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  • To implement a remote desktop sharing solution

    - by Cameigons
    Hi, I'm on planning/modeling phase to develop a remote desktop sharing solution, which must be web browser based. In other words: an user will be able to see and interact with someone's remote desktop using his web-browser. Everything the user who wants to share his desktop will need, besides his browser, is installing an add-in, which he's going to be prompted about when necessary. The add-in is required since (afaik) no browser technology allows desktop control from an app running within the browser alone. The add-in installation process must be as simple and transparent as possible to the user (similar to AdobeConnectNow, in case anyone's acquainted with it). The user can share his desktop with lots of people at the same time, but concede desktop control to only one of them at a time(makes no sense being otherwise). Project requirements: All technology employed must be open-source license compatible Both front ends are going to be in flash (browser) Must work on Linux, Windows XP(and later) and MacOSX. Must work at least with IE7(and later) and Firefox3.0(and later). At the very least, once the sharer's stream hits the server from where it'll be broadcast, hereon it must be broadcasted in flv (so I'm thinking whether to do the encoding at the client's machine (the one sharing the desktop) or send it in some other format to the server and encode it there). Performance and scalability are important: It must be able to handle hundreds of dozens of users(one desktop sharer, the rest viewers) We'll definitely be using red5. My doubts concern mostly implementing the desktop publisher side (add-in and streamer): 1) Are you aware of other projects that I could look into for ideas? (I'm aware of bigbluebutton.org and code.google.com/p/openmeetings) 2) Should I base myself on VNC ? 3) Bearing in mind the need to have it working cross-platform, what language should I go with? (My team is very used with java and I have some knowledge of C/C++, but anything goes really). 4) Any other advices are appreciated.

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  • Java: Clearing up the confusion on what causes a connection reset

    - by Zombies
    There seems to be some confusion as well contradicting statements on various SO answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/585599/whats-causing-my-java-net-socketexception-connection-reset . You can see here that the accepted answer states that the connection was closed by other side. But this is not true, closing a connection doesn't cause a connection reset. It is cauesed by "an underlying TCP/IP error." What I want to know is if a SocketException: Connection reset means really besides "unerlying TCP/IP Error." What really causes this? As I doubt it has anything to do with the connection being closed (since closing a connection isn't an exception worthy flag, and reading from a closed connection is, but that isn't an "underlying TCP/IP error." My hypothesis is this Connection reset is caused from a server's failure to acknowledge an ACK packet (either wholly or just improperly as per TCP/IP). And that a SocketTimeoutException is generated only when no data is generated to be read (since this is thrown during a read after a certain duration, and read is waiting for data, but is not concerned with ACK packets). In other words, read() throws SocketTimeoutException if it didn't read any bytes of actual data (DATA LAYER) in its allotted time.

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  • How to send parameters with same encoding from javascript?

    - by nimcap
    I have a javascript file that lots of people have embedded to their pages. Since I am hosting the file, I have control over that javascript file; I cannot control the way it is embedded because lots of people is using it already. This javascript file sends GET requests to my servlets, and the parameters passed with the request are recorded to DB. For example, javascript sends a request to http://myserver.com/servlet?p1=123&p2=aString and then servlet records 123 and aString to DB somehow. Before sending strings I use encodeURIComponent() to encode it. But what I figured out is every client sends the same string with different encodings depending on either their browser or the site they are visiting. As a result, same strings are represented with different characters when it reaches servlet (so they are different strings). What I am trying to do is to convert the strings to one kind of encoding from javascript so when they reach the client same words are represented with same characters. How is this possible? PS. If there is a way to convert the encoding from Java it is also applicable.

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  • Dynamic margin (or simulation of margin) between left floated divs

    - by BugBusterX
    I have a number of divs floated left. When browser is resized they move down or up based on how many can fit on the line. I was wondering if there is a way to dynamically (with css) have those divs align (or have margin) in a way, that they would always fill the entire screen space by having their marhin resize? In other words margin between them would resize while browser is resized, but as soon as another div can fit it will be added in the line, or if minimum margin is reached and passed another div goes to next line while margins expand again. Here's an example how it is now, resize the wondow to see he leftover space that I want to "fill" <html> <head> <style> .test { float:left; width: 100px; height:100px; background-color: grey; margin: 0 10px 10px 0; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> <div class="test"></div> </body> </html>

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  • CMYK + CMYK = ? CMYK / 2 = ?

