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• Integrating Magento with a simple static website.

  - by ExtraLean

  Magento is an awesomely powerful ecommerce platform. That said, it is also very complex, and I'd like to know if there is a relatively simple way to utilize Magento as our mISV site's backend to fulfill orders without actually "using" Magento's framework to build the site, run the site, etc. In other words, I don't want to use the built-in CMS, etc. since we have a static website already built. I'd just like our Buy Now buttons to utilize the checkout stuff, and would like to be able to use the back-end part to keep track of orders etc. I was able to accomplish this "fairly" easily with osCommerce, but Magento is proving to be a little more difficult to wrap my head around since I've only started looking at it for a few days now. I found another person asking this same exact question on the Magento wiki (along with several others in the forum), and none of them ever receive a reply for some reason. I noticed that there are may Magento experts on Stack Overflow, so I thought I'd give it a go here. This is an example of one question asked by someone on their wiki, and it captures the essence of what I'm trying to accomplish: Hi, as far as I understand, all shopping cart/eCommerce solutions I see are full featured PHP driven web sites. This means that all the pages the user interacts with, are server generated, and thus, the experience, is tied to the magento framework/workflow. I’d like to integrate bits and pieces of eCommerce/shopping cart in my existing website. Effectively, I’d like to have: 1) on a product information page, a “buy now/add to cart” button that adds to a cart 2) on every page, a view cart/checkout option 3) on a checkout page, with additional content already in place, having the magento “checkout” block integrated in the page (and not the entire page generated from Magento). Have any of you done this with Magento? This is for a simple one-product website so any advice you could share would be highly appreciated.

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• Hibernate noob fetch join problem

  - by Bruce

  Hi all I have two classes, Test2 and Test3. Test2 has an attribute test3 that is an instance of Test3. In other words, I have a unidirectional OneToOne association, with test2 having a reference to test3. When I select Test2 from the db, I can see that a separate select is being made to get the details of the associated test3 class. This is the famous 1+N selects problem. To fix this to use a single select, I am trying to use the fetch=join annotation, which I understand to be @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) However, with fetch set to join, I still see separate selects. Here are the relevant portions of my setup.. hibernate.cfg.xml: <property name="max_fetch_depth">2</property> Test2: public class Test2 { @OneToOne (cascade=CascadeType.ALL , fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn (name="test3_id") @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) public Test3 getTest3() { return test3; } NB I set the FetchType to EAGER out of desperation, even though it defaults to EAGER anyway for OneToOne mappings, but it made no difference. Thanks for any help! Edit: I've pretty much given up on trying to use FetchMode.JOIN - can anyone confirm that they have got it to work ie produce a left outer join? In the docs I see that "Usually, the mapping document is not used to customize fetching. Instead, we keep the default behavior, and override it for a particular transaction, using left join fetch in HQL" If I do a left join fetch instead: query = session.createQuery("from Test2 t2 left join fetch t2.test3"); then I do indeed get the results I want - ie a left outer join in the query.

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• SSL signed certificates for internal use

  - by rogueprocess

  I have a distributed application consisting of many components that communicate over TCP (for examle JMS) and HTTP. All components run on internal hardware, with internal IP addresses, and are not accessible to the public. I want to make the communication secure using SSL. Does it make sense to purchase signed certificates from a well-known certificate authority? Or should I just use self-signed certs? My understanding of the advantage of trusted certs is that the authority is an entity that can be trusted by the general public - but that is only an issue when the general public needs to be sure that the entity at a particular domain is who they say they are. Therefore, in my case, where the same organization is responsible for the components at both ends of the communication, and everything in between, a publicly trusted authority would be pointless. In other words, if I generate and sign a certificate for my own server, I know that it's trustworthy. And no one from outside the organization will ever be asked to trust this certificate. That is my reasoning - am I correct, or is there some potential advantage to using certs from a known authority?

