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  • Calling a method in a view controller from a view

    - by Lakshmie
    I have to invoke a method present in a view controller who's reference is available in the view. When I try to call the method like any other method, for some reason, iPhone just ignores the call. Can somebody explain as to why this happens and also how can I go about invoking this method? In the view I have this method: -(void) touchesBegan :(NSSet *) touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ NSArray* mySubViews = [self subviews]; for (UITouch *touch in touches) { int i = 0; for(; i<[mySubViews count]; i++){ if(CGRectContainsPoint([[mySubViews objectAtIndex:i] frame], [touch locationInView:self])){ break; } } if(i<[mySubViews count]){ // viewController is the reference to the View Controller. [viewController pointToSummary:[touch locationInView:self].y]; NSLog(@"Helloooooo"); break; } } } Whenever the touches event is triggered, Hellooooo gets printed in the console but the method before that is simply ignored

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  • Android: Is it better to start and stop a service each time it is needed or to let a service run and

    - by Flo
    I'm developing an app that checks several conditions during an incoming phone call. The main parts of the app are a BroadcastReceiver listening for Intents related to the phone's status and a local Service checking the conditions. At the moment the service is started each time an incoming call is detected and is stopped when the phone status changed back to idle. Now I'm wondering if this procedure is correct and whether it is reasonable to start and stop the service related to the phone's status. Or would it be better to let the service run regardless of the phone's status and bind/unbind to/from it when needed. Are there any performance issues I would have to think about? Perhaps it is more expensive to start/stop a service than letting it run and communicate with it. Are there any best practices out there regarding the implementation of services?

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  • Is java HashMap.clear() and remove() memory effective?

    - by Shaman
    Consider the follwing HashMap.clear() code: /** * Removes all of the mappings from this map. * The map will be empty after this call returns. */ public void clear() { modCount++; Entry[] tab = table; for (int i = 0; i < tab.length; i++) tab[i] = null; size = 0; } It seems, that the internal array (table) of Entrys is never shrinked. So, when I add 10000 elements to a map, and after that call map.clear(), it will keep 10000 nulls in it's internal array. So, my question is, how does JVM handle this array of nothing, and thus, is HashMap memory effective?

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  • Jqeury Validate() special function

    - by kevin
    Hi there, i'm using the Jquery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that i have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The Jquery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an exemple for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how i call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inv&aacute;lido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file i call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1","cpf"); //--> </script> Of course i call the Spry css and js files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When i just use the Jquery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesnt work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can i add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process ? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. Hope i was clear explaining my problem. Thanks in advance. kevin

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  • One entityManger finds entity , the other does not.

    - by Pitelk
    Hi all, I have a very strange behavior in my program. I have 2 classes (class LogIn and CreateGame) where i have injected an EntityManager in each using the annotation @PersistenceContext(unitName="myUnitPU") EntityManager entitymanger; In some point i remove an object called "user" from the database using entitymanger.remove(user) from a method in LogIn class. The business logic is that a user can host and join games ( in the same time) so removing the user all the entries in database about the games the user has created are removed and all the entries showing in which games the user has joined are removed also. After that, i call another function which checks if the user exists using a method in the LogIn class entitymanager.find(user) which surprisingly enough, finds the user. After that I call a method in CreateGame class which tries to find the user by using again entitymanger.find(user) the entitymanger in that class fails to find the user (which is the expected result as the user is removed and it's not in the database) So the question is : Why the entitymanager in one class finds the user (which is wrong) where the other doesn't find it? Does anyone has ever the same problem? PS : This "bug" occurs when the user has hosted a game which is joined by another user (lets call him Buser) and the Buser has made a game which is joined by the current user. GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game1 | user | userB game2 | userB | user where in this case by removing the user, the game1 is deleted and the user is removed from game2 so the result is GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game2 | userB | PS2 : The Beans are EJB3.0. The methods are called from a delegate class. The beans in the delegate class are instantiated using the InitialContext.lookup() method. Note that for logging in ,creating , joining games the appropriate delegate class calls the correspondent EJB which does the transactions. In the case of logOut, the delegate calls an EJB to logout the user but becuase other stuff must be done (as said above) this EJB calls other EJB (again using lookup() ) which has methods like removegame(), removeUserFromGame() etc. After those methods are executed the user is then logged out. Maybe it has something to do with the fact the the first entity manager is called by a delegate but the second from inside an EJb and thats why the one entitymanger can see the non-existent user while the other cannot? Also all the methods have TRANSACTIONTYPE.REQUIRED Thank you in advance

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  • run windows command from bash with output to standard out?