    - by Pete
    Suppose there are two colors defined in CMYK: color1 = 30, 40, 50, 60 color2 = 50, 60, 70, 80 If they were to be printed what values would the resulting color have? color_new = min(cyan1 + cyan2, 100), min(magenta1 + magenta2, 100), min(yellow1 + yellow2, 100), min(black1 + black2, 100)? Suppose there is a color defined in CMYK: color = 40, 30, 30, 100 It is possible to print a color at partial intensity, i.e. as a tint. What values would have a 50% tint of that color? color_new = cyan / 2, magenta / 2, yellow / 2, black / 2? I'm asking this to better understand the "tintTransform" function in PDF Reference 1.7, 4.5.5 Special Color Spaces, DeviceN Color Spaces Update: To better clarify: I'm not entirely concerned with human perception or how the CMYK dyies react to the paper. If someone specifies 90% tint which, when printed, looks like full intensity colorant, that's ok. In other words, if I asking how to compute 50% of cmyk(40, 30, 30, 100) I'm asking how to compute the new values, regardless of whether the result looks half-dark or not. Update 2: I'm confused now. I checked this in InDesign and Acrobat. For example Pantone 3005 has CMYK 100, 34, 0, 2, and its 25% tint has CMYK 25, 8.5, 0, 0.5. Does it mean I can "monkey around in a linear way"?

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  • C++: select argmax over vector of classes w.r.t. arbitrary expression

    - by karpathy
    Hello, I have trouble describing my problem so I'll give an example: I have a class description that has a couple of variables in it, for example: class A{ float a, b, c, d; } Now, I maintain a vector<A> that contains many of these classes. What I need to do very very often is to find the object inside this vector that satisfies that one of it's parameters is maximal w.r.t to the others. i.e code looks something like: int maxi=-1; float maxa=-1000; for(int i=0;i<vec.size();i++){ res= vec[i].a; if(res > maxa) { maxa= res; maxi=i; } } return vec[maxi]; However, sometimes I need to find class with maximal a, sometimes with maximal b, sometimes the class with maximal 0.8*a + 0.2*b, sometimes I want a maximal a*VAR + b, where VAR is some variable that is assigned in front, etc. In other words, I need to evaluate an expression for every class, and take the max. I find myself copy-pasting this everywhere, and only changing the single line that defines res. What makes it even more complicated is that even the name of the vector changes. Sometimes it's vec, sometimes it can be something else. I have many vectors that contain A's. This could be changed if this makes the problem too hard. Is there some nice way to avoid this insanity in C++? What's the neatest way to handle this? Thank you!

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  • Question regarding ip checksum code

    - by looktt
    unsigned short /* this function generates header checksums */ csum (unsigned short *buf, int nwords) { unsigned long sum; for (sum = 0; nwords > 0; nwords--) // add words(16bits) together sum += *buf++; sum = (sum >> 16) + (sum & 0xffff); //add carry over sum += (sum >> 16); //what does this step do??? add possible left-over //byte? But isn't it already added in the loop (if //any)? return ((unsigned short) ~sum); } I assume nwords in the number of 16bits word, not 8bits byte (if there are odd byte, nword is rounded to next large), is it correct? The line sum = (sum 16) + (sum & 0xffff) is to add carry over to make 16bit complement sum += (sum 16); What's the purpose of this step? Add left-over byte? How? Thanks!

