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  • Snow Leopard & LSUIElement -> application not activating properly, window not "active" despite being

    - by Frank R.
    Hi, I'm running into a few problem with a background application that uses LSUIElement=1 to hide its dock item, menu bar and prevent it from appearing in the Command-Tab application switcher. It seems to be a Snow Leopard only problem. The application places an NSStatusItem in the menu bar and pops up a menu when clicked on. Selecting "Preferences..." should bring up an NSWindow with the preferences. The first thing that doesn't seem to work is that the Window does not get ordered in at the front, but appears behind all other application windows. I tried to fix this by calling [[NSApplication sharedApplication] activateIgnoringOtherApps: YES] but that didn't work. After a while I figured out that the menu is blocking the message to the run loop from being sent, so I wrote another method on the MainController and sent the message with a delay: [self performSelector:@selector(setFront:) withObject: [preferencesController window] afterDelay:1.0]; -(void)setFront: (id) theWindow { [[NSApplication sharedApplication]activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; [theWindow orderFrontRegardless]; [theWindow makeKeyWindow]; [[NSApplication sharedApplication] activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; } Note the send-every-possible-message-to-make-it-do-what-it-should-be-doing-approach. This works, kind-of, the window is brought to the front on top of all other windows from all apps, BUT most of the time it isn't active, meaning it's title bar is greyed out. Clicking on the title bar won't make the window active either. Clicking INSIDE of the window will make it active!? This all didn't seem to be a problem in Leopard; just calling activateIgnoringOtherApps and making the window key seemed to work just fine. In Snow Leopard there is a new API designed to replace LSUIElement that is supposed to emulate its behaviour: http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/releasenotes/cocoa/appkit.html I've played around with that, but it's SL-only and I haven't been able to get LSUIElement being set. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • ajax-based login fails: IE6 and IE7 ajax calls delete session data (session_id however is kept)

    - by mateipavel
    This question comes after two days of testing and debugging, right after the shock I had seeing that none of the websites i build using ajax-based login work in IE<8 The most simplified scenario si this: 1. mypage.php : session_start(); $_SESSION['mytest'] = 'x'; <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"> </script> <script type="text/javascript"> function loadit() { $.post('http://www.mysite.com/myajax.php', {action: 'test'}, function(result){alert(result);}, 'html'); } </script> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="loadit(); return false;">test link</a> 2. myajax.php session_start(); print_r($_SESSION); print session_id(); When I click the "test link", the ajax call is made and the result is alert()-ed: IE6: weird bullet-character (&bull;) IE7: Array( ) <session_id> IE8/FF (Expected behaviour): Array( [mytest] => 'x' ) <session_id> I would really appreciate some pointers regarding: 1. why this happens 2. how to fix it Thank you.

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  • Accessing a file on a network drive

    - by Rekreativc
    Hello. Background: I have an application that has to read from files on a network drive (Z:) This works great in my office domain, however it does not work on site (in a different domain). As far as I can tell the domain users and network drives are set in the same way, however I do not have access to users etc in the customers domain. When I couldn't access the network drive I figured I needed a token for a user. This is how I impersionate the user: [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] public static extern bool LogonUser(String lpszUsername, String lpszDomain, String lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, ref IntPtr phToken); ... const string userName = "Razvoj02"; const string pass = "Programer02"; const string domainName = null; const int LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT = 0; const int LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE = 2; IntPtr tokenHandle = new IntPtr(0); bool returnValue = LogonUser(userName, domainName, pass, LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE, LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT, ref tokenHandle); if (!returnValue) throw new Exception("Logon failed."); WindowsImpersonationContext impersonatedUser = null; try { WindowsIdentity wid = new WindowsIdentity(tokenHandle); impersonatedUser = wid.Impersonate(); } finally { if (impersonatedUser != null) impersonatedUser.Undo(); } Now here is the interesting/weird part. In my network the application can already access the network drive, and if I try to impersonate the active user (exactly the same user, including the same domain) it will not be able to access the network drive. This leaves me helpless since now I have no idea what works and what doesn't, and more to the point, will it work on site? What am I missing?

