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  • Minutia on Objective-C Categories and Extensions.

    - by Matt Wilding
    I learned something new while trying to figure out why my readwrite property declared in a private Category wasn't generating a setter. It was because my Category was named: // .m @interface MyClass (private) @property (readwrite, copy) NSArray* myProperty; @end Changing it to: // .m @interface MyClass () @property (readwrite, copy) NSArray* myProperty; @end and my setter is synthesized. I now know that Class Extension is not just another name for an anonymous Category. Leaving a Category unnamed causes it to morph into a different beast: one that now gives compile-time method implementation enforcement and allows you to add ivars. I now understand the general philosophies underlying each of these: Categories are generally used to add methods to any class at runtime, and Class Extensions are generally used to enforce private API implementation and add ivars. I accept this. But there are trifles that confuse me. First, at a hight level: Why differentiate like this? These concepts seem like similar ideas that can't decide if they are the same, or different concepts. If they are the same, I would expect the exact same things to be possible using a Category with no name as is with a named Category (which they are not). If they are different, (which they are) I would expect a greater syntactical disparity between the two. It seems odd to say, "Oh, by the way, to implement a Class Extension, just write a Category, but leave out the name. It magically changes." Second, on the topic of compile time enforcement: If you can't add properties in a named Category, why does doing so convince the compiler that you did just that? To clarify, I'll illustrate with my example. I can declare a readonly property in the header file: // .h @interface MyClass : NSObject @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end Now, I want to head over to the implementation file and give myself private readwrite access to the property. If I do it correctly: // .m @interface MyClass () @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end I get a warning when I don't synthesize, and when I do, I can set the property and everything is peachy. But, frustratingly, if I happen to be slightly misguided about the difference between Category and Class Extension and I try: // .m @interface MyClass (private) @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end The compiler is completely pacified into thinking that the property is readwrite. I get no warning, and not even the nice compile error "Object cannot be set - either readonly property or no setter found" upon setting myString that I would had I not declared the readwrite property in the Category. I just get the "Does not respond to selector" exception at runtime. If adding ivars and properties is not supported by (named) Categories, is it too much to ask that the compiler play by the same rules? Am I missing some grand design philosophy?

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  • JQuery Validation - Wrap offending field in a div.

    - by Samuurai
    Hi, It's my first time using StackOverFlow and first time trying to set up jQuery Validation. It's displaying <label> tags with the error messages as default behaviour, however the way my CSS is set up I need a div to wrap around the offending element and a message display in <p> tags. Without errors, my html looks like this: <div class="grid-26 append-2"> <p class="noMarginBottom"> <label>First Name</label> <div class="jNiceInputWrapper"> <div class="jNiceInputInner"> <input type="text" class="text jNiceInput" name="name"/> </div> </div> </p> <span class="clear"/> </div> And with Errors, it needs to look like this - Note the div with class "error" and the <p> tag. <div class="grid-26 append-2"> <div class="error"> <p>Please write your real name</p> <p class="noMarginBottom"> <label>First Name</label> <div class="jNiceInputWrapper"> <div class="jNiceInputInner"> <input type="text" class="text jNiceInput" name="name"/> </div> </div> </p> <span class="clear"/> </div> </div> My Validation code is very basic. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#contact_form").validate({ rules:{ name: { required: true } } }); }); This is my first venture into jQuery and form validation, so I'll be the first to say "I'm lost!" any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • jQuery multiple class selection

    - by morpheous
    I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

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  • Why doesn't TextBlock databinding call ToString() on a property whose compile-time type is an interf

    - by Jay
    This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

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  • Problem with character encoding on email sent via PHP?

    - by cosgrove
    Hi everybody, Having some trouble sending properly formatted HTML e-mail from a PHP script. I am running PHP 5.3.0 and Apache 2.2.11 on Windows XP Professional. The output looks like this: Agent Summary for Support on Tuesday April 20 2010=20 Ext. Name Time Volume 137 Agent Name 01:27:25 1 138 =09 00:00:00 0 139 =09 00:00:00 0 You see the =20 and =09 in there? If you look at the HTML you also see = signs being turned into =3D. I figure this is a character encoding issue as I read the following at Wikipedia: ISO-8859-1 and Windows-1252 confusion It is very common to mislabel text data with the charset label ISO-8859-1, even though the data is really Windows-1252 encoded. In Windows-1252, codes between 0x80 and 0x9F are used for letters and punctuation, whereas they are control codes in ISO-8859-1. Many web browsers and e-mail clients will interpret ISO-8859-1 control codes as Windows-1252 characters in order to accommodate such mislabeling but it is not standard behaviour and care should be taken to avoid generating these characters in ISO-8859-1 labeled content. This looks like the problem but I don't know how to fix. My code looks like this: ob_start(); report_queue_summary($yesterday,$yesterday,$first_extension,$last_extension,$queue); $body_report = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $body_footer = "This is an automatically generated e-mail."; $message = new Mail_mime(); $html = $body_header.$body_report.$body_footer; $message->setHTMLBody($html); $body = $message->get(); $extraheaders = array("From"=>"***redacted***","To"=>$recipient, "Subject"=>"Agent Summary for $yesterday [$queue]", "Content-type"=>"text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"); $headers = $message->headers($extraheaders); # setup e-mail; $host = "*********"; $port = "26"; $username = "*****"; $password = "*****"; # Send e-mail $smtp = Mail::factory('smtp', array ('host' => $host, 'port' => $port, 'auth' => true, 'username' => $username, 'password' => $password)); $mail = $smtp->send($recipient, $extraheaders, $body); if (PEAR::isError($mail)) { echo("" . $mail->getMessage() . ""); } else { echo("Message successfully sent!"); } Is the problem that I'm using output buffering?

