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  • How to parse an XML string in TDI

    - by ongle
    I am new to TDI. I have a TDI assembly line that calls a web service (ibmdi.InvokeSoapWS) which returns the result as a string in the work attribute 'xmlString'. I then have an AttributeMap that attempts to parse the xml and extract a value (the node it seeks is a few nodes deep). var parser = system.getParser('ibmdi.SOAP'); var xmlString = work.getString('xmlString'); var entity = parser.parseRequest(xmlString); task.dump(entity); The trouble is, the parsed object does not contain an accurate representation of the XML. It contains only two attributes, the first is correctly the first node following the soap body (e.g., ns0:SomeNodeReply), the second being a node inside the first (e.g., ns0:DetailCount). And as far as I can determine, both attributes are just strings so I cannot recurse into the object graph. Below is a sample soap reply: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <ns0:SomeNodeReply xmlns:ns0="http://xmlns.example.com/unique/default/namespace/1136581686664"> <ns0:Status> <ns0:StatusCD>000</ns0:StatusCD> <ns0:StatusDesc /> </ns0:Status> <ns0:DetailCount>1</ns0:DetailCount> <ns0:SomeDetail> <ns0:CodeA>Foo</ns0:CodeA> <ns0:CodeB>Bar</ns0:CodeB> </ns0:SomeDetail> </ns0:SomeNodeReply> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> And below is a sample dump of the parsed string: 19:03:23 CTGDIS003I *** Start dumping Entry 19:03:23 Operation: generic 19:03:23 Entry attributes: 19:03:23 SOAP_CALL (replace): 'ns0:SomeNodeReply' 19:03:23 ns0:DetailCount(replace): '1' 19:03:23 CTGDIS004I *** Finished dumping Entry All I really need to do is be able to parse out a value that may or may not be there, depending on the value of another node (e.g., DetailCount == 1, get CodeA otherwise return empty string). I am open to changing anything about how this works if I can extract the data into the work Entry.

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  • What is causing this SQL 2005 Primary Key Deadlock between two real-time bulk upserts?

    - by skimania
    Here's the scenario: I've got a table called MarketDataCurrent (MDC) that has live updating stock prices. I've got one process called 'LiveFeed' which reads prices streaming from the wire, queues up inserts, and uses a 'bulk upload to temp table then insert/update to MDC table.' (BulkUpsert) I've got another process which then reads this data, computes other data, and then saves the results back into the same table, using a similar BulkUpsert stored proc. Thirdly, there are a multitude of users running a C# Gui polling the MDC table and reading updates from it. Now, during the day when the data is changing rapidly, things run pretty smoothly, but then, after market hours, we've recently started seeing an increasing number of Deadlock exceptions coming out of the database, nowadays we see 10-20 a day. The imporant thing to note here is that these happen when the values are NOT changing. Here's all the relevant info: Table Def: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent]( [MDID] [int] NOT NULL, [LastUpdate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [Value] [float] NOT NULL, [Source] [varchar](20) NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MarketDataCurrent] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [MDID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] - stackoverflow wont let me post images until my reputation goes up to 10, so i'll add them as soon as you bump me up, hopefully as a result of this question. ![alt text][1] [1]: http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4049/4690759452_6b94ff7b34.jpg I've got a Sql Profiler Trace Running, catching the deadlocks, and here's what all the graphs look like. stackoverflow wont let me post images until my reputation goes up to 10, so i'll add them as soon as you bump me up, hopefully as a result of this question. ![alt text][2] [2]: http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4035/4690125231_78d84c9e15_b.jpg Process 258 is called the following 'BulkUpsert' stored proc, repeatedly, while 73 is calling the next one: ALTER proc [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent_BulkUpload] @updateTime datetime, @source varchar(10) as begin transaction update c with (rowlock) set LastUpdate = getdate(), Value = t.Value, Source = @source from MarketDataCurrent c INNER JOIN #MDTUP t ON c.MDID = t.mdid where c.lastUpdate < @updateTime and c.mdid not in (select mdid from MarketData where LiveFeedTicker is not null and PriceSource like 'LiveFeed.%') and c.value <> t.value insert into MarketDataCurrent with (rowlock) select MDID, getdate(), Value, @source from #MDTUP where mdid not in (select mdid from MarketDataCurrent with (nolock)) and mdid not in (select mdid from MarketData where LiveFeedTicker is not null and PriceSource like 'LiveFeed.%') commit And the other one: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent_LiveFeedUpload] AS begin transaction -- Update existing mdid UPDATE c WITH (ROWLOCK) SET LastUpdate = t.LastUpdate, Value = t.Value, Source = t.Source FROM MarketDataCurrent c INNER JOIN #TEMPTABLE2 t ON c.MDID = t.mdid; -- Insert new MDID INSERT INTO MarketDataCurrent with (ROWLOCK) SELECT * FROM #TEMPTABLE2 WHERE MDID NOT IN (SELECT MDID FROM MarketDataCurrent with (NOLOCK)) -- Clean up the temp table DELETE #TEMPTABLE2 commit To clarify, those Temp Tables are being created by the C# code on the same connection and are populated using the C# SqlBulkCopy class. To me it looks like it's deadlocking on the PK of the table, so I tried removing that PK and switching to a Unique Constraint instead but that increased the number of deadlocks 10-fold. I'm totally lost as to what to do about this situation and am open to just about any suggestion. HELP!!