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  • Running multiple instances of tomcat in eclipse WTP

    - by lisak
    Hey, SCENARIO: 10 CATALINA_BASEs with own configuration (always the same port numbers 8080, but 10 different IP/hostnames on one host via virtual IPs). created a server in WTP and pick "Use the custom location" option in the server configuration in eclipse. New configuration files are created in workspace/Server/server-name-config/ Set up the server path and deploy path for my catalina base (not the internal .metadata one) After I started it, the new configuration files overwrote the original catalina-base/conf files I had there - I was glad, it should be like this but after I made changes in the eclipse config files workspace/Server/server-name-config/ and restarted the server, the changes didn't appeared in the original files in CATALINA_BASE/conf What the hell is that ? So I set the CATALINA_BASE/conf/server.xml to fault configuration and restarted tomcat from eclipse and it worked ! it took the configuration from /Server/server-name-config/server.xml Then I deleted CATALINA_BASE/conf/server.xml and it said that there is no server.xml in catalina base ! How is it possible ? I don't understand why eclipse WTP developers made so tight integration. There should by just symbolic links in /Server/server-name-config/ pointing to CATALINA_BASE/conf/ ... now there is a weird system which is totally unpredictable. The changes in /Server/server-name-config/ are not reflected in CATALINA_BASE/conf ... from where the standard bootstrap.jar or other catalina classloaders and classes build server, engine and other objects with particular setting. Moreover the CATALINA_BASEs could be used outside eclipse then. The second problem, I'm setting up various things in CATALINA_BASE/bin/startup.sh and setenv.sh which is easy cause I can use bash for it. Is then modifying VM parameters in the "Open launch configuration" settings the only way how to do it in eclipse ? Sorry for such a huge pile of questions, but I'm annoyed by the fact that it is much better to not use eclipse WTP for this because it is very poorly designed and it's a shame because this would spare me a lot of time. And using the internal .metadata/ instances it's even more terrifying way that the one I described.

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  • Debugging strategy to find the cause of bad_alloc

    - by SalamiArmi
    I have a fairly serious bug in my program - occasional calls to new() throw a bad_alloc. From the documentation I can find on bad_alloc, it seems to be thrown for these reasons: When the computer runs out of memory (which definitely isn't happening, I have 4GB of RAM, program throws bad_alloc when using less than 5MB (checked in taskmanager) with nothing serious running in the background). If the memory becomes too fragmented to allocate new blocks (which, again, is unlikely - the largest sized block I ever allocate would be about 1KB, and that doesn't get done more than 100 times before the crash occurs). Based on these descriptions, I don't really have anywhere in which a bad_alloc could be thrown. However, the application I am running runs more than one thread, which could possibly be contributing to the problem. By testing all of the objects on a single thread, everything seems to be working smoothly. The only other thing that I can think of that is going on here could be some kind of race-condition caused by calling new() in more than one place at the same time, but I've tried adding mutexes to prevent that behaviour to no effect. Because the program is several hundred lines and I have no idea where the problem actually lies, I'm not sure of what, if any, code snippets to post. Instead, I was wondering if there were any tools that will help me test for this kind of thing, or if there are any general strategies that can help me with this problem. I'm using Microsoft Visual Studio 2008, with Poco for threading.

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  • UIView coordinate transforms on rotation during keyboard appearance

    - by SG
    iPad app; I'm trying to resize my view when the keyboard appears. It amounts to calling this code at appropriate times: CGRect adjustedFrame = self.frame; adjustedFrame.size.height -= keyboardFrame.size.height; [self setFrame:adjustedFrame]; Using this technique for a view contained in a uisplitview-based app works in all 4 orientations, but I've since discovered that a vanilla uiview-based app does not work. What happens is that apparently the uisplitview is smart enough to convert the coordinates of its subviews (their frame) such that the origin is in the "viewer's top left" regardless of the orientation. However, a uiview is not able to correctly report these coordinates. Though the origin is reported as (0,0) in all orientations, the view's effective origin is always as if the ipad were upright. What is weird about this is that the view correctly rotates and draws, but it always originates in the literal device top left. How can I get the view to correctly make its origin the "top left" to the viewer, not the device's fixed top left? What am I missing? Please, for something so trivial I've spent about 6 hours on this already with every brute force technique and research angle I could think of. This is the original source which doesn't work in this case: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1951826/move-up-uitoolbar