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• Is there a way to use Linq projections with extension methods

  - by Acoustic

  I'm trying to use AutoMapper and a repository pattern along with a fluent interface, and running into difficulty with the Linq projection. For what it's worth, this code works fine when simply using in-memory objects. When using a database provider, however, it breaks when constructing the query graph. I've tried both SubSonic and Linq to SQL with the same result. Thanks for your ideas. Here's an extension method used in all scenarios - It's the source of the problem since everything works fine without using extension methods public static IQueryable<MyUser> ByName(this IQueryable<MyUser> users, string firstName) { return from u in users where u.FirstName == firstName select u; } Here's the in-memory code that works fine var userlist = new List<User> {new User{FirstName = "Test", LastName = "User"}}; Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = (from u in userlist select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u)) .AsQueryable() .ByName("Test"); foreach (var x in result) { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } Here's the same thing using a SubSonic (or Linq to SQL or whatever) that fails. This is what I'd like to make work somehow with extension methods... Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u); var final = result.ByName("Test"); foreach(var x in final) // Fails here when the query graph built. { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } The goal here is to avoid having to manually map the generated "User" object to the "MyUser" domain object- in other words, I'm trying to find a way to use AutoMapper so I don't have this kind of mapping code everywhere a database read operation is needed: var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select new MyUser // Can this be avoided with AutoMapper AND extension methods? { FirstName = v.FirstName, LastName = v.LastName };

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• Is there a way to set two C#.Net projects to trust one another?

  - by Eric

  I have two C#.NET projects in a single solution ModelProject and PluginProject. PlugInProject is a plug-in for another application, and consequently references its API. PlugInProject is used to extract data from the application it plugs into. ModelProject contains the data model of classes that are extracted by PlugInProject. The extracted data can be used independent of the application or the plug-in, which is why I am keeping PlugInProject separate from ModelProject. I want ModelProject to remain independent of PlugInProject, and the Applications API. Or in other words I want someone to be able to access the extracted data without needing access to PlugInProject, the application, or the application's API. The problem I'm running into though is PlugInProject needs to be able to create and modify classes in ModelProject. However, I'd prefer to not make these actions public to anyone using ModelProject. The extracted data should effectively be read-only, unless later modified by PlugInProject. How can I keep these projects separate but give PlugInProject exclusive access to ModelProject? Is this possible?

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• Presentation Issue in an Unordered List

  - by phreeskier

  I'm having an issue with correctly presenting items in an unordered list. The labels are floating left and the related spans that are long in length are wrapping and showing below the label. I need a solution that keeps the related spans in their respective columns. In other words, I don't want long spans to show under the labels. What property can I take advantage of so that I get the desired layout in all of the popular browsers, including IE6? Thanks in advance for the help. My code is as follows: <ul> <li> <label>Name</label> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.Name) %></span> </li> <li> <label>Entity</label> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.Entity) %></span> </li> <li> <label>Phone</label> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.Phone) %></span> </li> </ul> My CSS styling is as follows: ul { display:block; list-style-type:none; margin:0; padding:0; } ul li label { float:left; width:100px; }

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• Why would I use Assembly.LoadFile in lieu of Assembly.LoadFrom?

  - by Cheeso

  It's my impression that Assembly.LoadFrom uses the ApplicationBase and PrivateBinPath. It also my impression that Assembly.LoadFile does not. Why would anyone want to use LoadFile? In other words, if my understanding is correct, why would anyone want to NOT use the ApplicationBase and PrivateBinPath? I'm working with some existing code, which uses LoadFile, and I don't understand why it would do so. LoadFile apparently does not load dependencies from the same directory. The LoadFrom method does load dependencies (From the doc: The load-from context...allows dependencies on that path to be found and loaded because the path information is maintained by the context.) I'd like to convert it from using LoadFile, to use LoadFrom. What is likely to break, if anything, if I replace LoadFile with LoadFrom? Even if it iss benign, it may be that I cannot do the replacement, just based on project schedules. If I cannot replace LoadFile with LoadFrom, is there a way to convince assemblies loaded with LoadFile to load dependencies? Is there a packaging trick I can use (embedded assembly, ILMerge, an AssemblyResolve event, something like that) that can allow an assembly loaded with LoadFile to also load its dependencies?

