edges? My opinion is that it indeed could work that way as DFS-VISIT (s. pseudocode of DFS) freshly enters each node that was not yet visited. In that sense, each vertex exhibits a potential start of a cycle. Additionally, as DFS visits each edge once, each edge leading to the starting point of a cycle is also covered. Thus, by using DFS and back-edge checking it should indeed be possible to detect all cycles in a graph. Note that, if cycles with different numbers of participant nodes exist (e.g. triangles, rectangles etc.), additional work has to be done to discriminate the acutal "shape" of each cycle.

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  • Why are my CATransitions acting up?

    - by Regan
    I am using the following code to switch between views with CATransition. CATransition *applicationLoadViewIn = [CATransition animation]; [applicationLoadViewIn setDuration:20]; [applicationLoadViewIn setType:kCATransitionPush]; [applicationLoadViewIn setSubtype:kCATransitionFromTop]; [applicationLoadViewIn setTimingFunction:[CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseIn]]; ViewToSwitchTo *myviewcontroller = [[ViewToSwitchTo alloc] init]; [self.view.layer addAnimation:applicationLoadViewIn forKey:kCATransitionPush]; [self.view addSubview:myviewcontroller.view]; It functions mostly how I want it to. It pushes from the top like it should, however it for some reason acts strangely. First, the view I am switching to starts coming in from the bottom like it should, but for some reason, the view that I am switching FROM appears over the top of it with low opacity, so you see both of them. However, you also see the view that is coming in, shifted maybe 100 pixels upwards, on top of itself and the other view, once again with low opacity. Just before the halfway point of the the transition, everything works fine, you only see the view that is coming in and the view going out, doing what they should be doing. But slightly after the halfway point, the view I am switching to appears in its final destination, under the view I am switching from, and the view I am switching from has been reduced in opacity. What is going on here?

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  • C# override WndProc in Control level to detect

    - by Nullstr1ng
    I have overridden WndProc in UserControl level to detect MouseDown, MouseUp, and MouseMove to any Control added in that UserControl. protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { Point mouseLoc = new Point(); switch (m.Msg) { case WM_LBUTTONDOWN: System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("mouse down"); //this.OnMouseDown(new MouseEventArgs(MouseButtons.Left, 1, mouseLoc.X, mouseLoc.Y, 0)); break; case WM_LBUTTONUP: System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("mouse up"); //this.OnMouseDown(new MouseEventArgs(MouseButtons.Left, 1, mouseLoc.X,mouseLoc.Y, 0)); break; case WM_MOUSEMOVE: int lParam = m.LParam.ToInt32(); //mouseLoc.X = lParam & 0xFFFF; //mouseLoc.Y = (int)(lParam & 0xFFFF0000 >> 16); mouseLoc.X = (Int16)m.LParam; mouseLoc.Y = (Int16)((int)m.LParam >> 16); System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("mouse move: " + mouseLoc.X + ", " + mouseLoc.Y); //this.OnMouseDown(new MouseEventArgs(MouseButtons.Left, 1, mouseLoc.X,mouseLoc.Y, 0)); break; } base.WndProc(ref m); } MouseMove, Down, and Up are working when the mouse pointer is in UserControl but when the mouse pointer is on other control (inside my UserControl) it doesn't work. Am I doing something wrong? Currently developing a flick and scroll control.

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  • A doubt on DOM parser used with Python

    - by fixxxer
    I'm using the following python code to search for a node in an XML file and changing the value of an attribute of one of it's children.Changes are happening correctly when the node is displayed using toxml().But, when it is written to a file, the attributes rearrange themselves(as seen in the Source and the Final XML below). Could anyone explain how and why this happen? Python code: #!/usr/bin/env python import xml from xml.dom.minidom import parse dom=parse("max.xml") #print "Please enter the store name:" for sku in dom.getElementsByTagName("node"): if sku.getAttribute("name") == "store": sku.childNodes[1].childNodes[5].setAttribute("value","Delhi,India") print sku.toxml() xml.dom.ext.PrettyPrint(dom, open("new.xml", "w")) a part of the Source XML: <node name='store' node_id='515' module='mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue' config_builder='' inherant='false' description='Configurable Value'> <match> <property name='1' value='point'/> <property name='2' value='0'/> <property name='val' value='Store# 09204 Staten Island, NY'/> <property name='3' value='str'/> </match> </node> Final XML : <node config_builder="" description="Configurable Value" inherant="false" module="mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue" name="store" node_id="515"> <match> <property name="1" value="point"/> <property name="2" value="0"/> <property name="val" value="Delhi,India"/> <property name="3" value="str"/> </match> </node>

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  • jquery Append Issue

    - by 3gwebtrain
    I am getting the append issue with this code. In my xml i go 2 no. of "listgroup" and jquery print propelry. but within the earch "listgroup", first group contain 6 points and second group contain 6 point. these 2 section has to print separately to 'ul' element. But my problem is first time while it print itself both 12points in first ul i am getting and it print 6 pint to second ul propelry.. what i want is, first ul has to have 6 points and second has6 point what it has in the xml tree... $(function(){ $.get('career-utility.xml',function(myData){ $(myData).find('listgroup').each(function(index){ var listGroup = $(this); var listGroupTitle = $(this).attr('title'); var shortNote = $(this).attr('shortnote'); var subLink = $(this).find('sublist'); var firstList = $(this).find('list'); $('.grouplist').append('<div class="list-group"><h3>'+listGroupTitle+'</h3><ul class="level">'+index+'</ul></div>'); $(this).children().each(function(num){ var text = $(this).text(); $('<li>'+text+'</li>').appendTo('ul.level'); }) }) }) })

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  • How to develop JSP/Servlets Web App using MVC pattern?