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  • MSN Messenger API

    - by MarceloRamires
    back when I was not working with programming (using skills from courses and school) I started developing a simple program that is supposed to get the Artwork of the album to which the song you're currently listening in iTunes to and set it as you Display Picture in MSN Messenger (everything had to be open at the same time). I was so excited about it, made it as nicely as I could back then (now I consider it a design and usability complete fail), and it surprisingly worked. Now, a couple of versions ahead (MSN from 8.5 to 9.0, iTunes from 8 to 9, and windows from Vista to 7) I am getting some incompatibility issues. Where I work, I use Windows 7, Windows Live Messenger 2009 and iTunes 9 - it works just just like before, but at home I have the same exact setup, but something weird happens: When I open the program (having my itunes AND msn open) it doesn't use the active MSN instance, instead it opens a new one, and doesn't work even on this opened one. I've tried it with a couple of libraries: Interop.Messenger.dll - workis like described above Interop.MessengerAPI.dll - works like described above Interop.MessengerPrivate.dll - never worked MSNMessenger.dll - the one I used before - doesn't work anymore at all What could I do ? Info: Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, C#, WinForms application. I'll watch this question and add any information if requested

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  • sqrt(int_value + 0.0) -- Does it have a purpose?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, while doing some homework in my very strange C++ book, which I've been told before to throw away, had a very peculiar code segment. I know homework stuff always throws in extra "mystery" to try to confuse you like indenting 2 lines after a single-statement for-loop. But this one I'm confused on because it seems to serve some real-purpose. basically it is like this: int counter=10; ... if(pow(floor(sqrt(counter+0.0)),2) == counter) ... I'm interested in this part especially: sqrt(counter+0.0) Is there some purpose to the +0.0? Is this the poormans way of doing a static cast to a double? Does this avoid some compiler warning on some compiler I do not use? The entire program printed the exact same thing and compiled without warnings on g++ whenever I left out the +0.0 part. Maybe I'm not using a weird enough compiler? Edit: Also, does gcc just break standard and not make an error for Ambiguous reference since sqrt can take 3 different types of parameters? [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ cat calc.cpp #include <cmath> int main(){ int counter=0; sqrt(counter); } [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ g++ calc.cpp /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcpy() is almost always misused, please use strlcpy() /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcat() is almost always misused, please use strlcat() [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $

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  • How can I check whether Exposé is being activated or not?

    - by yangumi
    Hi, I'm creating an application that emulates MacBook's multi-touch Trackpad. As you may know, on MacBook's trackpad if you swipe 4 fingers up, it triggers the Show Desktop. if you swipe 4 fingers down, it shows the Exposé. However, if the Show Desktop is being activated and you swipe 4 fingers down, it will come back to the normal mode. The same goes with the Exposé: if the Exposé is being activated and you swipe 4 fingers up, it will also come back to the normal mode. Here is the problem: I use the keyboard shortcut F3 to show the Exposé and F11 to show the Show Desktop. The problem is, when the Show Desktop is being activated, if I press F3, it will go straight to the Exposé. And when the Exposé is being activated, if I press F11 it will go straight to the Show Desktop. But I want it to behave like Trackpad, which I guess its code may look like this - FourFingersDidSwipeUp { if (isExposeBeingActivated() || isShowDesktopBeingActivated()) { pressKey("Esc"); } else { pressKey("F11"); } } But I don't know how to implement the "isExposeBeingActivated()" and "isShowDesktopBeingActivated()" methods. I've tried creating a window and check whether its size has changed (on assumption that if the Expose is being activated, its size should be smaller), but the system always returns the same size. I tried monitoring the background processes during the Expose, but nothing happened. Does anyknow have any suggestions on this? (I'm sorry if my English sounds weird.)

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  • Duplicate entries on mysql on insert using doctrine

    - by Nikos Galis
    Hi all! I am facing a very weird problem with mysql and doctrine [with help of codeIgniter]. I am trying to make a simple migration script taking all records from one table and after a little process, saving them to another. However, on my laptop [running windows and wamp] I get double numbers of the original table records to have been copied to the destination table. In my colleagues' laptops, everything works fine! We are all using mysql 5.0.86 [plus windows plus wamp]. Here is the code : function buggy_function(){ $this->db(); //get db connection $q = Doctrine_Query::create()->from('Oldtable r'); $oldrecords = $q->fetchArray(); $count = 0; foreach ($oldrecords as $oldrecord){ $newrecord = new NewTableClass(); $newrecord->password = md5($oldrecord['password']); $newrecord->save(); echo $newrecord->id. ' Id -> saved.' } } Simple as that! I have 39 records on the Old table and I am getting 78 records in the new table, which are exactly the same records, except from the unique primary key. It seems as if the script runs twice. But the output of the script is the following : 1 Id -> saved. 2 Id -> saved. ... ... 39 Id -> saved. Do you have any idea why this is happening? Any known bug for mysql? Thank you in advanced!'