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  • What to name 2 methods with same signatures

    - by coffeeaddict
    Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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  • Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

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  • Slow MySQL query....only sometimes

    - by Shane N
    I have a query that's used in a reporting system of ours that sometimes runs quicker than a second, and other times takes 1 to 10 minutes to run. Here's the entry from the slow query log: # Query_time: 543 Lock_time: 0 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 124948974 use statsdb; SELECT count(distinct Visits.visitorid) as 'uniques' FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime>=1275721200 and visittime<=1275807599 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9 AND Visits.visitorid NOT IN (SELECT Visits.visitorid FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime<1275721200 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9); It's basically counting unique visitors, and it's doing that by counting the visitors for today and then substracting those that have been here before. If you know of a better way to do this, let me know. I just don't understand why sometimes it can be so quick, and other times takes so long - even with the same exact query under the same server load. Here's the EXPLAIN on this query. As you can see it's using the indexes I've set up: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY Visits range visittime_visitorid,visitorid visittime_visitorid 4 NULL 82500 Using where; Using index 1 PRIMARY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visits ref visittime_visitorid,visitorid visitorid 8 func 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where I tried to optimize the query a few weeks ago and came up with a variation that consistently took about 2 seconds, but in practice it ended up taking more time since 90% of the time the old query returned much quicker. Two seconds per query is too long because we are calling the query up to 50 times per page load, with different time periods. Could the quick behavior be due to the query being saved in the query cache? I tried running 'RESET QUERY CACHE' and 'FLUSH TABLES' between my benchmark tests and I was still getting quick results most of the time. Note: last night while running the query I got an error: Unable to save result set. My initial research shows that may be due to a corrupt table that needs repair. Could this be the reason for the behavior I'm seeing? In case you want server info: Accessing via PHP 4.4.4 MySQL 4.1.22 All tables are InnoDB We run optimize table on all tables weekly The sum of both the tables used in the query is 500 MB MySQL config: key_buffer = 350M max_allowed_packet = 16M thread_stack = 128K sort_buffer = 14M read_buffer = 1M bulk_insert_buffer_size = 400M set-variable = max_connections=150 query_cache_limit = 1048576 query_cache_size = 50777216 query_cache_type = 1 tmp_table_size = 203554432 table_cache = 120 thread_cache_size = 4 wait_timeout = 28800 skip-external-locking innodb_file_per_table innodb_buffer_pool_size = 3512M innodb_log_file_size=100M innodb_log_buffer_size=4M

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  • JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

    - by tlind
    The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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  • how to refactor user-permission system?

    - by John
    Sorry for lengthy question. I can't tell if this should be a programming question or a project management question. Any advice will help. I inherited a reasonably large web project (1 year old) from a solo freelancer who architected it then abandoned it. The project was a mess, but I cleaned up what I could, and now the system is more maintainable. I need suggestions on how to extend the user-permission system. As it is now, the database has a t_user table with the column t_user.membership_type. Currently, there are 4 membership types with the following properties: 3 of the membership types are almost functionally the same, except for the different monthly fees each must pay 1 of the membership type is a "fake-user" type which has limited access ( different business logic also applies) With regards to the fake-user type, if you look in the system's business logic files, you will see a lot of hard-coded IF statements that do something like if (fake-user) { // do something } else { // a paid member of type 1,2 or 3 // proceed normally } My client asked me to add 3 more membership types to the system, each of them with unique features to be implemented this month, and substantive "to-be-determined" features next month. My first reaction is that I need to refactor the user-permission system. But it concerns me that I don't have enough information on the "to-be-determined" membership type features for next month. Refactoring the user-permission system will take a substantive amount of time. I don't want to refactor something and throw it out the following month. I get substantive feature requests on a monthly basis that come out of the blue. There is no project road map. I've asked my client to provide me with a roadmap of what they intend to do with the new membership types, but their answer is along the lines of "We just want to do [feature here] this month. We'll think of something new next month." So questions that come to mind are: 1) Is it dangerous for me to refactor the user permission system not knowing what membership type features exist beyond a month from now? 2) Should I refactor the user permission system regardless? Or just continue adding IF statements as needed in all my controller files? Or can you recommend a different approach to user permission systems? Maybe role-based ? 3) Should this project have a road map? For a 1 year old project like mine, how far into the future should this roadmap project? 4) Any general advice on the best way to add 3 new membership types?

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  • Patterns: Local Singleton vs. Global Singleton?

    - by Mike Rosenblum
    There is a pattern that I use from time to time, but I'm not quite sure what it is called. I was hoping that the SO community could help me out. The pattern is pretty simple, and consists of two parts: A singleton factory, which creates objects based on the arguments passed to the factory method. Objects created by the factory. So far this is just a standard "singleton" pattern or "factory pattern". The issue that I'm asking about, however, is that the singleton factory in this case maintains a set of references to every object that it ever creates, held within a dictionary. These references can sometimes be strong references and sometimes weak references, but it can always reference any object that it has ever created. When receiving a request for a "new" object, the factory first searches the dictionary to see if an object with the required arguments already exits. If it does, it returns that object, if not, it returns a new object and also stores a reference to the new object within the dictionary. This pattern prevents having duplicative objects representing the same underlying "thing". This is useful where the created objects are relatively expensive. It can also be useful where these objects perform event handling or messaging - having one object per item being represented can prevent multiple messages/events for a single underlying source. There are probably other reasons to use this pattern, but this is where I've found this useful. My question is: what to call this? In a sense, each object is a singleton, at least with respect to the data it contains. Each is unique. But there are multiple instances of this class, however, so it's not at all a true singleton. In my own personal terminology, I tend to call the factory method a "global singleton". I then call the created objects "local singletons". I sometimes also say that the created objects have "reference equality", meaning that if two variables reference the same data (the same underlying item) then the reference they each hold must be to the same exact object, hence "reference equality". But these are my own invented terms, and I am not sure that they are good ones. Is there standard terminology for this concept? And if not, could some naming suggestions be made? Thanks in advance...