    - by Wayne
    Folks, I'm using git tools such as git bisect run which need to call a command to build and test my project. My command to do is nant which is a windows program. Or a build.cmd script which calls nant. It's easy to get the bash to call the nant build to run. But the hard part is how to get the standard output written to a file? I even installed the Windows PowerShell to try running a command from bash. Again, it works but the standard output fill says "permission denied" when I try to read it while the build is going on.

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  • Address Book callback not called

    - by Oliver
    I have an iPhone app that makes use of the AddressBook.framework and uses Core Data to store these contacts. In order to make sure I update my own database when the Address Book is updated (whether via MobileMe or editing within my own app), I am subscribing to the notification as to when the Address Book is updating. I call this on startup: ABAddressBookRef book = ABAddressBookCreate(); ABAddressBookRegisterExternalChangeCallback(book, addressBookChanged, self); Which (supposedly) calls this on any editing. I have an ABPersonViewController which allows editing, and addressBookChanged never seems to get called. void addressBookChanged(ABAddressBookRef reference, CFDictionaryRef dictionary, void *context) { // The contacts controller we need to call ContactsController *contacts = (ContactsController *)context; // Sync with the Address Book [contacts synchronizeWithAddressBook:reference]; } Is there any reason for it to not be called?

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  • How come string.maketrans does not work in Python 3.1?

    - by ShaChris23
    I'm a Python newbie. How come this doesn't work in Python 3.1? from string import maketrans # Required to call maketrans function. intab = "aeiou" outtab = "12345" trantab = maketrans(intab, outtab) str = "this is string example....wow!!!"; print str.translate(trantab); When I executed the above code, I get the following instead: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#119>", line 1, in <module> transtab = maketrans(intab, outtab) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/3.1/lib/python3.1/string.py", line 60, in maketrans raise TypeError("maketrans arguments must be bytes objects") TypeError: maketrans arguments must be bytes objects What does "must be bytes objects" mean? Could anyone please help post a working code for Python 3.1 if it's possible?

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  • When binding a client TCP socket to a specific local port with Winsock, SO_REUSEADDR does not have a

    - by Checkers
    I'm binding a client TCP socket to a specific local port. To handle the situation where the socket remains in TIME_WAIT state for some time, I use setsockopt() with SO_REUSEADDR on a socket. It works on Linux, but does not work on Windows, I get WSAEADDRINUSE on connect() call when the previous connection is still in TIME_WAIT. MSDN is not exactly clear what should happen with client sockets: [...] For server applications that need to bind multiple sockets to the same port number, consider using setsockopt (SO_REUSEADDR). Client applications usually need not call bind at all—connect chooses an unused port automatically. [...] How do I avoid this?

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  • [AS2] Use for variable as parameter and keep it different for each iteration

    - by Adam Kiss
    Hello, I have a basic for loop to loop through buttons and set some stuff and onPress handlers: for (i=1;i<=20;i++){ //do some stuff _root["button"+i].onPress = function(){ someMC.gotoAndStop(i+1); } } However, as I noticed, all buttonsthen link to one and same frame - all point to last i + 1 - Is there any possibility to call gotoAndStop with "static" Number, so in next iteration, it won't change? Edit: Ex. for last statement: Iteration 5 will call gAS /*gotoAndStop:]*/(6); Iteration 6 -> gAS(7); Iteration 7 -> gAS(8);

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  • C# equlivent of performSelectorOnMainThread

    - by jamone
    I haven't done much multithreading before and now find the need to do some background work and keep the UI responsive. I have the following code. data.ImportProgressChanged += new DataAccess.ImportDelegate(data_ImportProgressChanged); Thread importThread = new Thread( new ThreadStart(data.ImportPeopleFromFAD)); importThread.IsBackground = true; importThread.Start(); void data_ImportProgressChanged(int progress) { toolStripProgressBar.Value = progress; } //In my data object I have public void ImportPeopleFromFAD() { ImportProgressChanged(someInt); } But the UI doesn't get updated since the ImportProgressChanged() call is made on the background thread. In objective C I know you can use performSelectorOnMainThread and pass it a method to call using the main thread. What is the equivalent way of calling ImportProgressChanged() from the main thread?