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  • Trouble parsing quotes with SAX parser (javax.xml.parsers.SAXParser) on Android API 1.5

    - by johnrock
    When using a SAX parser, parsing fails when there is a " in the node content. How can I resolve this? Do I need to convert all " characters? In other words, anytime I have a quote in a node: <node>characters in node containing "quotes"</node> That node gets butchered into multiple character arrays when the Handler is parsing it. Is this normal behaviour? Why should quotes cause such a problem? Here is the code I am using: import javax.xml.parsers.SAXParser; import javax.xml.parsers.SAXParserFactory; import org.apache.http.HttpEntity; import org.apache.http.HttpResponse; import org.apache.http.client.methods.HttpGet; import org.xml.sax.InputSource; import org.xml.sax.XMLReader; ... HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(GATEWAY_URL + "/"+ question.getId()); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", PayloadService.userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response = PayloadService.getHttpclient().execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if(entity != null) { SAXParserFactory spf = SAXParserFactory.newInstance(); SAXParser sp = spf.newSAXParser(); XMLReader xr = sp.getXMLReader(); ConvoHandler convoHandler = new ConvoHandler(); xr.setContentHandler(convoHandler); xr.parse(new InputSource(entity.getContent())); entity.consumeContent(); messageList = convoHandler.getMessageList(); }

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  • Firefox drags div like it was an image, javascript event handlers possibly to blame

    - by user281434
    Hi, I'm using this HTML,CSS and Javascript code (in one document together if you want to test it out): <style type="text/css"> #slider_container { width: 200px; height: 30px; background-color: red; display:block; } #slider { width: 20px; height: 30px; background-color: blue; display:block; position:absolute; left:0; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="../../js/libs/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#slider").mousedown(function() { $(document).mousemove(function(evnt) { $("#test").html("sliding"); }).mouseup(function() { $("#test").html("not sliding"); $(document).unbind("mousemove mouseup"); });}); }); </script> <div id="test">a</div> <div id="slider_container"> <div id="slider"></div> </div> Everything (surprisingly) works fine in IE, but firefox seems to totally clusterf*ck when this javascript is used. The first "slide" is okay, you drag, it says "sliding", you drop, it says "not sliding". On the second "slide" (or mousedown if you will), firefox suddenly thinks the div is an image or link and wants to drag it around. Screenshot of the dragging: http://i.imgur.com/nPJxZ.jpg Obviously the blue div half-positioned in the red div is the one being dragged. Windows does not capture the cursor when you take a screenshot, but it's a stop sign. Is there someway to prevent this default behaviour?

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  • Locking issues with replacing files on a website

    - by Moe Sisko
    I want to replace existing files on an IIS website with updated versions. Say these files are large pdf documents, which can be accessed via hyperlinks. The site is up 24x7, so I'm concerned about locking issues when a file is being updated at exactly the same time that someone is trying to read the file. The files are updated using C# code run on the server. I can think of two options for opening the file for writing. Option 1) Open the file for writing, using FileShare.Read : using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(path, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.Read)) While this file is open, and a user requests the same file for reading in a web browser via a hyperlink, the document opens up as a blank page. Option 2) Open the file for writing using FileShare.None : using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(path, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) While this file is open, and a user requests the same file for reading in a web browser via a hyperlink, the browser shows an error. In IE 8, you get HTTP 500, "The website cannot display the page", and in Firefox 3.5, you get : "The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process." The browser behaviour kind of makes sense, and seem reasonable. I guess its highly unlikely that a user will attempt to read a file at exactly the same time you are updating it. It would be nice if somehow, the file update was atomic, like updating a database with SQL wrapped around a transaction. I'm wondering if you guys worry about this sort of thing, and prefer either of the above options, or even have other options of your own for updating files.