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  • IOC/Autofac problem

    - by Krazzy
    I am currently using Autofac, but am open to commentary regarding other IOC containers as well. I would prefer a solution using Autofac if possible. I am also somewhat new to IOC so I may be grossly misunderstanding what I should be using an IOC container for. Basically, the situation is as follows: I have a topmost IOC container for my app. I have a tree of child containers/scopes where I would like the same "service" (IWhatever) to resolve differently depending on which level in the tree it is resolved. Furthermore if a service is not registered at some level in the tree I would like the tree to be transversed upward until a suitable implementation is found. Furthermore, when constructing a given component, it is quite possible that I will need access to the parent container/scope. In many cases the component that I'm registering will have a dependency on the same or a different service in a parent scope. Is there any way to express this dependency with Autofac? Something like: builder.Register(c=> { var parentComponent = ?.Resolve<ISomeService>(); var childComponent = new ConcreteService(parentComponent, args...); return childComponent; }).As<ISomeService>(); I can't get anything similar to the above pseudocode to work for serveral reasons: A) It seems that all levels in the scope tree share a common set of registrations. I can't seem to find a way to make a given registration confined a certain "scope". B) I can't seem to find a way to get a hold of the parent scope of a given scope. I CAN resolve ILifetimeScope in the container and then case it to a concrete LifetimeScope instance which provides its parent scope, but I'm guessing it is probably note meant to be used this way. Is this safe? C) I'm not sure how to tell Autofac which container owns the resolved object. For many components I would like component to be "owned" by the scope in which it is constructed. Could tagged contexts help me here? Would I have to tag every level of the tree with a unique tag? This would be difficult because the tree depth is determined at runtime. Sorry for the extremely lengthy question. In summary: 1) Is there any way to do what I want to do using Autofac? 2) Is there another container more suited to this kind of dependency structure? 3) Is IOC the wrong tool for this altogether?

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  • Change the Session Variable Output

    - by user567230
    Hello I am using Dreamweaver CS5 with Coldfusion 9 to build a dynamic website. I have a MS Access Database that stores login information which includes ID, FullName, FirstName, LastName, Username, Pawword, AcessLevels. My question is this: I currently have session variable to track the Username when it is entered into the login page. However I would like to use that Username to pull the User's FullName to display throughout the web pages and use for querying data. How do I change the session variable to read that when they are not entering their FullName on the login page but only Username and password. I have listed my login information code below if there is any additional information needed please let me know. This is the path for which the FullName values reside DataSource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" I want the FullName to be unique based on the Username submitted from the Login page. I apologize in advance for any rookie mistake I may have made I am new to this but learning fast! Ha. <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> <cfset MM_redirectLoginSuccess="members_page.cfm"> <cfset MM_redirectLoginFailed="sorry.cfm"> <cfquery name="MM_rsUser" datasource="Access"> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username=<cfqueryparam value="#FORM.username#" cfsqltype="cf_sql_clob" maxlength="50"> AND Password=<cfqueryparam value="#FORM.password#" cfsqltype="cf_sql_clob" maxlength="50"> </cfquery> <cfif MM_rsUser.RecordCount NEQ 0> <cftry> <cflock scope="Session" timeout="30" type="Exclusive"> <cfset Session.MM_Username=FORM.username> <cfset Session.MM_UserAuthorization=MM_rsUser.AccessLevels[1]> </cflock> <cfif IsDefined("URL.accessdenied") AND false> <cfset MM_redirectLoginSuccess=URL.accessdenied> </cfif> <cflocation url="#MM_redirectLoginSuccess#" addtoken="no"> <cfcatch type="Lock"> <!--- code for handling timeout of cflock ---> </cfcatch> </cftry> </cfif> <cflocation url="#MM_redirectLoginFailed#" addtoken="no"> <cfelse> <cfset MM_LoginAction=CGI.SCRIPT_NAME> <cfif CGI.QUERY_STRING NEQ ""> <cfset MM_LoginAction=MM_LoginAction & "?" & XMLFormat(CGI.QUERY_STRING)> </cfif> </cfif>

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  • small scale web site - global javascript file style/format/pattern - improving maintainability