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  • C++ operator new, object versions, and the allocation sizes

    - by mizubasho
    Hi. I have a question about different versions of an object, their sizes, and allocation. The platform is Solaris 8 (and higher). Let's say we have programs A, B, and C that all link to a shared library D. Some class is defined in the library D, let's call it 'classD', and assume the size is 100 bytes. Now, we want to add a few members to classD for the next version of program A, without affecting existing binaries B or C. The new size will be, say, 120 bytes. We want program A to use the new definition of classD (120 bytes), while programs B and C continue to use the old definition of classD (100 bytes). A, B, and C all use the operator "new" to create instances of D. The question is, when does the operator "new" know the amount of memory to allocate? Compile time or run time? One thing I am afraid of is, programs B and C expect classD to be and alloate 100 bytes whereas the new shared library D requires 120 bytes for classD, and this inconsistency may cause memory corruption in programs B and C if I link them with the new library D. In other words, the area for extra 20 bytes that the new classD require may be allocated to some other variables by program B and C. Is this assumption correct? Thanks for your help.

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  • jquery clone only once

    - by tsiger
    I have a series of divs like this: <div id="available-posts"> <div class="post" id="unique_id"> <a href="#" class="addme">Add</a> Some text </div> <div class="post" id="unique_id"> <a href="#" class="addme">Add</a> Some text </div> </div> The unique_id is a different number for each of the divs. Now i have a new empty div like this <div class="related-posts"></div> And i clone items in there. The thing is that i want to check if an item is already cloned. If it is i want to stop it from being cloned again. This is how i clone items: // clone it $('.addme').live('click', function() { $(this).parents('div.thepost').clone().fadeIn('normal').appendTo('#related-posts').find('a.addme').html('Remove').removeClass('addme').addClass('removeme'); return false; }); // remove it $('.removeme').live('click', function() { $(this).parents('div.thepost').fadeOut('normal', function() {$(this).remove(); }); return false; }); In other words i want the cloned list to contain only unique items. Not for example 2 clones of the same post. *edit: i am using live coz the first list (available posts) is populated through an AJAX call.

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  • jQuery "growl-like" effect in VB.net

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i have made a simple form that mimiks the jQuery "GROWL" effect seen here http://www.sandbox.timbenniks.com/projects/jquery-notice/ However, i have ran into a problem. If i have more than one call to the form to display a "Growl" then it just refreshes the same form with whatever call i send it. In other words, i can only display one form at a time instead of having one drop down and a new one appear above it. Here is my simple form code for the "GROWL" form: Public Class msgWindow Public howLong As Integer Public theType As String Private loading As Boolean Protected Overrides Sub OnPaint(ByVal pe As System.Windows.Forms.PaintEventArgs) Dim pn As New Pen(Color.DarkGreen) If theType = "OK" Then pn.Color = Color.DarkGreen ElseIf theType = "ERR" Then pn.Color = Color.DarkRed Else pn.Color = Color.DarkOrange End If pn.Width = 2 pe.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pn, 0, 0, Me.Width, Me.Height) pn = Nothing End Sub Public Sub showMessageBox(ByVal typeOfBox As String, ByVal theMessage As String) Me.Opacity = 0 Me.Show() Me.SetDesktopLocation(My.Computer.Screen.WorkingArea.Width - 350, 15) Me.loading = True theType = typeOfBox lblSaying.Text = theMessage If typeOfBox = "OK" Then Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(192, 255, 192) ElseIf typeOfBox = "ERR" Then Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(255, 192, 192) Else Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(255, 255, 192) End If If Len(theMessage) <= 30 Then howLong = 4000 ElseIf Len(theMessage) >= 31 And Len(theMessage) <= 80 Then howLong = 7000 ElseIf Len(theMessage) >= 81 And Len(theMessage) <= 100 Then howLong = 12000 Else howLong = 17000 End If Me.opacityTimer.Start() End Sub Private Sub opacityTimer_Tick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles opacityTimer.Tick If Me.loading Then Me.Opacity += 0.07 If Me.Opacity >= 0.8 Then Me.opacityTimer.Stop() Me.opacityTimer.Dispose() Pause(howLong) Me.loading = False Me.opacityTimer.Start() End If Else Me.Opacity -= 0.08 If Me.Opacity <= 0 Then Me.opacityTimer.Stop() Me.Close() End If End If End Sub Public Sub Pause(ByVal Milliseconds As Integer) Dim dTimer As Date dTimer = Now.AddMilliseconds(Milliseconds) Do While dTimer > Now Application.DoEvents() Loop End Sub End Class I call the form by this simple call: Call msgWindow.showMessageBox("OK", "Finished searching images.") Does anyone know a way where i can have the same setup but would allow me to add any number of forms without refreshing the same form over and over again? Like always, any help would be great! :) David