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  • Mac Safari randomly recreating cookie when I refresh my login screen. Very bizarre

    - by mcintyre321
    We have found an issue in our app where Safari on the Mac randomly recreates a login cookie from a logged off session. I have a fiddler archive with this behaviour here. Note that some stuff has been removed from this to make it easier to get, but nothing which sets a cookie or anything has been taken out - only repetitions of requests 3-8. I'll talk you through the running order Request 1: user logs out via call to /logout.aspx - Set-Cookie returned setting cookie expiry date to 1999 Requests 2-8: user refreshes login page sending calls to root or /res/en-US/s.js - no cookie is sent to server or received back, and access is denied. I have cut out a lot of requests of this nature from the log as they are boring Request 9: request for /res/en-US/s.js - Hv3 authentication cookie has mysteriously reappeared! Wat. There was NO set-cookie! WTFF! Request 10+ : now the cookie has reappeared, the site logs the user in AGAIN The cookie, when examined in Safari looks like <dict> <key>Created</key> <real>259603523.26834899</real> <key>Domain</key> <string>.mysite.dev</string> <key>Expires</key> <date>2010-03-24T16:05:22Z</date> <key>HttpOnly</key> <string>TRUE</string> <key>Name</key> <string>.Hv3</string> <key>Path</key> <string>/</string> </dict> One thing to note is that in Safari, the cookie domain is .mysite.dev not mysite.dev (which is the cookie domain specified in web.config) - however, given that access is denied in requests 2-8, it looks like the cookie has expired OK. If you look in the list of cookies in the browser during 2-8, the .Hv3 cookie is not there. Is this our bug or Safari's? What can I do to stop it happening?

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  • Separation of domain and ui layer in a composite

    - by hansmaad
    Hi all, i'm wondering if there is a pattern how to separate the domain logic of a class from the ui responsibilities of the objects in the domain layer. Example: // Domain classes interface MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) // Where do we put these: // Draw(Screen) ?? // ShowProperties(View) ?? // ... } class Assembly : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) subParts } class Pipe : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) length, diamater... } There is an application that calculates the value X for machines assembled from many machine parts. The assembly is loaded from a file representation and is designed as a composite. Each concrete part class stores some data to implement the CalculateX(in,out) method to simulate behaviour of the whole assembly. The application runs well but without GUI. To increase the usability a GUi should be developed on top of the existing implementation (changes to the existing code are allowed). The GUI should show a schematic graphical representation of the assembly and provide part specific dialogs to edit several parameters. To achieve these goals the application needs new functionality for each machine part to draw a schematic representation on the screen, show a property dialog and other things not related to the domain of machine simulation. I can think of some different solutions to implement a Draw(Screen) functionality for each part but i am not happy with each of them. First i could add a Draw(Screen) method to the MachinePart interface but this would mix-up domain code with ui code and i had to add a lot of functionality to each machine part class what makes my domain model hard to read and hard to understand. Another "simple" solution is to make all parts visitable and implement ui code in visitors but Visitor does not belong to my favorite patterns. I could derive UI variants from each machine part class to add the UI implementation there but i had to check if each part class is suited for inheritance and had to be careful on changes to the base classes. My currently favorite design is to create a parallel composite hierarchy where each component stores data to define a machine part, has implementation for UI methods and a factory method which creates instances of the corresponding domain classes, so that i can "convert" a UI assembly to a domain assembly. But there are problems to go back from the created domain hierarchy to the UI hierarchy for showing calculation results in the drawing for example (imagine some parts store some values during the calculation i want to show in the schematic representation after the simluation). Maybe there are some proven patterns for such problems?

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  • how to avoid clutch billiard balls?