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• VB6 Game Development

  - by CVS-2600Hertz-wordpress-com

  Hi All, I am developing a game in VB6 (plz don't ask me why :) ). The storyboard is ready and a rough implementation is underway. I am following a "pure-software-rendering" approach. (i.e. no DirectX, no openGL etc.) Amongst many others, the following "serious" problems exist: 2D alpha transparency reqd. to implement overlays. Parallax implementation to give depth-of-field illusion. Capturing mouse-scroll events globally (as in FPS-es; mapping them to changing weapon). Async sound play with absolute "near-zero-lag". Any ideas anyone. Please suggest any well documented library/ocx or sample-code. Plz do suggest solutions with good performance and as little overhead as possible. Also, anyone who has developed any games, and would be open to sharing her/his code would be highly appreciated. (any well-acknowledged VB games whose source-code i can study??) UPDATE: Here is a screen shot of GearHead Garage. This picture ought to describe what i was attempting in words above... :) Thank You

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• Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

  - by Dean P

  Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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• Ruby : UTF-8 IO

  - by subtenante

  I use ruby 1.8.7. I try to parse some text files containing greek sentences, encoded in UTF-8. (I can't much paste here sample files, because they are subject to copyright. Really just some greek text encoded in UTF-8.) I want, for each file, to parse the file, extract all the words, and make a list of each new word found in this file. All that saved to one big index file. Here is my code : #!/usr/bin/ruby -KU def prepare_line(l) l.gsub(/^\s*[ST]\d+\s*:\s*|\s+$|\(\d+\)\s*/u, "") end def tokenize(l) l.split /['·.;!:\s]+/u end $dict = {} $cpt = 0 $out = File.new 'out.txt', 'w' def lesson(file) $cpt = $cpt + 1 file.readlines.each do |l| $out.puts l l = prepare_line l tokenize(l).each do |t| unless $dict[t] $dict[t] = $cpt $out.puts " #{t}\n" end end end end Dir.new('etc/').each do |filename| f = File.new("etc/#{filename}") unless File.directory? f lesson f end end Here is part of my output : ?@???†?†?????????? ?...[snip very long hangul/hanzi mishmash]... ????????†? ???N2 : ?e?te?? (2) µ???µa (Note that the puts l part seems to work fine, at the end of the given output line.) Any idea what is wrong with my code ? (General comments about ruby idioms I could use are very welcome, I'm really a beginner.)

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• Help ! How do I get the total number rows from my SQL Server paging procedure ?

  - by The_AlienCoder

  Ok I have a table in my SQL Server database that stores comments. My desire is to be able to page though the records using [Back],[Next], page numbers & [Last] buttons in my data list. I figured the most efficient way was to use a stored procedure that only returns a certain number of rows within a particular range. Here is what I came up with @PageIndex INT, @PageSize INT, @postid int AS SET NOCOUNT ON begin WITH tmp AS ( SELECT comments.*, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY dateposted ASC) AS Row FROM comments WHERE (comments.postid = @postid)) SELECT tmp.* FROM tmp WHERE Row between (@PageIndex - 1) * @PageSize + 1 and @PageIndex*@PageSize end RETURN Now everything works fine and I have been able implement [Next] and [Back] buttons in my data list pager. Now I need the total number of all comments (not in the current page) so that I can implement my page numbers and the[Last] button on my pager. In other words I want to return the total number of rows in my first select statement i.e WITH tmp AS ( SELECT comments.*, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY dateposted ASC) AS Row FROM comments WHERE (comments.postid = @postid)) set @TotalRows = @@rowcount @@rowcount doesn't work and raises an error. I also cant get count.* to work either. Is there another way to get the total amount of rows or is my approach doomed.