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  • How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

    - by froadie
    I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

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  • Hibernate noob fetch join problem

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I have two classes, Test2 and Test3. Test2 has an attribute test3 that is an instance of Test3. In other words, I have a unidirectional OneToOne association, with test2 having a reference to test3. When I select Test2 from the db, I can see that a separate select is being made to get the details of the associated test3 class. This is the famous 1+N selects problem. To fix this to use a single select, I am trying to use the fetch=join annotation, which I understand to be @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) However, with fetch set to join, I still see separate selects. Here are the relevant portions of my setup.. hibernate.cfg.xml: <property name="max_fetch_depth">2</property> Test2: public class Test2 { @OneToOne (cascade=CascadeType.ALL , fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn (name="test3_id") @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) public Test3 getTest3() { return test3; } NB I set the FetchType to EAGER out of desperation, even though it defaults to EAGER anyway for OneToOne mappings, but it made no difference. Thanks for any help! Edit: I've pretty much given up on trying to use FetchMode.JOIN - can anyone confirm that they have got it to work ie produce a left outer join? In the docs I see that "Usually, the mapping document is not used to customize fetching. Instead, we keep the default behavior, and override it for a particular transaction, using left join fetch in HQL" If I do a left join fetch instead: query = session.createQuery("from Test2 t2 left join fetch t2.test3"); then I do indeed get the results I want - ie a left outer join in the query.

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  • Integrating Magento with a simple static website.

    - by ExtraLean
    Magento is an awesomely powerful ecommerce platform. That said, it is also very complex, and I'd like to know if there is a relatively simple way to utilize Magento as our mISV site's backend to fulfill orders without actually "using" Magento's framework to build the site, run the site, etc. In other words, I don't want to use the built-in CMS, etc. since we have a static website already built. I'd just like our Buy Now buttons to utilize the checkout stuff, and would like to be able to use the back-end part to keep track of orders etc. I was able to accomplish this "fairly" easily with osCommerce, but Magento is proving to be a little more difficult to wrap my head around since I've only started looking at it for a few days now. I found another person asking this same exact question on the Magento wiki (along with several others in the forum), and none of them ever receive a reply for some reason. I noticed that there are may Magento experts on Stack Overflow, so I thought I'd give it a go here. This is an example of one question asked by someone on their wiki, and it captures the essence of what I'm trying to accomplish: Hi, as far as I understand, all shopping cart/eCommerce solutions I see are full featured PHP driven web sites. This means that all the pages the user interacts with, are server generated, and thus, the experience, is tied to the magento framework/workflow. I’d like to integrate bits and pieces of eCommerce/shopping cart in my existing website. Effectively, I’d like to have: 1) on a product information page, a “buy now/add to cart” button that adds to a cart 2) on every page, a view cart/checkout option 3) on a checkout page, with additional content already in place, having the magento “checkout” block integrated in the page (and not the entire page generated from Magento). Have any of you done this with Magento? This is for a simple one-product website so any advice you could share would be highly appreciated.

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  • How can I automatically generate sql update scripts when some data is updated ?

    - by Brann
    I'd like to automatically generate an update script each time a value is modified in my database. In other words, if a stored procedure, or a query, or whatever updates column a with value b in table c (which as a pk column (i,j...k), I want to generate this : update c set a=b where i=... and j=... and k=... and store it somewhere (for example as a raw string in a table). To complicate things, I want the script to be generated only if the update has been made by a specific user. Good news is that I've got a primary key defined for all my tables. I can see how to do this using a trigger, but I would need to generate specific triggers for each table, and to update them each and every-time my schema changes. I guess there are some built-in ways to do this as SQL server sometimes need to store this kind of things (while using transactional replication for example), but couldn't find anything so far ... any ideas ? I'm also interested in ways to automatically generate triggers (probably using triggers - meta triggers, huh? - since I will need to update triggers automatically when the schema change)