    - by Nait87
    I'm working on the simple behaviour of billiard balls in a collision with each other. All works normal, but there was a problem when facing a few easy balls is the effect of coupling balls and they're cool with each other. Tell me how to prevent this. bool MGBilliard::CollisingBall(CCPoint curr_point, CCPoint next_point) { float dx = next_point.x - (curr_point.x + dvdt.x); float dy = next_point.y - (curr_point.y - dvdt.y); float d = dx*dx+dy*dy; return d <= BALL_RADIUS * BALL_RADIUS; } double MGBilliard::angleCollisionBalls(Ball* current, Ball* next) { double na; double dx = fabs(next->location.x - current->location.x); double dy = fabs(next->location.y - current->location.y); na = atan(fabs(dy/dx)); if(atan(fabs(current->location.y/current->location.x)) < atan(fabs(next->location.y/next->location.x))) na = current->angle - na; else if(atan(fabs(current->location.y/current->location.x)) > atan(fabs(next->location.y/next->location.x))) na = current->angle + na; return na; } for(unsigned int i = 0;i<BALL_COUNT;++i) { if(vBalls[i]->speed > 0){ vBalls[i]->speed += vBalls[i]->acceleration; float dsdt = vBalls[i]->speed*dt; dvdt.x = dsdt*cos(vBalls[i]->angle); dvdt.y = dsdt*sin(vBalls[i]->angle); vBalls[i]->location.x += dvdt.x; vBalls[i]->location.y += dvdt.y; for(unsigned int j = 1; j < BALL_COUNT; ++j) { if(i == j) continue; if(CollisingBall(vBalls[i]->spriteBall->getPosition(),vBalls[j]->spriteBall->getPosition())) { vBalls[j]->speed = 600; double angle; angle = angleCollisionBalls(vBalls[i],vBalls[j]); vBalls[i]->angle = (float)-angle; vBalls[j]->angle = (float)angle; } } } }

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  • Directly Jump to another C++ function

    - by maligree
    I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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  • When mocking a class with Moq, how can I CallBase for just specific methods?

    - by Daryn
    I really appreciate Moq's Loose mocking behaviour that returns default values when no expectations are set. It's convenient and saves me code, and it also acts as a safety measure: dependencies won't get unintentionally called during the unit test (as long as they are virtual). However, I'm confused about how to keep these benefits when the method under test happens to be virtual. In this case I do want to call the real code for that one method, while still having the rest of the class loosely mocked. All I have found in my searching is that I could set mock.CallBase = true to ensure that the method gets called. However, that affects the whole class. I don't want to do that because it puts me in a dilemma about all the other properties and methods in the class that hide call dependencies: if CallBase is true then I have to either Setup stubs for all of the properties and methods that hide dependencies -- Even though my test doesn't think it needs to care about those dependencies, or Hope that I don't forget to Setup any stubs (and that no new dependencies get added to the code in the future) -- Risk unit tests hitting a real dependency. Q: With Moq, is there any way to test a virtual method, when I mocked the class to stub just a few dependencies? I.e. Without resorting to CallBase=true and having to stub all of the dependencies? Example code to illustrate (uses MSTest, InternalsVisibleTo DynamicProxyGenAssembly2) In the following example, TestNonVirtualMethod passes, but TestVirtualMethod fails - returns null. public class Foo { public string NonVirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA(); } public virtual string VirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA();} internal virtual string GetDependencyA() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency A !"; } // [... Possibly many other dependencies ...] internal virtual string GetDependencyN() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency N !"; } } [TestClass] public class UnitTest1 { [TestMethod] public void TestNonVirtualMethod() { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); string result = mockFoo.Object.NonVirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } [TestMethod] public void TestVirtualMethod() // Fails { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); // (I don't want to setup GetDependencyB ... GetDependencyN here) string result = mockFoo.Object.VirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } string expectedResultString = "Hit mock dependency A - OK"; }

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  • Getting the value from asp:LinkButton's CommandArgument attribute using jquery/javascript

    - by LobalOrning
    I need to get the value of the CommandArgument attribute of a LinkButton, in an asp:Repeater. I have an asp:Repeater with 2 LinkButtons whose CommandArgument I set to a value: <ItemTemplate> <tr class="odd"> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "batch_id")%></td> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "productId")%></td> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "serial_number")%></td> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "activation_card_number")%></td> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "transaction_amount","{0:C}")%></td> <td><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "response_dt", "{0:M/d/yyyy HH:mm:ss}")%></td> <td style="text-align:center;"><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "resp_process_msg")%></td> <td style="text-align:center;"><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "resp_response_code")%></td> <td style="text-align:center;"><asp:LinkButton ID="lnkBtnRestageAdd" CommandName="Add" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("activation_card_number")%>' runat="server" Text="stage" class="add" OnClientClick="return false;" /></td> <td style="text-align:center;"><asp:LinkButton ID="lnkBtnRestageMinus" CommandName="Subtract" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("activation_card_number")%>' runat="server" Text="stage" class="minus" OnClientClick="return false;" /></td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> I have suppressed the PostBack with OnClientClick="return false;" so that I can pop a jQuery dialog modal when the link buttons get clicked: if (btnAdd != null) { $(".add").click(function() { $("#<%=divDialogAdd.ClientID %>").removeAttr("style"); $("#<%=divDialogAdd.ClientID %>").dialog("open"); }); } In the modal I have 2 other asp:LinkButtons, and when the 'Yes' button is clicked I do the postback like so: yesBtn.click(function() { setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'btnAdd\',\'\')', 0); //need to add a param }); What I need to do, is somehow grab the CommandArgument value from the LinkButton in the Repeater, so that I can pass that as a parametere or assign it to a hidden field. I have tried jQuery's attr(), but that only works when the attribute was set using that function as well. How can I get this value, or what other way can I go about this?