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  • Error Log states that I have MySQL connect error, yet script runs fine

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hello All, First, thanks for all the help I've received so far from StackOverflow. I've learned much. Once again, I'm posing a rudimentary question that I've searched on, but cannot find the exact answer to. Here or on PHP.net. It's sort of like what this guy asked, but not exactly: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/288603/mysql-throwing-query-error-yet-finishing-query-just-fine-why So, I saw my errorlog ballooning up when I checked my site directory and opened to notice that a bunch of errors have been recorded since I wrote this new Admin area. I know something is obviously awry with my scripting for the error to be thrown, but the weird thing is, the script actually runs through and pulls all the data I need without breaking. The log contains: PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: Access denied for user 'someuser'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 I don't get that because that very line is where I setup my connection... the exact same way I do it everywhere else on the site with no problem. After that error, I have these thrown at the same time [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: A link to the server could not be established in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_fetch_array(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 16 From what I read in the other guys thread, the problem is the contents of the query maybe? Maybe my query is malformed? Thanks so much for any guidance you can provide. -Rob

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  • Mysterious socket / HttpWebRequest timeouts

    - by Daniel Mošmondor
    I have a great app for capturing shoutcast streams :-) . So far, it worked with a charm on dozens of machines, and never exhibited behaviour I found now, which is ultimately very strange. I use HttpWebRequest to connect to the shoutcast server and when I connect two streams, everything's OK. When I go for third one, response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); throws with Connection Timeout exception. WTF? I must point out that I had to create .config for the application in order to allow my headers to be sent out from the application, otherwise it wouldn't work at all. Here it is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.net> <settings> <httpWebRequest useUnsafeHeaderParsing = "true" /> </settings> </system.net> </configuration> Does any of this ring a bell?

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • Designer serialization persistence problem in .NET, Windows Forms

    - by Jules
    ETA: I have a similar, smaller, problem here which, I suspect, is related to this problem. I have a class which has a readonly property that holds a collection of components (* not quite, see below). At design time, it's possible to select from the components on the design surface to add to the collection. (Think imagelist, but instead of selecting one, you can select as many as you want.) As a test, I inherit from button and attach my class to it as a property. The persistence problem occurs when I add a component,to the collection, from the design surface after I have added my button to the form. The best way to demonstrate this is to show you the designer generated code: Private Sub InitializeComponent() Dim Provider1 As WindowsApplication1.Provider = New WindowsApplication1.Provider Me.MyComponent2 = New WindowsApplication1.MyComponent Me.MyComponent1 = New WindowsApplication1.MyComponent Me.MyButton1 = New WindowsApplication1.MyButton Me.MyComponent3 = New WindowsApplication1.MyComponent Me.SuspendLayout() ' 'MyButton1 ' Me.MyButton1.ProviderCollection.Add(Me.MyButton1.InternalProvider) Me.MyButton1.ProviderCollection.Add(Me.MyComponent1.Provider) Me.MyButton1.ProviderCollection.Add(Me.MyComponent2.Provider) Me.MyButton1.ProviderCollection.Add(Provider1) //Wrong should be Me.MyComponent3.Provider ' 'Form1 ' Me.Controls.Add(Me.MyButton1) End Sub Friend WithEvents MyComponent1 As WindowsApplication1.MyComponent Friend WithEvents MyComponent2 As WindowsApplication1.MyComponent Friend WithEvents MyButton1 As WindowsApplication1.MyButton Friend WithEvents MyComponent3 As WindowsApplication1.MyComponent End Class As you can see from the code, the collection is not actually a collection of the components, but a collection of a property, 'Provider', from the components. It looks like the problem is occurring because MyComponent3 is created after MyButton. However, in my opinion, this should not make any difference - by the time the serializer comes to add the provider property of MyComponent3, it's already created. Note: You may wonder, why I'm not using AddRange to persist the collection. The reason for this is that if I do, the behaviour changes and none of the items will persist correctly. The designer will create local fields - like Provider1 - for each item in the collection. However if I add another collection to the class which holds the actual MyComponents and persist this, then, somehow, the AddRange method persists correctly in ProviderCollection! There seems to be some kind of quantum double slit experiment going down in code dom. How can I solve this problem?

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  • Why do properties behave this way?