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  • MYOB Import "amount paid"

    - by php-b-grader
    I seem to have found an anomaly with MYOB (I've actually found many anomalies, this is just another one that is doing my head in...) I am generating a file with all invoices from the web system - no problems. If an invoice has 3 lines and the account is paid COD, I am having an problem e.g. "INV", "DATE" ... "AMOUNT", "INC TAX AMOUNT" ... "AMOUNT PAID" 8421, 12/06/2010 ... 60, 66 ... 66 8421, 12/06/2010 ... 120, 132 ... 132 8421, 12/06/2010 ... 96, 105.6 ... 105.6 8421, 12/06/2010 ... 84, 92.4 ... 92.4 When I import this file, the balance of the invoice is still outstanding and what it appears is the issue is that it is only importing the first line of "amount paid" ... so in other words, based on the above: Invoice 8421 is imported with 4 lines The total invoice amount is $396 The Amount paid (that is imported) is $66 The outstanding balance = $330 Surely the first line isn't expected to be: Inc tax Amount = $66 Amount Paid = $396 It seems completely illogical to me... am I doing something wrong or is MYOB just really bad?

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  • How to retrieve view of MultiIndex DataFrame

    - by Henry S. Harrison
    This question was inspired by this question. I had the same problem, updating a MultiIndex DataFrame by selection. The drop_level=False solution in Pandas 0.13 will allow me to achieve the same result, but I am still wondering why I cannot get a view from the MultiIndex DataFrame. In other words, why does this not work?: >>> sat = d.xs('sat', level='day', copy=False) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\pandas\core\frame.py", line 2248, in xs raise ValueError('Cannot retrieve view (copy=False)') ValueError: Cannot retrieve view (copy=False) Of course it could be only because it is not implemented, but is there a reason? Is it somehow ambiguous or impossible to implement? Returning a view is more intuitive to me than returning a copy then later updating the original. I looked through the source and it seems this situation is checked explicitly to raise an error. Alternatively, is it possible to get the same sort of view from any of the other indexing methods? I've experimented but have not been successful. [edit] Some potential implementations are discussed here. I guess with the last question above I'm wondering what the current best solution is to index into arbitrary multiindex slices and cross-sections.

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  • How is it legal to reference an undefined type inside a structure?

    - by paxdiablo
    As part of answering another question, I came across a piece of code like this, which gcc compiles without complaint. typedef struct { struct xyz *z; } xyz; int main (void) { return 0; } This is the means I've always used to construct types that point to themselves (e.g., linked lists) but I've always thought you had to name the struct so you could use self-reference. In other words, you couldn't use xyz *z within the structure because the typedef is not yet complete at that point. But this particular sample does not name the structure and it still compiles. I thought originally there was some black magic going on in the compiler that automatically translated the above code because the structure and typedef names were the same. But this little beauty works as well: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz *z; } xyz; What am I missing here? This seems a clear violation since there is no struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz type defined anywhere. When I change it from a pointer to an actual type, I get the expected error: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz z; } xyz; qqq.c:2: error: field `z' has incomplete type Also, when I remove the struct, I get an error (parse error before "NOTHING ...). Is this allowed in ISO C?

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  • capturing CMD batch file parameter list; write to file for later processing

    - by BobB
    I have written a batch file that is launched as a post processing utility by a program. The batch file reads ~24 parameters supplied by the calling program, stores them into variables, and then writes them to various text files. Since the max input variable in CMD is %9, it's necessary to use the 'shift' command to repeatedly read and store these individually to named variables. Because the program outputs several similar batch files, the result is opening several CMD windows sequentially, assigning variables and writing data files. This ties up the calling program for too long. It occurs to me that I could free up the calling program much faster if maybe there's a way to write a very simple batch file that can write all the command parameters to a text file, where I can process them later. Basically, just grab the parameter list, write it and done. Q: Is there some way to treat an entire series of parameter data as one big text string and write it to one big variable... and then echo the whole big thing to one text file? Then later read the string into %n variables when there's no program waiting to resume? Parameter list is something like 25 - 30 words, less than 200 characters. Sample parameter list: "First Name" "Lastname" "123 Steet Name Way" "Cityname" ST 12345 1004968 06/01/2010 "Firstname+Lastname" 101738 "On Account" 20.67 xy-1z 1 8.95 3.00 1.39 0 0 239 8.95 Items in quotes are processed as string variables. List is space delimited. Any suggestions?