    - by yaya3
    I frequently create (and inherit) small to medium websites where I have the following sort of code in a single file (normally named global.js or application.js or projectname.js). If functions get big, I normally put them in a seperate file, and call them at the bottom of the file below in the $(document).ready() section. If I have a few functions that are unique to certain pages, I normally have another switch statement for the body class inside the $(document).ready() section. How could I restructure this code to make it more maintainable? Note: I am less interested in the functions innards, more so the structure, and how different types of functions should be dealt with. I've also posted the code here - http://pastie.org/999932 in case it makes it any easier var ProjectNameEnvironment = {}; function someFunctionUniqueToTheHomepageNotWorthMakingConfigurable () { $('.foo').hide(); $('.bar').click(function(){ $('.foo').show(); }); } function functionThatIsWorthMakingConfigurable(config) { var foo = config.foo || 700; var bar = 200; return foo * bar; } function globallyRequiredJqueryPluginTrigger (tooltip_string) { var tooltipTrigger = $(tooltip_string); tooltipTrigger.tooltip({ showURL: false ... }); } function minorUtilityOneLiner (selector) { $(selector).find('li:even').not('li ul li').addClass('even'); } var Lightbox = {}; Lightbox.setup = function(){ $('li#foo a').attr('href','#alpha'); $('li#bar a').attr('href','#beta'); } Lightbox.init = function (config){ if (typeof $.fn.fancybox =='function') { Lightbox.setup(); var fade_in_speed = config.fade_in_speed || 1000; var frame_height = config.frame_height || 1700; $(config.selector).fancybox({ frameHeight : frame_height, callbackOnShow: function() { var content_to_load = config.content_to_load; ... }, callbackOnClose : function(){ $('body').height($('body').height()); } }); } else { if (ProjectNameEnvironment.debug) { alert('the fancybox plugin has not been loaded'); } } } // ---------- order of execution ----------- $(document).ready(function () { urls = urlConfig(); (function globalFunctions() { $('.tooltip-trigger').each(function(){ globallyRequiredJqueryPluginTrigger(this); }); minorUtilityOneLiner('ul.foo') Lightbox.init({ selector : 'a#a-lightbox-trigger-js', ... }); Lightbox.init({ selector : 'a#another-lightbox-trigger-js', ... }); })(); if ( $('body').attr('id') == 'home-page' ) { (function homeFunctions() { someFunctionUniqueToTheHomepageNotWorthMakingConfigurable (); })(); } });

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  • How does Sentry aggregate errors?

    - by Hugo Rodger-Brown
    I am using Sentry (in a django project), and I'd like to know how I can get the errors to aggregate properly. I am logging certain user actions as errors, so there is no underlying system exception, and am using the culprit attribute to set a friendly error name. The message is templated, and contains a common message ("User 'x' was unable to perform action because 'y'"), but is never exactly the same (different users, different conditions). Sentry clearly uses some set of attributes under the hood to determine whether to aggregate errors as the same exception, but despite having looked through the code, I can't work out how. Can anyone short-cut my having to dig further into the code and tell me what properties I need to set in order to manage aggregation as I would like? [UPDATE 1: event grouping] This line appears in sentry.models.Group: class Group(MessageBase): """ Aggregated message which summarizes a set of Events. """ ... class Meta: unique_together = (('project', 'logger', 'culprit', 'checksum'),) ... Which makes sense - project, logger and culprit I am setting at the moment - the problem is checksum. I will investigate further, however 'checksum' suggests that binary equivalence, which is never going to work - it must be possible to group instances of the same exception, with differenct attributes? [UPDATE 2: event checksums] The event checksum comes from the sentry.manager.get_checksum_from_event method: def get_checksum_from_event(event): for interface in event.interfaces.itervalues(): result = interface.get_hash() if result: hash = hashlib.md5() for r in result: hash.update(to_string(r)) return hash.hexdigest() return hashlib.md5(to_string(event.message)).hexdigest() Next stop - where do the event interfaces come from? [UPDATE 3: event interfaces] I have worked out that interfaces refer to the standard mechanism for describing data passed into sentry events, and that I am using the standard sentry.interfaces.Message and sentry.interfaces.User interfaces. Both of these will contain different data depending on the exception instance - and so a checksum will never match. Is there any way that I can exclude these from the checksum calculation? (Or at least the User interface value, as that has to be different - the Message interface value I could standardise.) [UPDATE 4: solution] Here are the two get_hash functions for the Message and User interfaces respectively: # sentry.interfaces.Message def get_hash(self): return [self.message] # sentry.interfaces.User def get_hash(self): return [] Looking at these two, only the Message.get_hash interface will return a value that is picked up by the get_checksum_for_event method, and so this is the one that will be returned (hashed etc.) The net effect of this is that the the checksum is evaluated on the message alone - which in theory means that I can standardise the message and keep the user definition unique. I've answered my own question here, but hopefully my investigation is of use to others having the same problem. (As an aside, I've also submitted a pull request against the Sentry documentation as part of this ;-)) (Note to anyone using / extending Sentry with custom interfaces - if you want to avoid your interface being use to group exceptions, return an empty list.)

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  • Several client waiting for the same event