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• SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

  - by Adam Kane

  In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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• C++ operator new, object versions, and the allocation sizes

  - by mizubasho

  Hi. I have a question about different versions of an object, their sizes, and allocation. The platform is Solaris 8 (and higher). Let's say we have programs A, B, and C that all link to a shared library D. Some class is defined in the library D, let's call it 'classD', and assume the size is 100 bytes. Now, we want to add a few members to classD for the next version of program A, without affecting existing binaries B or C. The new size will be, say, 120 bytes. We want program A to use the new definition of classD (120 bytes), while programs B and C continue to use the old definition of classD (100 bytes). A, B, and C all use the operator "new" to create instances of D. The question is, when does the operator "new" know the amount of memory to allocate? Compile time or run time? One thing I am afraid of is, programs B and C expect classD to be and alloate 100 bytes whereas the new shared library D requires 120 bytes for classD, and this inconsistency may cause memory corruption in programs B and C if I link them with the new library D. In other words, the area for extra 20 bytes that the new classD require may be allocated to some other variables by program B and C. Is this assumption correct? Thanks for your help.

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• Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

  - by rob - not a robber

  Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

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• Windows Service doesn't start process with different credentials

  - by Marcus

  I have a Windows Service, running as a user, that should start several processes under different user credentials. I'm using the following code to start a process: Dim winProcess As New System.Diagnostics.Process With winProcess .StartInfo.Arguments = "some_args" .StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = True .StartInfo.ErrorDialog = False .StartInfo.FileName = "C:\TEMP\ProcessFromService\ProcessFromService\bin\Debug\ProcessFromService.exe" .StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False .StartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden 'Opgave WorkingDirectory kan soms tot problemen leiden, indien betreffende directory 'niet bereikbaar (rechten) is voor opgegeven gebruiker. 'Beter dus om deze niet op te geven. '.StartInfo.WorkingDirectory = My.Computer.FileSystem.SpecialDirectories.Temp .StartInfo.Domain = "" .StartInfo.UserName = "MyUserId" Dim strPassword As String = "MyPassword" Dim ssPassword As New Security.SecureString For Each chrPassword As Char In strPassword.ToCharArray ssPassword.AppendChar(chrPassword) Next .StartInfo.Password = ssPassword .Start() End With The process is correctly started when I use the same credentials as of which the Windows Service is running under. The process is not started, without any error, when I use different credentials. In other words: If the Windows Service is running as UserA then I can start a process running as UserA. If the Windows Service is running as UserB then I can not start a process running as UserA. I have created a test project in which I can reproduce this problem. If you put this project in C:\Temp then the used paths will be correct. You can download this test project here: https://dl.dropboxusercontent.com/u/5391091/ProcessFromService.zip NB: I hope this info is enough to explain it. If you need more info, please let me know and I will add it.

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• Regular expression for dividing country calling codes

  - by RickiG

  Hi I have a list of calling codes for all countries(the phone number prefixes), I would like to split them up in the country name and the actual code so I can put then into an xml. I have tried back and forth but can not get a regexp going that takes all cases into account. I think it is fairly simple for someone with a bit of experience. The codes have these formats: Afghanistan 93 Anguilla 1 264 Antarctica 6721 Antigua and Barbuda 1 268 Bosnia and Herzegovina 387 Canada 1 Congo, Republic of the 242 Cote d'Ivoire 225 Ireland (Eire) 353 United States of America 1 There are around 235 of them in total, but these are the regulars and the exceptions. ^[a-zA-Z]\s,'()] for between 1 and X words and then it is [0-9\s]{1,5}$ for the numbers: X XX XXX XXXX X XXX So if I should express it as a sentence it would be: "from beginning of a line, take all characters (1) including space,'() until you encounter digits, then take all of these including space(2) until you encounter a line break." I am using TextMate, and the docs says: TextMate uses the Oniguruma regular expression library by K. Kosako. I would appreciate any help given:) Thank you.