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  • Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

    - by Dean P
    Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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  • a question related to URL

    - by Robert
    Dear all,Now i have this question in my java program,I think it should be classified as URL problem,but not 100% sure.If you think I am wrong,feel free to recategorize this problem,thanks. I would state my problem as simply as possible. I did a search on the famouse Chinese search engine baidu.com for a Chinese key word "???" (Obama in English),and the way I do that is to pass a URL (in a Java Program)to the browser like: http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=??? and it works perfectly just like I input the "???”keyword in the text field on baidu.com. However,now my advisor wants another thing.Since he can not read the Chinese webpages,but he wants to make sure the webpages I got from Baidu.com is related to "Obama",he asked me to google translate it back,i.e,using google translate and translate the Chinese webpage to English one. This sounds straightforward.However,I met my problem here. If I simply pass the URL "http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" into Google Translate and tick "Chinese to English" translating option,the result looks awful.(I don't know the clue here,maybe related to Chinese character encoding). Alternatively,if now my browser opens ""http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" webpage,but I click on the "????" button (that simply means "search"),you will notice the URL will get changed,now if I pass this URL into the Google translate and do the same thing,the result works much better. I hope I am not making this problem sound too complicated,and I appologize for some Chinese words invovled,but I really need your guys' help here.Becasue I did all this in a Java program,I couldn't figure out how to realize that "????"(pressing search button) step then get the new URL.If I could get that new URL,things are easy,I could just call Google translate in my Java code,and pops out the new window to show my advisor. Please share any of your idea or thougts here.Thanks a lot. Robert

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  • java singleton instantiation

    - by jurchiks
    I've found three ways of instantiating a Singleton, but I have doubts as to whether any of them is the best there is. I'm using them in a multi-threaded environment and prefer lazy instantiation. Sample 1: private static final ClassName INSTANCE = new ClassName(); public static ClassName getInstance() { return INSTANCE; } Sample 2: private static class SingletonHolder { public static final ClassName INSTANCE = new ClassName(); } public static ClassName getInstance() { return SingletonHolder.INSTANCE; } Sample 3: private static ClassName INSTANCE; public static synchronized ClassName getInstance() { if (INSTANCE == null) INSTANCE = new ClassName(); return INSTANCE; } The project I'm using ATM uses Sample 2 everywhere, but I kind of like Sample 3 more. There is also the Enum version, but I just don't get it. The question here is - in which cases I should/shouldn't use any of these variations? I'm not looking for lengthy explanations though (there's plenty of other topics about that, but they all eventually turn into arguing IMO), I'd like it to be understandable with few words.

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  • Android: How to put ListView in XML?

    - by FloIancu
    I want to make a simple app that shows a list of contacts (name, surname). My code: package lista.android; import java.util.*; import android.app.ListActivity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.*; class Contact{ String nume; String prenume; Contact(String nume, String prenume){ this.nume=nume; this.prenume=prenume; } public String toString(){ return prenume +" "+ nume; } } public class Lista1Activity extends ListActivity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ ArrayList <Contact> lista; ArrayAdapter <Contact> adaptor; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); setListAdapter(adaptor); lista=new ArrayList<Contact>(); adaptor=new ArrayAdapter<Contact>(this, R.id.element, lista); adaugaContact("Florian", "Iancu"); adaugaContact("Ioana", "Constantina"); } public void adaugaContact(String nume, String prenume){ lista.add(new Contact(nume, prenume)); adaptor.notifyDataSetChanged(); } } In the XML I have the LinearLayout and a TextView that is the list element. When I run it, the simulator says "Sorry, the application [...] has stopped unexpectedly. Please try again." The LogCat tells me I have to have a ListView whose id is android.R.id.lista. If I create a random ListView field in the XML file and give it the "lista" id, it still doesn't work. How to I call that ListView from XML to match something in my Java code? In other words, I know I'm wrong, but where and how do I fix it?