    - by ff8mania
    I'm developing a communication API to be used by a lot of generic clients to communicate with a proprietary system. This proprietary system exposes an API, and I use a particular classes to send and wait messages from this system: obviously the system alert me that a message is ready using an event. The event is named OnMessageArrived. My idea is to expose a simple SendSyncMessage(message) method that helps the user/client to simply send a message and the method returns the response. The client: using ( Communicator c = new Communicator() ) { response = c.SendSync(message); } The communicator class is done in this way: public class Communicator : IDisposable { // Proprietary system object ExternalSystem c; String currentRespone; Guid currentGUID; private readonly ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent; private ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent2; String systemName = "system"; String ServerName = "server"; public Communicator() { _manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); //This methods are from the proprietary system API c = SystemInstance.CreateInstance(); c.Connect(systemName , ServerName); } private void ConnectionStarter( object data ) { c.OnMessageArrivedEvent += c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; _manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); c.OnMessageArrivedEvent-= c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; } public String SendSync( String Message ) { Thread _internalThread = new Thread(ConnectionStarter); _internalThread.Start(c); _manualResetEvent2 = new ManualResetEvent(false); String toRet; int messageID; currentGUID = Guid.NewGuid(); c.SendMessage(Message, "Request", currentGUID.ToString()); _manualResetEvent2.WaitOne(); toRet = currentRespone; return toRet; } void c_OnMessageArrivedEvent( int Id, string root, string guid, int TimeOut, out int ReturnCode ) { if ( !guid.Equals(currentGUID.ToString()) ) { _manualResetEvent2.Set(); ReturnCode = 0; return; } object newMessage; c.FetchMessage(Id, 7, out newMessage); currentRespone = newMessage.ToString(); ReturnCode = 0; _manualResetEvent2.Set(); } } I'm really noob in using waithandle, but my idea was to create an instance that sends the message and waits for an event. As soon as the event arrived, checks if the message is the one I expect (checking the unique guid), otherwise continues to wait for the next event. This because could be (and usually is in this way) a lot of clients working concurrently, and I want them to work parallel. As I implemented my stuff, at the moment if I run client 1, client 2 and client 3, client 2 starts sending message as soon as client 1 has finished, and client 3 as client 2 has finished: not what I'm trying to do. Can you help me to fix my code and get my target? Thanks!

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  • Is a many-to-many relationship with extra fields the right tool for my job?

    - by whichhand
    Previously had a go at asking a more specific version of this question, but had trouble articulating what my question was. On reflection that made me doubt if my chosen solution was correct for the problem, so this time I will explain the problem and ask if a) I am on the right track and b) if there is a way around my current brick wall. I am currently building a web interface to enable an existing database to be interrogated by (a small number of) users. Sticking with the analogy from the docs, I have models that look something like this: class Musician(models.Model): first_name = models.CharField(max_length=50) last_name = models.CharField(max_length=50) dob = models.DateField() class Album(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) class Instrument(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) Where I have one central table (Musician) and several tables of associated data that are related by either ForeignKey or OneToOneFields. Users interact with the database by creating filtering criteria to select a subset of Musicians based on data the data on the main or related tables. Likewise, the users can then select what piece of data is used to rank results that are presented to them. The results are then viewed initially as a 2 dimensional table with a single row per Musician with selected data fields (or aggregates) in each column. To give you some idea of scale, the database has ~5,000 Musicians with around 20 fields of related data. Up to here is fine and I have a working implementation. However, it is important that I have the ability for a given user to upload there own annotation data sets (more than one) and then filter and order on these in the same way they can with the existing data. The way I had tried to do this was to add the models: class UserDataSets(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) description = models.CharField(max_length=64) results = models.ManyToManyField(Musician, through='UserData') class UserData(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) dataset = models.ForeignKey(UserDataSets) score = models.IntegerField() class Meta: unique_together = (("artist", "dataset"),) I have a simple upload mechanism enabling users to upload a data set file that consists of 1 to 1 relationship between a Musician and their "score". Within a given user dataset each artist will be unique, but different datasets are independent from each other and will often contain entries for the same musician. This worked fine for displaying the data, starting from a given artist I can do something like this: artist = Musician.objects.get(pk=1) dataset = UserDataSets.objects.get(pk=5) print artist.userdata_set.get(dataset=dataset.pk) However, this approach fell over when I came to implement the filtering and ordering of query set of musicians based on the data contained in a single user data set. For example, I could easily order the query set based on all of the data in the UserData table like this: artists = Musician.objects.all().order_by(userdata__score) But that does not help me order by the results of a given single user dataset. Likewise I need to be able to filter the query set based on the "scores" from different user data sets (eg find all musicians with a score 5 in dataset1 and < 2 in dataset2). Is there a way of doing this, or am I going about the whole thing wrong?

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  • How do you select form elements in JQuery based upon an html table?

    - by Swoop
    I am working on some ASP.NET web forms which involves some dynamic generation, and I need to add some onClick helpers on the client side. I have a basic outline of something working, except for one huge problem. There are multiple HTML tables, each generated by a different ASP.NET web control. Each table can contain overlapping field names, which is causing a problem with my JQuery click event handlers. The click event handler is linking to unintended form fields in addition to the intended form field. I have provided a simplified sample version of the code below. This code is trying to set the value of textbox box1 when a particular radiobutton is selected in the table with id=thing1. Obviously, the jquery code will be triggered for the form fields in both tables. The tables are dynamically added to the webpage based upon different conditions. It is possible that no tables will be loaded, only 1 table, or both tables might load. In the future, other tables could be added. Each table comes from a different .net web control. Other than renaming the form fields to make sure they are unique across all user controls, is there a way to have JQuery act only on the intended form fields? In other words, could the table ID be incorporated into the JQuery code in a manner that does not become a nightmare to maintain later? <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("[id$=radio1_0]").click(function() { $("[id$=box1]").attr("value", ""); }); $("[id$=radio1_1]").click(function() { $("[id$=box1]").attr("value", "N/A"); }); </script> <table id="thing1"> <tr><td> <radiobuttonlist id="radio1"/> <listitem>yes</listitem> <listitem>no</listitem> </td></tr> <tr><td> <textbox id="box1"/> </td></tr> </table> <table id="thing2"> <tr><td> <radiobuttonlist id="radio1"/> <listitem>yes</listitem> <listitem>no</listitem> </td></tr> <tr><td> <textbox id="box1"/> </tr></td> </table>

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  • asp:Button is not calling server-side function

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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  • PHP running as a FastCGI application (php-cgi) - how to issue concurrent requests?