    - by acidzombie24
    from http://csharpindepth.com/Articles/Chapter8/PropertiesMatter.aspx using System; struct MutableStruct { public int Value { get; set; } public void SetValue(int newValue) { Value = newValue; } } class MutableStructHolder { public MutableStruct Field; public MutableStruct Property { get; set; } } class Test { static void Main(string[] args) { MutableStructHolder holder = new MutableStructHolder(); // Affects the value of holder.Field holder.Field.SetValue(10); // Retrieves holder.Property as a copy and changes the copy holder.Property.SetValue(10); Console.WriteLine(holder.Field.Value); Console.WriteLine(holder.Property.Value); } } 1) Why is a copy (of Property?) being made? 2) When changing the code to holder.Field.value and holder.Property.value = 10 i get the error below. That just blew my mind Error 1 Cannot modify the return value of 'MutableStructHolder.Property' because it is not a variable Why would i ever not be allowed to assign a value inside of a property!?! both property are get/set! and finally WHY would you EVER want behavior mentioned in 1 and 2. (It never came up for me, i always used get only properties). Please explain well, i cant imagine ever wanting the 2nd much less then the first. It is just so weird to me.

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  • Synchronization of Nested Data Structures between Threads in Java

    - by Dominik
    I have a cache implementation like this: class X { private final Map<String, ConcurrentMap<String, String>> structure = new HashMap...(); public String getValue(String context, String id) { // just assume for this example that there will be always an innner map final ConcurrentMap<String, String> innerStructure = structure.get(context); String value = innerStructure.get(id); if(value == null) { synchronized(structure) { // can I be sure, that this inner map will represent the last updated // state from any thread? value = innerStructure.get(id); if(value == null) { value = getValueFromSomeSlowSource(id); innerStructure.put(id, value); } } } return value; } } Is this implementation thread-safe? Can I be sure to get the last updated state from any thread inside the synchronized block? Would this behaviour change if I use a java.util.concurrent.ReentrantLock instead of a synchronized block, like this: ... if(lock.tryLock(3, SECONDS)) { try { value = innerStructure.get(id); if(value == null) { value = getValueFromSomeSlowSource(id); innerStructure.put(id, value); } } finally { lock.unlock(); } } ... I know that final instance members are synchronized between threads, but is this also true for the objects held by these members? Maybe this is a dumb question, but I don't know how to test it to be sure, that it works on every OS and every architecture.

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  • After Navigate2 Method returns S_OK Stuck at READYSTATE of READYSTATE_LOADING

    - by Stone Free
    I am working on a MFC Document View architecture application which has multiple documents and views and a tabbed window interface. I have been tasked with making an automatic switch to another tab on the press of the OK button in one of the other tabs. When the other tab is clicked on it uses a C++ wrapper over IWebBrowser2 to navigate to a specific web page. When this is done manually by clicking on the tab everything is fine and the webpage within the view loads successfully. In my first attempt at doing this the tab successfully switched in response to a call to AfxGetMainWnd()->SendMessageToDescendants(SOME_MESSAGE, ...); however by sending this windows message at the wrong point the application would crash once control returned because the chain of events caused the (modeless) dialog (*) that sent the message, to no longer exist. I then found the correct place to make the call, but now when the other tab is activated, it no longer displays the webpage as it should. To debug this problem I added code to check the READYSTATE in both the situation where it works and the situation where it does not. When the page fails to load (despite the call to Navigate2 returning S_OK), the READYSTATE just stays at READYSTATE_LOADING. Unfortunately now I am to many edits away from when I had it partially working. I have added TRACE statements to the most obvious events such as OnSetFocus, CView::OnActivateView but all traces come out in the same order despite the behaviour being different * hosted in the view

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  • My OpenCL kernel is slower on faster hardware.. But why?

    - by matdumsa
    Hi folks, As I was finishing coding my project for a multicore programming class I came up upon something really weird I wanted to discuss with you. We were asked to create any program that would show significant improvement in being programmed for a multi-core platform. I’ve decided to try and code something on the GPU to try out OpenCL. I’ve chosen the matrix convolution problem since I’m quite familiar with it (I’ve parallelized it before with open_mpi with great speedup for large images). So here it is, I select a large GIF file (2.5 MB) [2816X2112] and I run the sequential version (original code) and I get an average of 15.3 seconds. I then run the new OpenCL version I just wrote on my MBP integrated GeForce 9400M and I get timings of 1.26s in average.. So far so good, it’s a speedup of 12X!! But now I go in my energy saver panel to turn on the “Graphic Performance Mode” That mode turns off the GeForce 9400M and turns on the Geforce 9600M GT my system has. Apple says this card is twice as fast as the integrated one. Guess what, my timing using the kick-ass graphic card are 3.2 seconds in average… My 9600M GT seems to be more than two times slower than the 9400M.. For those of you that are OpenCL inclined, I copy all data to remote buffers before starting, so the actual computation doesn’t require roundtrip to main ram. Also, I let OpenCL determine the optimal local-worksize as I’ve read they’ve done a pretty good implementation at figuring that parameter out.. Anyone has a clue? edit: full source code with makefiles here http://www.mathieusavard.info/convolution.zip cd gimage make cd ../clconvolute make put a large input.gif in clconvolute and run it to see results