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  • Distinguishing between failure and end of file in read loop

    - by celtschk
    The idiomatic loop to read from an istream is while (thestream >> value) { // do something with value } Now this loop has one problem: It will not distinguish if the loop terminated due to end of file, or due to an error. For example, take the following test program: #include <iostream> #include <sstream> void readbools(std::istream& is) { bool b; while (is >> b) { std::cout << (b ? "T" : "F"); } std::cout << " - " << is.good() << is.eof() << is.fail() << is.bad() << "\n"; } void testread(std::string s) { std::istringstream is(s); is >> std::boolalpha; readbools(is); } int main() { testread("true false"); testread("true false tr"); } The first call to testread contains two valid bools, and therefore is not an error. The second call ends with a third, incomplete bool, and therefore is an error. Nevertheless, the behaviour of both is the same. In the first case, reading the boolean value fails because there is none, while in the second case it fails because it is incomplete, and in both cases EOF is hit. Indeed, the program above outputs twice the same line: TF - 0110 TF - 0110 To solve this problem, I thought of the following solution: while (thestream >> std::ws && !thestream.eof() && thestream >> value) { // do something with value } The idea is to detect regular EOF before actually trying to extract the value. Because there might be whitespace at the end of the file (which would not be an error, but cause read of the last item to not hit EOF), I first discard any whitespace (which cannot fail) and then test for EOF. Only if I'm not at the end of file, I try to read the value. For my example program, it indeed seems to work, and I get TF - 0100 TF - 0110 So in the first case (correct input), fail() returns false. Now my question: Is this solution guaranteed to work, or was I just (un-)lucky that it happened to give the desired result? Also: Is there a simpler (or, if my solution is wrong, a correct) way to get the desired result?

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  • MySQL search for user and their roles

    - by Jenkz
    I am re-writing the SQL which lets a user search for any other user on our site and also shows their roles. An an example, roles can be "Writer", "Editor", "Publisher". Each role links a User to a Publication. Users can take multiple roles within multiple publications. Example table setup: "users" : user_id, firstname, lastname "publications" : publication_id, name "link_writers" : user_id, publication_id "link_editors" : user_id, publication_id Current psuedo SQL: SELECT * FROM ( (SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE firstname LIKE '%Jenkz%') UNION (SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE lastname LIKE '%Jenkz%') ) AS dt JOIN (ROLES STATEMENT) AS roles ON roles.user_id = dt.user_id At the moment my roles statement is: SELECT dt2.user_id, dt2.publication_id, dt.role FROM ( (SELECT 'writer' AS role, link_writers.user_id, link_writers.publication_id FROM link_writers) UNION (SELECT 'editor' AS role, link_editors.user_id, link_editors.publication_id FROM link_editors) ) AS dt2 The reason for wrapping the roles statement in UNION clauses is that some roles are more complex and require a table join to find the publication_id and user_id. As an example "publishers" might be linked accross two tables "link_publishers": user_id, publisher_group_id "link_publisher_groups": publisher_group_id, publication_id So in that instance, the query forming part of my UNION would be: SELECT 'publisher' AS role, link_publishers.user_id, link_publisher_groups.publication_id FROM link_publishers JOIN link_publisher_groups ON lpg.group_id = lp.group_id I'm pretty confident that my table setup is good (I was warned off the one-table-for-all system when researching the layout). My problem is that there are now 100,000 rows in the users table and upto 70,000 rows in each of the link tables. Initial lookup in the users table is fast, but the joining really slows things down. How can I only join on the relevant roles? -------------------------- EDIT ---------------------------------- Explain above (open in a new window to see full resolution). The bottom bit in red, is the "WHERE firstname LIKE '%Jenkz%'" the third row searches WHERE CONCAT(firstname, ' ', lastname) LIKE '%Jenkz%'. Hence the large row count, but I think this is unavoidable, unless there is a way to put an index accross concatenated fields? The green bit at the top just shows the total rows scanned from the ROLES STATEMENT. You can then see each individual UNION clause (#6 - #12) which all show a large number of rows. Some of the indexes are normal, some are unique. It seems that MySQL isn't optimizing to use the dt.user_id as a comparison for the internal of the UNION statements. Is there any way to force this behaviour? Please note that my real setup is not publications and writers but "webmasters", "players", "teams" etc.