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  • ResolveURL not resolving in a user control

    - by WebJunk
    I'm trying to use ResolveUrl() to set some paths in the code behind of a custom ASP.NET user control. The user control contains a navigation menu. I'm loading it on a page that's loading a master page. When I call ResolveUrl("~") in my user control it returns "~" instead of the root of the site. When I call it in a page I get the root path as expected. I've stepped through with the debugger and confirmed, ResolveUrl("~") returns "~" in my user control code behind. Is there some other way I should be calling the function in my user control code behind to get the root path of the site?

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  • Converting python objects for rpy2

    - by bgbg
    The following code is supposed to created a heatmap in rpy2 import numpy as np from rpy2.robjects import r data = np.random.random((10,10)) r.heatmap(data) However, it results in the following error Traceback (most recent call last): File "z.py", line 8, in <module> labRow=rowNames, labCol=colNames) File "C:\Python25\lib\site-packages\rpy2\robjects\__init__.py", line 418, in __call__ new_args = [conversion.py2ri(a) for a in args] File "C:\Python25\lib\site-packages\rpy2\robjects\__init__.py", line 93, in default_py2ri raise(ValueError("Nothing can be done for the type %s at the moment." %(type(o)))) ValueError: Nothing can be done for the type <type 'numpy.ndarray'> at the moment. From the documentation I learn that r.heatmap expects "a numeric matrix". How do I convert np.array to the required data type?

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  • Recursion in Unity and Dispose pattern implementation

    - by Budda
    My class is inherited from UnityContainer (from Unity 2.0), here is source code: public class UnityManager : UnityContainer { private UnityManager() { _context = new MyDataClassesDataContext(); // ... } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if ( disposing ) { _context.Dispose(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } private readonly CMCoreDataClassesDataContext _context; } When Dispose method is called for the instance of UnityManager class it drop into recursion... Why? As far as I know base.Dispose should call the Dispose method of base class only... isn't it? Who call back the Dispose(bool) of UnityManager? How to prevent that? Thanks.

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  • Default value list for pipeline param in Powershell

    - by fatcat1111
    I have a Powershell script that reads values off of the pipeline: PARAM ( [Parameter(ValueFromPipeline = $true)] $s ) PROCESS { echo "* $s" } Works just fine: PS my.ps1 foo * foo I would like the script to have list of default values, as the most common usage will always use the same values and storing them in the default will be most convenient. I did the usual assignment: PARAM ( [Parameter(ValueFromPipeline = $true)] $s = 'bar' ) PROCESS { echo "* $s" } Again, works just fine: PS my.ps1 * bar PS my.ps1 foo * foo However when setting the default to be a list, I get back something entirely reasonable but not at all what I want: PARAM ( [Parameter(ValueFromPipeline = $true)] $s = @('bar', 'bat', 'boy') ) PROCESS { echo "* $s" } Result: PS my.ps1 * bar bat boy I expected: PS my.ps1 * bar * bat * boy How can I get one call in to the Process loop for each default value? (This is somewhat different than getting one call in to Process, and wrapping the current body of in a big foreach loop over $s).

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  • jquery thickbox not working in 2005 ASP.NET

    - by Alex
    public void DisplayThickBox(Page page, int width, int height) { string script = "<script type='text/javascript'>"; script += "$(document).ready(function(){"; script += "tb.show('null', 'auto-insurance-redirect.aspx?keepThis=true&TB_iframe=true&height=" + height.ToString() + "&amp;width=" + width.ToString() + "',null);"; script += "});"; script +="</script>"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(page, page.GetType(), "", script, true); } ^^^Method to display the thickbox...^^^ DisplayThickBox(this, 518, 321); ^^^Call to method in the click event of the button that fires it...^^^ Page is just refreshing and the thickbox is never displayed. I'm trying to call the javascript manually since im doing some other stuff before i display the thickbox in the code behind...

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  • How do I create a controller and action without a model?