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• copy entire row (without knowing field names)

  - by Todd Webb

  Using SQL Server 2008, I would like to duplicate one row of a table, without knowing the field names. My key issue: as the table grows and mutates over time, I would like this copy-script to keep working, without me having to write out 30+ ever-changing fields, ugh. Also at issue, of course, is IDENTITY fields cannot be copied. My code below does work, but I wonder if there's a more appropriate method than my thrown-together text string SQL statement? So thank you in advance. Here's my (yes, working) code - I welcome suggestions on improving it. Todd alter procedure spEventCopy @EventID int as begin -- VARS... declare @SQL varchar(8000) -- LIST ALL FIELDS (*EXCLUDE* IDENTITY FIELDS). -- USE [BRACKETS] FOR ANY SILLY FIELD-NAMES WITH SPACES, OR RESERVED WORDS... select @SQL = coalesce(@SQL + ', ', '') + '[' + column_name + ']' from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS where TABLE_NAME = 'EventsTable' and COLUMNPROPERTY(OBJECT_ID('EventsTable'), COLUMN_NAME, 'IsIdentity') = 0 -- FINISH SQL COPY STATEMENT... set @SQL = 'insert into EventsTable ' + ' select ' + @SQL + ' from EventsTable ' + ' where EventID = ' + ltrim(str(@EventID)) -- COPY ROW... exec(@SQL) -- REMEMBER NEW ID... set @EventID = @@IDENTITY -- (do other stuff here) -- DONE... -- JUST FOR KICKS, RETURN THE SQL STATEMENT SO I CAN REVIEW IT IF I WISH... select EventID = @EventID, SQL = @SQL end

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• delphi app freezes whole win7 system

  - by avar

  Hello i have a simple program that sorts a text file according to length of words per line this program works without problems in my xp based old machine now i run this program on my new win7/intel core i5 machine, it freezes whole system and back normal after it finishes it's work. i'v invastigated the code and found the line causing the freeze it was this specific line... caption := IntToStr(i) + '..' + IntTostr(ii); i'v changed it to caption := IntTostr(ii); //slow rate change and there is no freeze and then i'v changed it to caption := IntTostr(i); //fast rate change and it freeze again my main complete procedure code is var tword : widestring; i,ii,li : integer; begin tntlistbox1.items.LoadFromFile('d:\new folder\ch.txt'); tntlistbox2.items.LoadFromFile('d:\new folder\uy.txt'); For ii := 15 Downto 1 Do //slow change Begin For I := 0 To TntListBox1.items.Count - 1 Do //very fast change Begin caption := IntToStr(i) + '..' + IntTostr(ii); //problemetic line tword := TntListBox1.items[i]; LI := Length(tword); If lI = ii Then Begin tntlistbox3.items.Add(Trim(tntlistbox1.Items[i])); tntlistbox4.items.Add(Trim(tntlistbox2.Items[i])); End; End; End; end; any idea why ? and how to fix it? i use delphi 2007/win32

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• Java: extending Object class

  - by Fabio F.

  Hello, I'm writing (well, completing) an "extension" of Java which will help role programming. I translate my code to Java code with javacc. My compilers add to every declared class some code. Here's an example to be clearer: MyClass extends String implements ObjectWithRoles { //implements... is added /*Added by me */ public setRole(...){...} public ... /*Ends of stuff added*/ ...//myClass stuff } It adds Implements.. and the necessary methods to EVERY SINGLE CLASS you declare. Quite rough, isnt'it? It will be better if I write my methods in one class and all class extends that.. but.. if class already extends another class (just like the example)? I don't want to create a sort of wrapper that manage roles because i don't want that the programmer has to know much more than Java, few new reserved words and their use. My idea was to extends java.lang.Object.. but you can't. (right?) Other ideas? I'm new here, but I follow this site so thank you for reading and all the answers you give! (I apologize for english, I'm italian)