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  • PHP Changing Class Variables Outside of Class

    - by Jamie Bicknell
    Apologies for the wording on this question, I'm having difficulties explaining what I'm after, but hopefully it makes sense. Let's say I have a class, and I wish to pass a variable through one of it's methods, then I have another method which outputs this variable. That's all fine, but what I'm after is that if I update the variable which was originally passed, and do this outside the class methods, it should be reflected in the class. I've created a very basic example: class Test { private $var = ''; function setVar($input) { $this->var = $input; } function getVar() { echo 'Var = ' . $this->var . '<br />'; } } If I run $test = new Test(); $string = 'Howdy'; $test->setVar($string); $test->getVar(); I get Var = Howdy However, this is the flow I would like: $test = new Test(); $test->setVar($string); $string = 'Hello'; $test->getVar(); $string = 'Goodbye'; $test->getVar(); Expected output to be Var = Hello Var = Goodbye I don't know what the correct naming of this would be, and I've tried using references to the original variable but no luck. I've come across this in the past, with the PDO prepared statements, see Example #2 $stmt = $dbh->prepare("INSERT INTO REGISTRY (name, value) VALUES (?, ?)"); $stmt->bindParam(1, $name); $stmt->bindParam(2, $value); // insert one row $name = 'one'; $value = 1; $stmt->execute(); // insert another row with different values $name = 'two'; $value = 2; $stmt->execute(); I know I can change the variable to public and do the following, but it isn't quite the same as how the PDO class handles it, and I'm really looking to mimic that behaviour. $test = new Test(); $test->setVar($string); $test->var = 'Hello'; $test->getVar(); $test->var = 'Goodbye'; $test->getVar(); Any help, ideas, pointers, or advice would be greatly appreciated, thanks.

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  • What is wrong with these jquery statements?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I cant able to get this jquery statement to work on page load but it works once when i refresh F5 the page..... <script type="text/javascript"> var itemsPerPage = 5; $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(0, itemsPerPage); var maxvalues = $("#HfId").val(); alert(maxvalues); $(".pager").pagination(maxvalues, { //my syntax }); }); </script> On the initial pageload alert(maxvalues); is nothing... But when i refresh it shows the value of maxvalues which is in the hidden field HfId because it is assigned in the function getRecordspage.... Why this strange behaviour.... Any suggestion... EDIT: function getRecordspage(curPage) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + (curPage + 1) + ",'pagesize':5}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $("#HfId").val(""); var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs); $(".resultsdiv:even").addClass("resultseven"); $(".resultsdiv").hover(function() { $(this).addClass("resultshover"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("resultshover"); }); $("#HfId").val(strarr[1]); } }); }

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  • Jquery question : maintain focus upon appending a row?

    - by PoppySeedsAndAppleJuice
    The function below checks whether the id entered is already in the database, and if it is, then it adds some html to the table. I'm not sure if it's directly related to my issue or not, but, essentially, a user will place the focus on the id input field and enters an id. Using ajax, it posts to a php script and returns data if rows are found and nothing if it doesn't. If the user then tabs over to the next input field (zipcode), or clicks in another input field, they essentially have to do so twice. The cursor "flashes" in the field briefly and then focuses out. I tried adding in a focus(), but the behavior didn't change. So, the html looks like this: <table id="tableSearchData" class="searchlist" style="width: 789px;"> <thead> <tr> <th>ID</th> <th>Zip Code</th> <th>Radius (in miles)</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr class="odd"> <!-- PROBLEM is described below --> <!-- User clicks in <input name="id[]"> and ID is checked --> <!-- User presses "tab" or clicks in <input name="zipcode[] (in the *same* row) and cursor flashes, then goes out of focus so that the user has to click in the field again --> <td class="center sorting_1"><input type="text" value="" name="id[]"></td> <td class="center"><input type="text" value="" name="zipcode[]"></td> <td class="center"><input type="text" value="" name="radius[]"></td> </tr> </tbody> </table> Here's the jquery function... Like I said, I'm not sure if it's directly related to the problem I'm having, but, thought I should include it because I suppose it's likely there is something happening there... $("#tableSearchData > tbody > tr > td > input[name=id[]]").focusout(function() { var row = $(this).closest("tr").get(0); var sData = $(this).serialize(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "checkid.php", data: sData, success: function(html) { $(row).replaceWith(html); $(".preset").each(function() { $(this).attr("disabled", true); }); $(row).closest("input[name=zipcode[]]").focus(); } }); });

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  • Any suggestions for improvement on this style for BDD/TDD?