    - by Angela
    I have several models: Email Letter Call All three belong to a model Campaign. And a Campaign has_many Contacts I envision being able to see a schedule for Today by going to domain/schedule/today What I'd like it to do would be to show all the Events (Email, Letter, Call) that have to happen today for each campaign. I tried the following, but have some challenges in putting it into a controller versus into a View. There are many emails in campaign. Email.days is the number of days from the contact.start_date that an email should be sent to the Contact. ScheduleController < def index campaigns.each do |campaign| #goes through each campaign for contacts in campaign.contacts Email.find(:all).reject { |email| email.contact.start_date + email.days <= Date.now } end end end

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  • Exposing C# COM server events to Delphi client applications

    - by hectorsosajr
    My question is very similar to these two: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1140984/c-component-events http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1638372/c-writing-a-com-server-events-not-firing-on-client However, what worked for them is not working for me. The type library file, does not have any hints of events definitions, so Delphi doesn't see it. The class works fine for other C# applications, as you would expect. COM Server tools: Visual Studio 2010 .NET 4.0 Delphi applications: Delphi 2010 Delphi 7 Here's a simplified version of the code: /// <summary> /// Call has arrived delegate. /// </summary> [ComVisible(false)] public delegate void CallArrived(object sender, string callData); /// <summary> /// Interface to expose SimpleAgent events to COM /// </summary> [ComVisible(true)] [GuidAttribute("1FFBFF09-3AF0-4F06-998D-7F4B6CB978DD")] [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IAgentEvents { ///<summary> /// Handles incoming calls from the predictive manager. ///</summary> ///<param name="sender">The class that initiated this event</param> ///<param name="callData">The data associated with the incoming call.</param> [DispId(1)] void OnCallArrived(object sender, string callData); } /// <summary> /// Represents the agent side of the system. This is usually related to UI interactions. /// </summary> [ComVisible(true)] [GuidAttribute("EF00685F-1C14-4D05-9EFA-538B3137D86C")] [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] [ComSourceInterfaces(typeof(IAgentEvents))] public class SimpleAgent { /// <summary> /// Occurs when a call arrives. /// </summary> public event CallArrived OnCallArrived; public SimpleAgent() {} public string AgentName { get; set; } public string CurrentPhoneNumber { get; set; } public void FireOffCall() { if (OnCallArrived != null) { OnCallArrived(this, "555-123-4567"); } } } The type library file has the definitions for the properties and methods, but no events are visible. I even opened the type library in Delphi's viewer to make sure. The Delphi app can see and use any property, methods, and functions just fine. It just doesn't see the events. I would appreciate any pointers or articles to read. Thanks!

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  • question about fgets

    - by user105033
    Is this safe to do? (does fgets terminate the buffer with null) or should I be setting the 20th byte to null after the call to fgets before i call clean. // strip new lines void clean(char *data) { while (*data) { if (*data == '\n' || *data == '\r') *data = '\0'; data++; } } // for this, assume that the file contains 1 line no longer than 19 bytes // buffer is freed elsewhere char *load_latest_info(char *file) { FILE *f; char *buffer = (char*) malloc(20); if (f = fopen(file, "r")) if (fgets(buffer, 20, f)) { clean(buffer); return buffer; } free(buffer); return NULL; }

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  • How can I pass checkbox onclick event to parent onclick ?

    - by Kim
    I a with an onclick event and , and inside it. When I click on the checkbox then the div-onclick event doesnt fire - I would like it to fire without having to dublicate the onclick onto the checkbox. <div id="id-tag" onclick="do()"> <span>text</span> <img src="pic.jpg" /> <input type="checkbox" name="mycheck" /> </div> I know the div-idtag but ideally would like to avoid specifying it inside the checkbox. Using another function call on the checkbox onclick to call the parent is NOT what I am looking for, like onclick="run_parent_onclick()" but this is okay (untested) onclick="this.parent.click()"

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  • OpenSSL "Seal" in C (or via shell)

    - by chpwn
    I'm working on porting some PHP code to C, that contacts a web API. The issue I've come across is that the PHP code uses the function openssl_seal(), but I can't seem to find any way to do the same thing in C or even via openssl in a call to system(). From the PHP manual on openssl_seal(): int openssl_seal ( string $data , string &$sealed_data , array &$env_keys , array $pub_key_ids ) openssl_seal() seals (encrypts) data by using RC4 with a randomly generated secret key. The key is encrypted with each of the public keys associated with the identifiers in pub_key_ids and each encrypted key is returned in env_keys . This means that one can send sealed data to multiple recipients (provided one has obtained their public keys). Each recipient must receive both the sealed data and the envelope key that was encrypted with the recipient's public key. What would be the best way to implement this? I'd really prefer not to call out to a PHP script every time, for obvious reasons.

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  • How should I rewrite my code to make it amenable to unittesting?