    - by Sbm007
    Some background information: I'm writing my own webserver in Java and a couple of days ago I asked on SO how exactly Apache interfaces with PHP, so I can implement PHP support. I learnt that FastCGI is the best approach (since mod_php is not an option). So I have looked at the FastCGI protocol specification and have managed to write a working FastCGI wrapper for my server. I have tested phpinfo() and it works, in fact all PHP functions seem to work just fine (posting data, sessions, date/time, etc etc). My webserver is able to serve requests concurrently (ie user1 can retrieve file1.html at the same time as user2 requesting some_large_binary_file.zip), it does this by spawning a new Java thread for each user request (terminating when completed or user connection with client is cancelled). However, it cannot deal with 2 (or more) FastCGI requests at the same time. What it does is, it queues them up, so when request 1 is completed immediately thereafter it starts processing request 2. I tested this with 2 PHP pages, one contains sleep(10) and the other phpinfo(). How would I go about dealing with multiple requests as I know it can be done (PHP under IIS runs as FastCGI and it can deal with multiple requests just fine). Some more info: I am coding under windows and my batch file used to execute php-cgi.exe contains: set PHP_FCGI_CHILDREN=8 set PHP_FCGI_MAX_REQUESTS=500 php-cgi.exe -b 9000 But it does not spawn 8 children, the service simply terminates after 500 requests. I have done research and from Wikipedia: Processing of multiple requests simultaneously is achieved either by using a single connection with internal multiplexing (ie. multiple requests over a single connection) and/or by using multiple connections Now clearly the multiple connections isn't working for me, as everytime a client requests something that involves FastCGI it creates a new socket to the FastCGI application, but it does not work concurrently (it queues them up instead). I know that internal multiplexing of FastCGI requests under the same connection is accomplished by issuing each unique FastCGI request with a different request ID. (also see the last 3 paragraphs of 'The Communication Protocol' heading in this article). I have not tested this, but how would I go about implementing that? I take it I need some kind of FastCGI Java thread which contains a Map of some sort and a static function which I can use to add requests to. Then in the Thread's run() function it would have a while loop and for every cycle it would check whether the Map contains new requests, if so it would assign them a request ID and write them to the FastCGI stream. And then wait for input etc etc, As you can see this becomes too complicated. Does anyone know the correct way of doing this? Or any thoughts at all? Thanks very much. Note, if required I can supply the code for my FastCGI wrapper.

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  • Accessing parent-level controls from inside a ComboBox's child controls

    - by eponymous23
    I have XAML similar to this: <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding SearchCriteria, Source={StaticResource model}}" SelectionChanged="cboSearchCriterionType_SelectionChanged"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Name="spCriterion" Orientation="Horizontal" Height="20"> <ComboBox Name="cboSearchCriterionType" Width="120" SelectionChanged="cboSearchCriterionType_SelectionChanged"> <ComboBox.Items> <ComboBoxItem IsSelected="True" Content="Anagram Match" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Pattern Match" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Subanagram Match" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Length" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Number of Vowels" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Number of Anagrams" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Number of Unique Letters" /> </ComboBox.Items> </ComboBox> <TextBox x:Name="SearchSpec" Text="{Binding SearchSpec}" /> <TextBox x:Name="MinValue" Text="{Binding MinValue}" Visibility="Collapsed" /> <TextBox x:Name="MaxValue" Text="{Binding MaxValue}" Visibility="Collapsed" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> As you can tell from the markup, I have a listbox that is bound to a collection of SearchCriterion objects (collectively contained in a SearchCriteria object). The idea is that the user can add/remove criterion items from the criteria, each criterion is represented by a listbox item. Inside the listbox item I have a combobox and three textboxes. What I'm trying to do is change the visibility of the TextBox controls depending on the item that is selected in the ComboBox. For example, if the user selects "Pattern Match" then I want to show only the first textbox and hide the latter two; conversely, if the user selects "Length" or any of the "Number of..." items, then I want to hide the first TextBox and show the latter two. What is the best way to achieve this? I was hoping to do something simple in the SelectionChanged event handler for the listbox but the textbox controls are presumably out of the SelectionChanged event's scope. Do I have to programmatically traverse the control hierarchy and find the controls?

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  • Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

    - by Tony A.
    I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

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  • Casting objects in C# (ASP.Net MVC)

    - by Mortanis
    I'm coming from a background in ColdFusion, and finally moving onto something modern, so please bear with me. I'm running into a problem casting objects. I have two database tables that I'm using as Models - Residential and Commercial. Both of them share the majority of their fields, though each has a few unique fields. I've created another class as a container that contains the sum of all property fields. Query the Residential and Commercial, stuff it into my container, cunningly called Property. This works fine. However, I'm having problems aliasing the fields from Residential/Commercial onto Property. It's quite easy to create a method for each property: fillPropertyByResidential(Residential source) and fillPropertyByCommercial(Commercial source), and alias the variables. That also works fine, but quite obviously will copy a bunch of code - all those fields that are shared between the two main Models. So, I'd like a generic fillPropertyBySource() that takes the object, and detects if it's Residential or Commercial, fills the particular fields of each respective type, then do all the fields in common. Except, I gather in C# that variables created inside an If are only in the scope of the if, so I'm not sure how to do this. public property fillPropertyBySource(object source) { property prop = new property(); if (source is Residential) { Residential o = (Residential)source; //Fill Residential only fields } else if (source is Commercial) { Commercial o = (Commercial)source; //Fill Commercial only fields } //Fill fields shared by both prop.price = (int)o.price; prop.bathrooms = (float)o.bathrooms; return prop; } "o" being a Commercial or Residential only exists within the scope of the if. How do I detect the original type of the source object and take action? Bear with me - the shift from ColdFusion into a modern language is pretty..... difficult. More so since I'm used to procedural code and MVC is a massive paradigm shift. Edit: I should include the error: The name 'o' does not exist in the current context For the aliases of price and bathrooms in the shared area.