    - by A.S al-shammari
    I'm developing a JSP/Servlets web app (no frameworks). I want to use MVC pattern. I designed my project like this : Controller :a servlet that reads a request, extracts the values,communicates with model objects and gives information to a JSP page. View : JSP Pages. Model : Java Classes / Java Beans .. etc . The problem : Index.jsp is the starting point (default page) in my web site. So, the Index.jsp becomes the controller to parse the request! .For example , the following request : index.jsp?section=article&id=10 parsed in index.jsp as following : <div class="midcol"> <!-- Which section? --> <%String fileName = request.getParameter("section"); if (fileName == null) { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/frontpage.jsp"; } else { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/" + fileName + ".jsp"; } %> <jsp:include page='<%= fileName%>' /> </div> Here, I can't force the servlet to be a controller .. because the index.jsp is the controller here since it's the starting point! Is there any solution to forward the request from index.jsp to the servlet and then go back to index.jsp ? Or any solution that achieves the MVC goal - the servlet should be the controller - ? I'm thinking of making a FrontPageController servlet as default page instead of index.jsp ! but I don't know if it's a perfect idea ?!

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  • A view "transparent" to touches in some areas

    - by Mike
    I have this transparent view that covers the whole screen. I using this view to group objects because I need to run them together around a specific anchor point. Lets call this view transparentView. At some point, transparentView contains two subviews. Two vertical bars full of icons, one on the left and one on the right of the screen. I need these bars and their icons to respond to touches, so I have to set transparentView setUserInteraction to YES. The area between the two vertical bars are totally transparent. transparentView is on top of other views and I need these other views to respond to taps but, the transparent area of transparentView are intercepting the taps and not letting them go thru to the view below. This transparent view is a UIImageView based class. I have tried to forward taps on that class, using - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [self.nextResponder touchesBegan: touches withEvent:event]; } - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [self.nextResponder touchesMoved: touches withEvent:event]; } - (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [self.nextResponder touchesEnded: touches withEvent:event]; } - (void)touchesCancelled:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [self touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; } but this is not working. How can I do that? thanks.

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  • C# client to Java web service

    - by tomislavg
    I have received wsdl file from outside company. I'm using VS2005 c#. With wsdl.exe I have created class containing methods and types for the given web service. To connect to the service outside company requires that certificate from the smart card is inputed in the header. I think i have achieved this with service.ClientCertificates.Add("Path to exported cert" - at least for now, after probably later i will take it from Certificate Store When service is called there are three steps that are taken and visible by the Fidller(Web Debugging Proxy)). service is called on the url http://test.company.com/webservice.wsdl service redirects the request to certificate server and pin needs to be inputed to get cookie for the server service is again redirected to url http://test.company.com/webservice.wsdl At point 1. I can see that my request send to the server contains .... but at point 3. i can not see request` just a empty string. The exception is thrown Msg: Possible SOAP version mismatch: Envelope namespace http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/wsdl/ was unexpected. Expecting http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/. Does somebody have an example how to connect to java web service with certificate and AlowRedirect enabled for the web service? Any ideas what i am doing wrong are more that welcome.

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  • Rotate a feature Image in Open Layers - Javascript variable from JSON.

    - by Ozaki
    I have an open layers map. It adds and removes my "imageFeature" every 10secs or so. I have a JSON feed that gives me the rotation that I need, I have a request to get that rotation and set it as a variable of rotationv. Everything works but the fact when the image is recreated it does not update the rotation. My code is as follows: JSON request: var rotationv = (function () { rotationv = null; $.ajax({ 'async': false, 'global': true, 'url': urldefault, 'dataType': "json", 'success': function (data) { rotationv = data.rotation; } }); return rotationv })(); Creating image feature: imageFeature = new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector( new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(mylon, mylat), { rotation: rotationv } ); The image is set in the styling elsewhere. Why does this not rotate my image? Debugging with firebug I now notice that "rotationv" is updating as per it should be. But when the point is destroyed then added again it does not apply the new rotation... Add: I realised that the "image" is applied as per the layer. So I need to figure out how to re apply the stylemap to the layer so it will trigger the "update" on the page. //redefine layer 2 so it can be updated// //test.js is just a 0.0 testref// var layer2 = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("Layer 2", "test.js", { format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: styleMap }); But even if I add the above into my function still no luck. Included map.addLayers([layer2]); into the function as well.

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  • wopen calls when porting to Linux

    - by laura
    I have an application which was developed under Windows, but for gcc. The code is mostly OS-independent, with very few classes which are Windows specific because a Linux port was always regarded as necessary. The API, especially that which gets called as a direct result of user interaction, is using wide char arrays instead of char arrays (as a side note, I cannot change the API itself - at this point, std::wstring cannot be used). These are considered as encoded in UTF-16. In some places, the code opens files, mostly using the windows-specific _wopen function call. The problem with this is there is no wopen-like substitute for Linux because Linux "only deals with bytes". The question is: how do I port this code ? What if I wanted to open a file with the name "something™.log", how would I go about doing so in Linux ? Is a cast to char* sufficient, would the wide chars be picked up automatically based on the locale (probably not) ? Do I need to convert manually ? I'm a bit confused regarding this, perhaps someone could point me to some documentation regarding the matter.

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