    - by justin
    I've been trying to get started with unit-testing while working on a little cli program. My program basically parses the command line arguments and options, and decides which function to call. Each of the functions performs some operation on a database. So, for instance, I might have a create function: def create(self, opts, args): #I've left out the error handling. strtime = datetime.datetime.now().strftime("%D %H:%M") vals = (strtime, opts.message, opts.keywords, False) self.execute("insert into mytable values (?, ?, ?, ?)", vals) self.commit() Should my test case call this function, then execute the select sql to check that the row was entered? That sounds reasonable, but also makes the tests more difficult to maintain. Would you rewrite the function to return something and check for the return value? Thanks

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  • How to return a code value into a variable

    - by Georges Sabbagh
    I have the below case in my report: Receivable: RunningValue(Fields!Receivable.Value,SUM,Nothing) Production: code.SumLookup(LookupSet(Fields!Currency_Type.Value, Fields!Currency_Type1.Value,Fields!Gross_Premium_Amount.Value, "DataSet2")) Rec/Prod: Receivable / Production. Public Function SumLookup(ByVal items As Object()) As Decimal If items Is Nothing Then Return Nothing End If Dim suma As Decimal = New Decimal() Dim ct as Integer = New Integer() suma = 0 ct = 0 For Each item As Object In items suma += Convert.ToDecimal(item) ct += 1 Next If (ct = 0) Then return 0 else return suma End Function The problem is for Rec/Prod, if prod = 0 i receive error. Ive tried to put the below condition: IIF(code.SumLookup(LookupSet(Fields!Currency_Type.Value, Fields!Currency_Type1.Value,Fields!Gross_Premium_Amount.Value, "DataSet2"))=0,0,RunningValue(Fields!Receivable.Value,SUM,Nothing)/(code.SumLookup(LookupSet(Fields!Currency_Type.Value, Fields!Currency_Type1.Value,Fields!Gross_Premium_Amount.Value, "DataSet2")))) but since in the false condition i am recalling code.SumLookup in order to get the value in regetting 0 for production and consiquently i get error for Rec/Prod. how can i call code.sumlookup on time only and save its value into a variable so i dont need to call it everytime i need to check the value. or if there any other solution please advise.

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  • Stack and queue operations on the same array.

    - by Passonate Learner
    Hi. I've been thinking about a program logic, but I cannot draw a conclusion to my problem. Here, I've implemented stack and queue operations to a fixed array. int A[1000]; int size=1000; int top; int front; int rear; bool StackIsEmpty() { return (top==0); } bool StackPush( int x ) { if ( top >= size ) return false; A[top++] = x; return true; } int StackTop( ) { return A[top-1]; } bool StackPop() { if ( top <= 0 ) return false; A[--top] = 0; return true; } bool QueueIsEmpty() { return (front==rear); } bool QueuePush( int x ) { if ( rear >= size ) return false; A[rear++] = x; return true; } int QueueFront( ) { return A[front]; } bool QueuePop() { if ( front >= rear ) return false; A[front++] = 0; return true; } It is presumed(or obvious) that the bottom of the stack and the front of the queue is pointing at the same location, and vice versa(top of the stack points the same location as rear of the queue). For example, integer 1 and 2 is inside an array in order of writing. And if I call StackPop(), the integer 2 will be popped out, and if I call QueuePop(), the integer 1 will be popped out. My problem is that I don't know what happens if I do both stack and queue operations on the same array. The example above is easy to work out, because there are only two values involved. But what if there are more than 2 values involved? For example, if I call StackPush(1); QueuePush(2); QueuePush(4); StackPop(); StackPush(5); QueuePop(); what values will be returned in the order of bottom(front) from the final array? I know that if I code a program, I would receive a quick answer. But the reason I'm asking this is because I want to hear a logical explanations from a human being, not a computer.

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  • How can I create a javascript library in a separate file and "include" it in another?

    - by Jordan L. Walbesser
    First, a caveat. The main script is not run in a webpage. I will be running the .js file in Windows using Windows Script Host. The problem: I would like to create a javascript "library" containing a number of objects, each with a number of functions. I expect this library will get rather large with time and would like to keep it in a separate javascript file (let's call it Library.js). I would like to access the objects from Library.js from another script (let's call this one User.js). In essence, I am looking for something similar to the C/C++ "include" paradigm. Is there anyway to implement this in javascript? (Remember, this is not web-based)

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