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  • User has many computers, computers have many attributes in different tables, best way to JOIN?

    - by krismeld
    I have a table for users: USERS: ID | NAME | ---------------- 1 | JOHN | 2 | STEVE | a table for computers: COMPUTERS: ID | USER_ID | ------------------ 13 | 1 | 14 | 1 | a table for processors: PROCESSORS: ID | NAME | --------------------------- 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | and a table for harddrives: HARDDRIVES: ID | NAME | ---------------------------| 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 36 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 90 | Each computer can have many attributes from the different attributes tables (processors, harddrives etc), so I have intersection tables like this, to link the attributes to the computers: COMPUTER_PROCESSORS: C_ID | P_ID | --------------| 13 | 27 | 13 | 28 | 14 | 27 | COMPUTER_HARDDRIVES: C_ID | H_ID | --------------| 13 | 35 | So user JOHN, with id 1 owns computer 13 and 14. Computer 13 has processor 27 and 28, and computer 13 has harddrive 35. Computer 14 has processor 27 and no harddrive. Given a user's id, I would like to retrieve a list of that user's computers with each computers attributes. I have figured out a query that gives me a somewhat of a result: SELECT computers.id, processors.id AS p_id, processors.name AS p_name, harddrives.id AS h_id, harddrives.name AS h_name, FROM computers JOIN computer_processors ON (computer_processors.c_id = computers.id) JOIN processors ON (processors.id = computer_processors.p_id) JOIN computer_harddrives ON (computer_harddrives.c_id = computers.id) JOIN harddrives ON (harddrives.id = computer_harddrives.h_id) WHERE computers.user_id = 1 Result: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | But this has several problems... Computer 14 doesnt show up, because it has no harddrive. Can I somehow make an OUTER JOIN to make sure that all computers show up, even if there a some attributes they don't have? Computer 13 shows up twice, with the same harddrive listet for both. When more attributes are added to a computer (like 3 blocks of ram), the number of rows returned for that computer gets pretty big, and it makes it had to sort the result out in application code. Can I somehow make a query, that groups the two returned rows together? Or a query that returns NULL in the h_name column in the second row, so that all values returned are unique? EDIT: What I would like to return is something like this: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | NULL | 14 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | NULL | NULL | Or whatever result that make it easy to turn it into an array like this [13] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1 [1] => PROCESSOR TYPE 2 [H_NAME] => [0] => HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 [14] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1

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  • Robust way to save/load objects with dependencies?

    - by mrteacup
    I'm writing an Android game in Java and I need a robust way to save and load application state quickly. The question seems to apply to most OO languages. To understand what I need to save: I'm using a Strategy pattern to control my game entities. The idea is I have a very general Entity class which e.g. stores the location of a bullet/player/enemy and I then attach a Behaviour class that tells the entity how to act: class Entiy { float x; float y; Behavior b; } abstract class Behavior { void update(Entity e); {} // Move about at a constant speed class MoveBehavior extends Behavior { float speed; void update ... } // Chase after another entity class ChaseBehavior extends Behavior { Entity target; void update ... } // Perform two behaviours in sequence class CombineBehavior extends Behavior { Behaviour a, b; void update ... } Essentially, Entity objects are easy to save but Behaviour objects can have a semi-complex graph of dependencies between other Entity objects and other Behaviour objects. I also have cases where a Behaviour object is shared between entities. I'm willing to change my design to make saving/loading state easier, but the above design works really well for structuring the game. Anyway, the options I've considered are: Use Java serialization. This is meant to be really slow in Android (I'll profile it sometime). I'm worried about robustness when changes are made between versions however. Use something like JSON or XML. I'm not sure how I would cope with storing the dependencies between objects however. Would I have to give each object a unique ID and then use these IDs on loading to link the right objects together? I thought I could e.g. change the ChaseBehaviour to store a ID to an entity, instead of a reference, that would be used to look up the Entity before performing the behaviour. I'd rather avoid having to write lots of loading/saving code myself as I find it really easy to make mistakes (e.g. forgetting to save something, reading things out in the wrong order). Can anyone give me any tips on good formats to save to or class designs that make saving state easier?

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  • How to give the First image in a gallery a different class than the rest of the images - Carrierwave

    - by ChrisBedoya
    I have a model called "Photo" that belongs to a model called "Shoe". I using Carrierwave to upload multiple images. index.html.erb <% shoes.each do |shoe| %> <div class="shoe"> <div class="gallery"> <% shoe.photos.each do |photo| %> <%= link_to image_tag(photo.photo_file.url(:thumb).to_s), photo.photo_file.url.to_s, :class => 'fancybox', :rel => 'gallery' %> <% end %> </div> </div> <% end %> Outputs this: <div class="shoe"> <div class="gallery"> <a class="fancybox" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> <a class="fancybox" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> <a class="fancybox" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> </div> </div> But I want the first image of each gallery to be able to have its own class and the rest of the images to have their own class. Something like this: <a class="firstclass" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> <a class="fancybox" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> <a class="fancybox" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> How can I do this? Also I want each gallery to have its own unique id but when I try to add this: :rel => 'gallery<%= shoe.id %>' I get a Syntax error. Thanks.