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  • Javascript error when attempting to open a modal window in a modal window

    - by The Sheek Geek
    The application is running on a windows server 2003 box using asp.net 2.0 and is an IE specific web app. There is a button that opens a form in an iframe using showModalDialog(...) from a function call located in the javascript. Here is an example of the fucntion: function ShowBusinessHoursSubForm( source ) { var retval = window.showModalDialog("htm/" + locLocaleID + "/SubFormHostFrame.htm", source, "dialogWidth:265px;dialogHeight:261px;help:no;scroll:no;status:no;"); } The host frame is loading an aspx page which contains the actual form that is being used. On the form that is opened there is a button that, when clicked, submits changed to the form. However, if no changed were made before the form was submitted, another modal window pops up stating that there were no changed to the form. This modal window is opened through registration of some javascript in the button click event. The code is as follows (C#): string l_S_ErrorScript = "<script type='text/javascript' language='javascript'>window.showModalDialog('htm/" + l_S_Culture + "/NotChangedErrorDialog.htm', '../../" + l_S_SkinPath + "', 'dialogWidth:310px;dialogHeight:145px;scroll:no;help:no;status:no;');</script>"; if(!m_Page.ClientScript.IsStartupScriptRegistered("ErrorScript")) { m_Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "ErrorScript", l_S_ErrorScript); } When the button is clicked and this dialog needs to appear the following javascript error appears: Error: Object doesn't support this property or method The weird thing is, if I access the application locally and try it everything works fine, but accessing from another computer causes the error. Also, depending on what server (we have many servers for testing all with windows server 2003) the error may not occur on another computer either. These computers are running the same software version using the same version of IE with the same settings. I'm inclined to believe that there is some configuration issue somewhere, but with the settings being the same it is hard to tell. I cannot really change how the app works or the technologies used either. Anyone have any ideas as to what may be causing this?

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  • ASP.NET putting dynamic controls on page in reverse messes up events

    - by Jimmy Geels
    I have this weird problem when putting textboxes on the page in reverse. The whole event system is messed up. Changing one textbox fires TextChange on all textboxes. I can fix this by putting the controls in a list first and then call add while iterating trough the list in reverse. But i just want to know why this fails. Heres some code (.net 2.0) public partial class _Default : Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { InitFields(); } private void InitFields() { int nrFields; //We have a static textbox called nrElements, this determines the number //of fields to initialize if (int.TryParse(nrElements.Text, out nrFields)) { //Put all the dynamic fields on the screen in reverse order foreach(Control t in GetDynamicFields(nrFields)) { //Calling Controls.Add works fine //Calling Controls.AddAt messes up the events //Try changing different textboxes plhFields.Controls.AddAt(0, t); } } } private IEnumerable<Control> GetDynamicFields(int nrFields) { for (int i = 0; i < nrFields; i++) { TextBox txtBox = new TextBox(); txtBox.ID = string.Format("dynTextBox{0}", i.ToString()); txtBox.AutoPostBack = true; txtBox.TextChanged += t_TextChanged; yield return txtBox; } } private void t_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { TextBox txtBox = sender as TextBox; if (txtBox != null) txtBox.Text = txtBox.Text + "Changed "; } }

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  • Namespace Problem

    - by Tarik
    Hello, Normally we all do use using System.Linq; and using System.Data.Linq; for example on the code-behind and expect we can reach the members of these namespaces from Source Code like <%= Something.First()%> but when I wrote it, asp.net said it couldn't find First() in the context and I had to add <%@ Import Namespace="System.Linq" which looked very weird to me but it worked out. Since they are targeting at the same class why they both need separate namespace importing. Code-behind : using System; using System.Data.Linq; using System.Linq; using System.Text namespace Something { class Items : System.Web.UI { //... } } but also I need to add the same Linq namespace on the Html Source part <%@Import Namespace="System.Linq"%> Do I know something wrong or this is some kind of bug in asp.net. I thought when the page is compiling, asp.net combines these two classes and converts html source code into cs class and indicates the control in Control c= new Control(); hierarchy. Thanks in advance.

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