    - by Sean B
    I was tinkering with doing the setups with our unit test specifciations which go like Specification for SUT when behaviour X happens in scenario Y Given that this thing And also this other thing When I do X... Then It should do ... And It should also do ... I wrapped each of the steps of the GivenThat in Actions... any feed back whether separating with Actions is good / bad / or better way to make the GivenThat clear? /// <summary> /// Given a product is setup for injection /// And Product Image Factory Is Stubbed(); /// And Product Size Is Stubbed(); /// And Drawing Scale Is Stubbed(); /// And Product Type Is Stubbed(); /// </summary> protected override void GivenThat() { base.GivenThat(); Action givenThatAProductIsSetupforInjection = () => { var randomGenerator = new RandomGenerator(); this.Position = randomGenerator.Generate<Point>(); this.Product = new Diffuser { Size = new RectangularProductSize( 2.Inches()), Position = this.Position, ProductType = Dep<IProductType>() }; }; Action andProductImageFactoryIsStubbed = () => Dep<IProductBitmapImageFactory>().Stub(f => f.GetInstance(Dep<IProductType>())).Return(ExpectedBitmapImage); Action andProductSizeIsStubbed = () => { Stub<IDisplacementProduct, IProductSize>(p => p.Size); var productBounds = new ProductBounds(Width.Feet(), Height.Feet()); Dep<IProductSize>().Stub(s => s.Bounds).Return(productBounds); }; Action andDrawingScaleIsStubbed = () => Dep<IDrawingScale>().Stub(s => s.PixelsPerFoot).Return(PixelsPerFoot); Action andProductTypeIsStubbed = () => Stub<IDisplacementProduct, IProductType>(p => p.ProductType); givenThatAProductIsSetupforInjection(); andProductImageFactoryIsStubbed(); andProductSizeIsStubbed(); andDrawingScaleIsStubbed(); andProductTypeIsStubbed(); }

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  • Specify a base classes template parameters while instantiating a derived class?

    - by DaClown
    Hi, I have no idea if the title makes any sense but I can't find the right words to descibe my "problem" in one line. Anyway, here is my problem. There is an interface for a search: template <typename InputType, typename ResultType> class Search { public: virtual void search (InputType) = 0; virtual void getResult(ResultType&) = 0; }; and several derived classes like: template <typename InputType, typename ResultType> class XMLSearch : public Search<InputType, ResultType> { public: void search (InputType) { ... }; void getResult(ResultType&) { ... }; }; The derived classes shall be used in the source code later on. I would like to hold a simple pointer to a Search without specifying the template parameters, then assign a new XMLSearch and thereby define the template parameters of Search and XMLSearch Search *s = new XMLSearch<int, int>(); I found a way that works syntactically like what I'm trying to do, but it seems a bit odd to really use it: template <typename T> class Derived; class Base { public: template <typename T> bool GetValue(T &value) { Derived<T> *castedThis=dynamic_cast<Derived<T>* >(this); if(castedThis) return castedThis->GetValue(value); return false; } virtual void Dummy() {} }; template <typename T> class Derived : public Base { public: Derived<T>() { mValue=17; } bool GetValue(T &value) { value=mValue; return true; } T mValue; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Base *v=new Derived<int>; int i=0; if(!v->GetValue(i)) std::cout<<"Wrong type int."<<std::endl; float f=0.0; if(!v->GetValue(f)) std::cout<<"Wrong type float."<<std::endl; std::cout<<i<<std::endl<<f; char c; std::cin>>c; return 0; } Is there a better way to accomplish this?

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  • Could not load file or assembly ... or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a progra

    - by Dan
    I am getting the following error message when compiling or attempting to run my application on Windows 7 64 bit. I've scoured the internet and many people have the same error message however none of the solutions address my problem or situation. Using VS 2010. Error 38 Could not load file or assembly 'file:///D:/Projects/Windows Projects/Weld/Components/FileAttachments/FileAttachments/FileAttachments/bin/x86/Debug/FileAttaching.dll' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. Line 1212, position 5. D:\Projects\Windows Projects\Weld\Weld\Weld.UI\frmMain.resx 1212 5 Weld.UI Ok, so I have 2 projects a UI project and a FileAttachment project. UI project has a reference to FileAttachment project. When I compile UI project in "Any CPU" mode everything works fine and it runs. I assume 'Any CPU' will run in 64bit mode when I compile as that is the platform I am using. I want to run/compile as x86 so I try to do that, so I change configuration for all projects to x86 and verify that these configurations are compiling to x86. I compile and get the error as stated above. I find it odd that it compiles and works fine in 64bit but not 32bit. However when compiled and deployed to users as 'Any CPU', if these users have x86 it still works for them no problem. I just can't compile or run as x86 on my PC. Again, I can compile as Any CPU and deploy to a 32bit PC no problem. Neither project are referencing any 64bit only dlls. Both projects are verified to be targetting 32bit dll's and .NET Framework assemblies. I need to compile and run this locally under 32bit mode. I need JIT edit/continue among other things. Here is the line of code in the resx file that is causing the problem: </data> <data name="Appearance17.Image" type="System.Drawing.Bitmap, System.Drawing" mimetype="application/x-microsoft.net.object.bytearray.base64"> <value> The resx file is verified to be generated for .NET 2.0 amnd is only referencing .NET 2.0 assemblies and not .NET 4.0 versions. Any ideas here? I've searched the net and have found hundreds of people with the same error message but a different problem.