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  • Django save_m2m() and excluded field

    - by jul
    hi, in a ModelForm I replaced a field by excluding it and adding a new one with the same name, as shown below in AddRestaurantForm. When saving the form with the code shown below, I get an error in form.save_m2m() ("Truncated incorrect DOUBLE value"), which seems to be due to the function to attempt to save the tag field, while it is excluded. Is the save_m2m() function supposed to save excluded fields? Is there anything wrong in my code? Thanks Jul (...) new_restaurant = form.save(commit=False) new_restaurant.city = city new_restaurant.save() tags = form.cleaned_data['tag'] if(tags!=''): tags=tags.split(',') for t in tags: tag, created = Tag.objects.get_or_create(name = t.strip()) tag.save() new_restaurant.tag.add(tag) new_restaurant.save() form.save_m2m() models.py class Tag(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=100, unique=True) class Restaurant(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=50) city=models.ForeignKey(City) category=models.ManyToManyField(Category) tag=models.ManyToManyField(Tag, blank=True, null=True) forms.py class AddRestaurantForm(ModelForm): name = forms.CharField(widget=forms.TextInput(attrs=classtext)) city = forms.CharField(widget=forms.TextInput(attrs=classtext), max_length=100) tag = forms.CharField(widget=forms.TextInput(attrs=classtext), required=False) class Meta: model = Restaurant exclude = ('city','tag') Traceback: File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/core/handlers/base.py" in get_response 92. response = callback(request, *callback_args, **callback_kwargs) File "/home/jul/atable/../atable/resto/views.py" in addRestaurant 498. form.save_m2m() File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/forms/models.py" in save_m2m 75. f.save_form_data(instance, cleaned_data[f.name]) File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/db/models/fields/ related.py" in save_form_data 967. setattr(instance, self.attname, data) File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/db/models/fields/ related.py" in set 627. manager.add(*value) File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/db/models/fields/ related.py" in add 430. self._add_items(self.source_col_name, self.target_col_name, *objs) File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/db/models/fields/ related.py" in _add_items 497. [self._pk_val] + list(new_ids)) File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/db/backends/util.py" in execute 19. return self.cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/django/db/backends/mysql/ base.py" in execute 84. return self.cursor.execute(query, args) File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/MySQLdb/cursors.py" in execute 168. if not self._defer_warnings: self._warning_check() File "/var/lib/python-support/python2.5/MySQLdb/cursors.py" in _warning_check 82. warn(w[-1], self.Warning, 3) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/warnings.py" in warn 62. globals) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/warnings.py" in warn_explicit 102. raise message Exception Type: Warning at /restaurant/add/ Exception Value: Truncated incorrect DOUBLE value: 'a'

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  • meteor mongodb _id changing after insert (and UUID property as well)

    - by lommaj
    I have meteor method that does an insert. Im using Regulate.js for form validation. I set the game_id field to Meteor.uuid() to create a unique value that I also route to /game_show/:game_id using iron router. As you can see I'm logging the details of the game, this works fine. (image link to log below) Meteor.methods({ create_game_form : function(data){ Regulate.create_game_form.validate(data, function (error, data) { if (error) { console.log('Server side validation failed.'); } else { console.log('Server side validation passed!'); // Save data to database or whatever... //console.log(data[0].value); var new_game = { game_id: Meteor.uuid(), name : data[0].value, game_type: data[1].value, creator_user_id: Meteor.userId(), user_name: Meteor.user().profile.name, created: new Date() }; console.log("NEW GAME BEFORE INSERT: ", new_game); GamesData.insert(new_game, function(error, new_id){ console.log("GAMES NEW MONGO ID: ", new_id) var game_data = GamesData.findOne({_id: new_id}); console.log('NEW GAME AFTER INSERT: ', game_data); Session.set('CURRENT_GAME', game_data); }); } }); } }); All of the data coming out of the console.log at this point works fine After this method call the client routes to /game_show/:game_id Meteor.call('create_game_form', data, function(error){ if(error){ return alert(error.reason); } //console.log("post insert data for routing variable " ,data); var created_game = Session.get('CURRENT_GAME'); console.log("Session Game ", created_game); Router.go('game_show', {game_id: created_game.game_id}); }); On this view, I try to load the document with the game_id I just inserted Template.game_start.helpers({ game_info: function(){ console.log(this.game_id); var game_data = GamesData.find({game_id: this.game_id}); console.log("trying to load via UUID ", game_data); return game_data; } }); sorry cant upload images... :-( https://www.evernote.com/shard/s21/sh/c07e8047-de93-4d08-9dc7-dae51668bdec/a8baf89a09e55f8902549e79f136fd45 As you can see from the image of the console log below, everything matches the id logged before insert the id logged in the insert callback using findOne() the id passed in the url However the mongo ID and the UUID I inserted ARE NOT THERE, the only document in there has all the other fields matching except those two! Not sure what im doing wrong. Thanks!

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