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  • Why would I use Assembly.LoadFile in lieu of Assembly.LoadFrom?

    - by Cheeso
    It's my impression that Assembly.LoadFrom uses the ApplicationBase and PrivateBinPath. It also my impression that Assembly.LoadFile does not. Why would anyone want to use LoadFile? In other words, if my understanding is correct, why would anyone want to NOT use the ApplicationBase and PrivateBinPath? I'm working with some existing code, which uses LoadFile, and I don't understand why it would do so. LoadFile apparently does not load dependencies from the same directory. The LoadFrom method does load dependencies (From the doc: The load-from context...allows dependencies on that path to be found and loaded because the path information is maintained by the context.) I'd like to convert it from using LoadFile, to use LoadFrom. What is likely to break, if anything, if I replace LoadFile with LoadFrom? Even if it iss benign, it may be that I cannot do the replacement, just based on project schedules. If I cannot replace LoadFile with LoadFrom, is there a way to convince assemblies loaded with LoadFile to load dependencies? Is there a packaging trick I can use (embedded assembly, ILMerge, an AssemblyResolve event, something like that) that can allow an assembly loaded with LoadFile to also load its dependencies?

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  • Ruby : UTF-8 IO

    - by subtenante
    I use ruby 1.8.7. I try to parse some text files containing greek sentences, encoded in UTF-8. (I can't much paste here sample files, because they are subject to copyright. Really just some greek text encoded in UTF-8.) I want, for each file, to parse the file, extract all the words, and make a list of each new word found in this file. All that saved to one big index file. Here is my code : #!/usr/bin/ruby -KU def prepare_line(l) l.gsub(/^\s*[ST]\d+\s*:\s*|\s+$|\(\d+\)\s*/u, "") end def tokenize(l) l.split /['·.;!:\s]+/u end $dict = {} $cpt = 0 $out = File.new 'out.txt', 'w' def lesson(file) $cpt = $cpt + 1 file.readlines.each do |l| $out.puts l l = prepare_line l tokenize(l).each do |t| unless $dict[t] $dict[t] = $cpt $out.puts " #{t}\n" end end end end Dir.new('etc/').each do |filename| f = File.new("etc/#{filename}") unless File.directory? f lesson f end end Here is part of my output : ?@???†?†?????????? ?...[snip very long hangul/hanzi mishmash]... ????????†? ???N2 : ?e?te?? (2) µ???µa (Note that the puts l part seems to work fine, at the end of the given output line.) Any idea what is wrong with my code ? (General comments about ruby idioms I could use are very welcome, I'm really a beginner.)

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  • How to parse phpDoc style comment block with php?

    - by Reveller
    Please consider the following code with which I'm trying to parse only the first phpDoc style comment (noy using any other libraries) in a file (file contents put in $data variable for testing purposes): $data = " /** * @file A lot of info about this file * Could even continue on the next line * @author [email protected] * @version 2010-05-01 * @todo do stuff... */ /** * Comment bij functie bar() * @param Array met dingen */ function bar($baz) { echo $baz; } "; $data = trim(preg_replace('/\r?\n *\* */', ' ', $data)); preg_match_all('/@([a-z]+)\s+(.*?)\s*(?=$|@[a-z]+\s)/s', $data, $matches); $info = array_combine($matches[1], $matches[2]); print_r($info) This almose works, except for the fact that everything after @todo (including the bar() comment block and code) is considered the value of @todo: Array ( [file] => A lot of info about this file Could even continue on the next line [author] => [email protected] [version] => 2010-05-01 [todo] => do stuff... / /** Comment bij functie bar() [param] => Array met dingen / function bar() { echo ; } ) How does my code need to be altered so that only the first comment block is being parsed (in other words: parsing should stop after the first "*/" encountered?

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