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• Multiple UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward not only false but make inferring the actual url impossi

  - by SG1

  I have a UIWebView and a UITextField for the url. Naturally, I want the textField to always show the current document url. This works fine for urls directly input in the field, but I also have some buttons attached to the view for reload, back, and forward. So I've added all the UIWebViewDelegate methods to my controller, so it can listen to whenever the webView navigates and change the url in the textField as needed. Here's how I'm using the shouldStartLoadWithRequest: method: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { NSLog(@"navigated via %d", navigationType); //loads the user cares about if ( navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked || navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward ) { //URL setting [self setUrlQuietly:request.URL]; } return YES; } Now, my problem here is that an actual click will generate a single navigation of type "LinkClicked" followed by a dozen type "Other" (redirects and ad loads I assume), which gets handled correctly by the code, but a back/forward action will generate all its requests as back/forward requests. In other words, a click calls setUrlQuietly: once, but a back/forward calls it multiple times. I am trying to use this method to determine if the user actually initiated the action (and I'd like to catch page redirects too). But if the method has no way of distinguishing between an actual "back" and a "load initiated as a result of a back", how can I make this assessment? Without this, I am completely stumped as to how I can only show the actual url and not intermediate urls. Thank you!

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• How is it legal to reference an undefined type inside a structure?

  - by paxdiablo

  As part of answering another question, I came across a piece of code like this, which gcc compiles without complaint. typedef struct { struct xyz *z; } xyz; int main (void) { return 0; } This is the means I've always used to construct types that point to themselves (e.g., linked lists) but I've always thought you had to name the struct so you could use self-reference. In other words, you couldn't use xyz *z within the structure because the typedef is not yet complete at that point. But this particular sample does not name the structure and it still compiles. I thought originally there was some black magic going on in the compiler that automatically translated the above code because the structure and typedef names were the same. But this little beauty works as well: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz *z; } xyz; What am I missing here? This seems a clear violation since there is no struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz type defined anywhere. When I change it from a pointer to an actual type, I get the expected error: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz z; } xyz; qqq.c:2: error: field `z' has incomplete type Also, when I remove the struct, I get an error (parse error before "NOTHING ...). Is this allowed in ISO C?

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• Building a control-flow graph from an AST with a visitor pattern using Java

  - by omegatai

  Hi guys, I'm trying to figure out how to implement my LEParserCfgVisitor class as to build a control-flow graph from an Abstract-Syntax-Tree already generated with JavaCC. I know there are tools that already exist, but I'm trying to do it in preparation for my Compilers final. I know I need to have a data structure that keeps the graph in memory, and I want to be able to keep attributes like IN, OUT, GEN, KILL in each node as to be able to do a control-flow analysis later on. My main problem is that I haven't figured out how to connect the different blocks together, as to have the right edge between each blocks depending on their nature: branch, loops, etc. In other words, I haven't found an explicit algorithm that could help me build my visitor. Here is my empty Visitor. You can see it works on basic langage expressions, like if, while and basic operations (+,-,x,^,...) public class LEParserCfgVisitor implements LEParserVisitor { public Object visit(SimpleNode node, Object data) { return data; } public Object visit(ASTProgram node, Object data) { data = node.childrenAccept(this, data); return data; } public Object visit(ASTBlock node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTStmt node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTAssignStmt node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTIOStmt node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTIfStmt node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTWhileStmt node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTAddExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTFactExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTMultExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTPowerExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTUnaryExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTBasicExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTFctExpr node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTRealValue node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTIntValue node, Object data) { } public Object visit(ASTIdentifier node, Object data) { } } Can anyone give me a hand? Thanks!