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  • Unusual Template Behavior with XSL

    - by bobber205
    Experiencing some very odd behavior with, what should be, a very simple use of XSL and XSLT. Here's a code sample. <xsl:template match="check"> <div class="check"> <xsl:apply-templates mode="check"> <xsl:with-param name="checkName">testVariable</xsl:with-param> </xsl:apple-templates> </div> </xsl:template> The template called above <xsl:template match="option" mode="check"> <xsl:param name="checkName" /> <div class="option"> <input type="checkbox"> </input> <label> testText </label> </div> </xsl:template> Pretty simple right? It should, for each instance of a instance in the XML create a checkbox in a with a hard coded label. However, what I'm getting is <div class="check"></div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="check"></div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> <div class="option>Checkbox stuff here</div> Here's some sample XML <check><option key="1"/><option key="0"/><option key="0"/><option key="0"/><option key="0"/></check> Anyone know what's going on? :D

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  • Drupal menu permissions question

    - by Luke
    I'm creating an admin module for my client that gives then access to some administration functionality concerning their content. I'm starting off my adding some permissions in my module by implementing hook_perm: function mymodule_perm() { return array( 'manage projects', ); } I can then create my menu by adding to the admin section that already exists: function mymodule_menu() { $items['admin/projects'] = array( 'title' => 'Projects', 'description' => 'Manage your projects.', 'page callback' => 'manage_projects_overview', 'access callback' => 'user_access', 'access arguments' => array('manage projects'), 'type' => MENU_NORMAL_ITEM, 'weight' => -100, ); $items['admin/projects/add'] = array( 'title' => 'Add project', 'access arguments' => array('manage projects'), 'page callback' => 'mymodule_projects_add', 'type' => MENU_NORMAL_ITEM, 'weight' => 1, ); return $items; } This will add a Projects section to the Administration area with an Add project sub section. All good. The behavior I want is that my client can only see the Projects section when they log in. I've accomplished this by ticking the "manage projects" permission for authenticated users. Now to give my client actual access to the Administration area I also need to tick "access administration pages" under the "system module" in the users permissions section. This works great, when I log in as my client I can only see the Projects section in the Administration area. There is one thing though, I my Navigation menu shown in the left column I can see the following items: - Administer - Projects - Content management - Site building - Site configuration - User management I was expecting only the see Administer and Projects, not the other ones. When I click e.g. Content Management I get a Content Management titled page with no options. Same for Site Building, Site Configuration and User Management. What's really odd is that Reports is not being shown which is also a top level Administration section. Why are these other items, besides my Projects section, being shown and how can I make them stop from appearing if I'm not logged in as administrator?

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  • C++: Why does gcc prefer non-const over const when accessing operator[]?

    - by JonasW
    This question might be more appropriately asked regarding C++ in general, but as I am using gcc on linux that's the context. Consider the following program: #include <iostream> #include <map> #include <string> using namespace std; template <typename TKey, typename TValue> class Dictionary{ public: map<TKey, TValue> internal; TValue & operator[](TKey const & key) { cout << "operator[] with key " << key << " called " << endl; return internal[key]; } TValue const & operator[](TKey const & key) const { cout << "operator[] const with key " << key << " called " << endl; return internal.at(key); } }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Dictionary<string, string> dict; dict["1"] = "one"; cout << "first one: " << dict["1"] << endl; return 0; } When executing the program, the output is: operator[] with key 1 called operator[] with key 1 called first one: one What I would like is to have the compiler choose the operator[]const method instead in the second call. The reason is that without having used dict["1"] before, the call to operator[] causes the internal map to create the data that does not exist, even if the only thing I wanted was to do some debugging output, which of course is a fatal application error. The behaviour I am looking for would be something like the C# index operator which has a get and a set operation and where you could throw an exception if the getter tries to access something that doesn't exist: class MyDictionary<TKey, TVal> { private Dictionary<TKey, TVal> dict = new Dictionary<TKey, TVal>(); public TVal this[TKey idx] { get { if(!dict.ContainsKey(idx)) throw KeyNotFoundException("..."); return dict[idx]; } set { dict[idx] = value; } } } Thus, I wonder why the gcc prefers the non-const call over the const call when non-const access is not required.

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  • Navigating to rootViewController of non-visible UINavigationController CRASH