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• Python Multiword Index

  - by Manab Chetia

  index = {'Michael': [['mj.com',1], ['Nine.com',9],['i.com', 34]], / 'Jackson': [['One.com',4],['mj.com', 2],['Nine.com', 10], ['i.com', 45]], / 'Thriller' : [['Seven.com', 7], ['Ten.com',10], ['One.com', 5], ['mj.com',3]} # In this dictionary (index), for eg: 'KEYWORD': # [['THE LINK in which KEYWORD is present,'POSITION # of KEYWORD in the page specified by link']] eg: Michael is present in MJ.com, NINE.com, and i.com at positions 1, 9, 34 of respective pages. Please help me with a python procedure which takes index and KEYWORDS as input. When i enter 'MICHAEL'. The result should be: >>['mj.com', 'nine.com', 'i.com'] When I enter 'MICHAEL JACKSON'. The result should be : >>['mj.com', 'Nine.com'] as 'Michael' and 'Jackson' are present at 'mj.com' and 'nine.com' consecutively i.e. in positions (1,2) & (9,10) respectively. The result should not show 'i.com' even though it contains both KEYWORDS but they are not placed consecutively. When I enter 'MICHAEL JACKSON THRILLER', the result should be ['mj.com'] as the 3 words 'MICHAEL', 'JACKSON', 'THRILLER' are placed consecutively in 'mj.com' ie positions (1, 2, 3) respectively. If I enter 'THRILLER JACKSON' or 'THRILLER FEDERER', the result should be NONE.

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• How to parse phpDoc style comment block with php?

  - by Reveller

  Please consider the following code with which I'm trying to parse only the first phpDoc style comment (noy using any other libraries) in a file (file contents put in $data variable for testing purposes): $data = " /** * @file A lot of info about this file * Could even continue on the next line * @author [email protected] * @version 2010-05-01 * @todo do stuff... */ /** * Comment bij functie bar() * @param Array met dingen */ function bar($baz) { echo $baz; } "; $data = trim(preg_replace('/\r?\n *\* */', ' ', $data)); preg_match_all('/@([a-z]+)\s+(.*?)\s*(?=$|@[a-z]+\s)/s', $data, $matches); $info = array_combine($matches[1], $matches[2]); print_r($info) This almose works, except for the fact that everything after @todo (including the bar() comment block and code) is considered the value of @todo: Array ( [file] => A lot of info about this file Could even continue on the next line [author] => [email protected] [version] => 2010-05-01 [todo] => do stuff... / /** Comment bij functie bar() [param] => Array met dingen / function bar() { echo ; } ) How does my code need to be altered so that only the first comment block is being parsed (in other words: parsing should stop after the first "*/" encountered?

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• grabbing layer contents in a class

  - by Mike

  I have a custom UIImageView class that creates thumbnails (UIImageView) and each thumbnail has a label. The label is created by another class. The label class creates a UIImageView and a UITextView on top of it. This is the init object class' init method: - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ([super initWithFrame:frame] == nil) { return nil; } CGRect myFrame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100); myLabel = [[myLabelClass alloc] initWithFrame: myFrame]; //myLabelClass is a UIImageView based class [myLabel setCenter:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; [self addSubview: myLabel]; return self; } So, I have this MAIN VIEW CONTROLLER | |___ UIImageView WITH LABEL | |____ label background (UIView) |____ UITEXTVIEW (text) Now I want to write the contents of all these 3 components to a quartz context. I need to write using drawInRect, because I need to write the full object to a precise location. I expected object.layer.contents to be the image equivalent to these 3 "layers" flattened, in other words, the object's image, the label background and the label text, as it would if I created these 3 objects in Photoshop and flatten the composition. I also expect object.myLabel.layer.contents to contains the rendered contents of the UITextView over the label background. The problem is that when I use UIImage *myImage = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:objecto.myLabel.layer.contents]; [myImage drawInRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100)]; I get nothing. How can I obtain a "flattened" image resultant to the full object (including its subviews)? thanks

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