    - by Bertie
    First off I'n not sure if this is exactly the issue... but it appears to be central to the problem. There are vast gaps in what I know and this may be something very obvious. I have a split view controller with various Master and Detail Views. From one 'menu' branch I want to return to the rootView of both the Master & Detail Navigation Controllers when the user taps a 'Done' button. Initially I had the button positioned on the navigation bar of the master view. This is the code I was using: - (IBAction)doneClicked:(id)sender { UINavigationController *detailNav = [self.splitViewController.viewControllers objectAtIndex:1]; NSArray *allDetailViewControllers = detailNav.viewControllers; HomePage *destinationDetailVC = [allDetailViewControllers objectAtIndex:0]; destinationDetailVC.splitViewBarButtonItem = self.splitViewButton; [detailNav popToRootViewControllerAnimated:NO]; [self.navigationController popToRootViewControllerAnimated:NO]; } That works fine but if the device is in portrait mode it means the user has to open the menus to access the button. So I decided to put the 'Done' button onto the detail view NavBar instead. Using a delegate declared in the detailVC and adopted by the masterVC I am now using this method: - (void)theUserClickedDoneInTheDetailView:(DetailVC *)controller withButton:(UIBarButtonItem *)splitViewButton { UINavigationController *detailNav = [self.splitViewController.viewControllers objectAtIndex:1]; NSArray *allDetailViewControllers = detailNav.viewControllers; HomePage *destinationDetailVC = [allDetailViewControllers objectAtIndex:0]; destinationDetailVC.splitViewBarButtonItem = splitViewButton; [detailNav popToRootViewControllerAnimated: NO]; [self.navigationController popToRootViewControllerAnimated:NO]; } Both methods are in the MasterVC.m file The only difference between the two is that on is passed a UIBarButtonItem to use and the other has already had it passed when it is set in the detail view. That seems to be working because I do get a button. When the device is in Landscape mode both methods work fine. All behaviour as expected. When the device is in Portrait the first method still works fine. The second appears to work fine and the detail view is the rootView, the button for the menus is there BUT, as soon as I turn the device to landscape it crashes. The only thing I can think of is that it is because the masterView is hidden. Can anyone help...?

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  • Why doesen't the number 2 work in this for-loop?

    - by Emil
    Hello. I have a function that runs trough each element in an array. It's hard to explain, so I'll just paste in the code here: NSLog(@"%@", arraySub); for (NSString *string in arrayFav){ int favoriteLoop = [string intValue] + favCount; NSLog(@"%d", favoriteLoop); id arrayFavObject = [array objectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [arrayFavObject retain]; [array removeObjectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [array insertObject:arrayFavObject atIndex:0]; [arrayFavObject release]; id arraySubFavObject = [arraySub objectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [arraySubFavObject retain]; [arraySub removeObjectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [arraySub insertObject:arraySubFavObject atIndex:0]; [arraySubFavObject release]; id arrayLengthFavObject = [arrayLength objectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [arrayLengthFavObject retain]; [arrayLength removeObjectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [arrayLength insertObject:arrayLengthFavObject atIndex:0]; [arrayLengthFavObject release]; } NSLog(@"%@", arraySub); The array arrayFav contains these strings: "3", "8", "2", "10", "40". Array array contains 92 strings with a name. Array arraySub contains numbers 0 to 91, representing a filename with a title from the array array. Array arrayLength contains 92 strings representing the size of each file from array arraySub. Now, the first NSLog shows, as expected, the numbers 0 to 91. The NSLog-s in the loop shows the numbers 3, 8, 2, 10, 40, also as expected. But here's the odd part: the last NSLog shows these numbers: 40, 10, 0, 8, 3, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, 59, 60, 61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 70, 71, 72, 73, 74, 75, 76, 77, 78, 79, 80, 81, 82, 83, 84, 85, 86, 87, 88, 89, 90, 91 that is 40, 10, 0, 8, 3, and so on. It was not supposed to be a zero in there, it was supposed to be a 2.. Do you have any idea at why this is happening or a way to fix it? Thank you.

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  • Large memory chunk not garbage collected

    - by Niels
    In a hunt for a memory-leak in my app I chased down a behaviour I can't understand. I allocate a large memory block, but it doesn't get garbage-collected resulting in a OOM, unless I explicit null the reference in onDestroy. In this example I have two almost identical activities that switch between each others. Both have a single button. On pressing the button MainActivity starts OOMActivity and OOMActivity returns by calling finish(). After pressing the buttons a few times, Android throws a OOMException. If i add the the onDestroy to OOMActivity and explicit null the reference to the memory chunk, I can see in the log that the memory is correctly freed. Why doesn't the memory get freed automatically without the nulling? MainActivity: package com.example.oom; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.widget.Button; public class MainActivity extends Activity implements OnClickListener { private int buttonId; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); System.gc(); Button OOMButton = new Button(this); OOMButton.setText("OOM"); buttonId = OOMButton.getId(); setContentView(OOMButton); OOMButton.setOnClickListener(this); } @Override public void onClick(View v) { if (v.getId() == buttonId) { Intent leakIntent = new Intent(this, OOMActivity.class); startActivity(leakIntent); } } } OOMActivity: public class OOMActivity extends Activity implements OnClickListener { private static final int WASTE_SIZE = 20000000; private byte[] waste; private int buttonId; protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Button BackButton = new Button(this); BackButton.setText("Back"); buttonId = BackButton.getId(); setContentView(BackButton); BackButton.setOnClickListener(this); waste = new byte[WASTE_SIZE]; } public void onClick(View view) { if (view.getId() == buttonId) { finish(); } } }

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