Search Results

Search found 44965 results on 1799 pages for 'presenter first'.

Page 203/1799 | < Previous Page | 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210  | Next Page >

• Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

  - by evanmortland

  Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

  Read the article

• SQL: Need help with query construction.

  - by Geeknidas

  Hi Guys, I am relatively new with sql and I need some help with some basic query construction. Problem: To retrieve the number of orders and the customer id from a table based on a set of parameters. I want to write a query to figure out the number of orders under each customer (Column: Customerid) along with the CustomerID where the number of orders should be greater or equal to 10 and the status of the order should be Active. Moreover, I also want to know the first transaction date of an order belonging to each customerid. Table Description: product_orders Orderid CustomerId Transaction_date Status ------- ---------- ---------------- ------- 1 23 2-2-10 Active 2 22 2-3-10 Active 3 23 2-3-10 Deleted 4 23 2-3-10 Active Query that I have written: select count(*), customerid from product_orders where status = 'Active' GROUP BY customerid ORDER BY customerid; The above statement gives me the sum of all order under a customer id but does not fulfil the condition of atleast 10 orders. I donot know how to display the first transaction date along with the order under a customerid (status: could be active or delelted doesn't matter) Ideal solutions should look like: Total Orders CustomerID Transaction Date (the first transaction date) ------------ ---------- ---------------- 11 23 1-2-10 Thanks in advance. I hope you guys would be kind enough to stop by and help me out. Cheers, Leonidas

  Read the article

• C++: Is there any good way to read/write without specifically stating character type in function nam

  - by Mark L.

  I'm having a problem getting a program to read from a file based on a template, for example: bool parse(basic_ifstream<T> &file) { T ch; locale loc = file.getloc(); basic_string<T> buf; file.unsetf(ios_base::skipws); if (file.is_open()) { while (file >> ch) { if(isalnum(ch, loc)) { buf += ch; } else if(!buf.empty()) { addWord(buf); buf.clear(); } } if(!buf.empty()) { addWord(buf); } return true; } return false; } This will work when I instantiate this class with <char>, but has problems when I use <wchar_t> (clearly). Outside of the class, I'm using: for (iter = mp.begin(); iter != mp.end(); ++iter ) { cout << iter->first << setw(textwidth - iter->first.length() + 1); cout << " " << iter->second << endl; } To write all of the information from this data struct (it's a map<basic_string<T>, int>), and as predicted, cout explodes if iter->first isn't a char array. I've looked online and the consensus is to use wcout, but unfortunately, since this program requires that the template can be changed at compile time (<char> - <wchar_t>) I'm not sure how I could get away with simply choosing cout or wcout. That is, unless there way a way to read/write wide characters without changing lots of code. If this explanation sounds awkwardly complicated, let me know and I'll address it as best I can.

  Read the article

• Model login constraints based on time

  - by DaDaDom

  Good morning, for an existing web application I need to implement "time based login constraints". It means that for each user, later maybe each group, I can define timeslots when they are (not) allowed to log in into the system. As all data for the application is stored in database tables, I need to somehow create a way to model this idea in that way. My first approach, I will try to explain it here: Create a tree of login constraints (called "timeslots") with the main "categories", like "workday", "weekend", "public holiday", etc. on the top level, which are in a "sorted" order (meaning "public holiday" has a higher priority than "weekday") for each top level node create subnodes, which have a finer timespan, like "monday", "tuesday", ... below that, create an "hour" level: 0, 1, 2, ..., 23. No further details are necessary. set every member to "allowed" by default For every member of the system create a 1:n relationship member:timeslots which defines constraints, e.g. a member A may have A:monday-forbidden and A:tuesday-forbidden Do a depth-first search at every login and check if the member has a constraint. Why a depth first search? Well, I thought that it may be that a member has the rules: A:monday->forbidden, A:monday-10->allowed, A:mondey-11->allowed So a login on monday at 12:30 would fail, but one at 10:30 succeed. For performance reasons I could break the relational database paradigm and set a flag for every entry in the member-to-timeslots-table which is set to true if the member has information set for "finer" timeslots, but that's a second step. Is this model in principle a good idea? Are there existing models? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Getting proper indentation using XMLBuilder in a helper

  - by Robbie

  I'm attempting to use a view helper to create some dynamic links based on if you're logged in or not. What I want returned, for sake of easy code readability, is: <ul class="right"> <li><a href="#">Login</a></li> <li><a href="#">Register</a></li> </ul> In the view helper I have this Ruby code: def loginh xm = Builder::XmlMarkup.new(:indent=>2, :margin=>4) xm.ul("class" => "right") { xm.li('class' => 'text') { xm.text("test") } } end In the view, the line that calls login helper is already indented 4 levels. Because of this, the first line gets 'skewed', so in the view I have: <%= loginh %> Which results in: <ul class="right"> <li class="text"> <text>test</text> </li> </ul> You can see it works perfectly, except for the first line. It would appear that the first line is affected by the indent before <%= loginh % is called. I can easily remedy this by removing the indentation prior to <%= loginh % - but in essence I'd be sacrificing code readability for markup readability. Which isn't what I'm looking to do. Is there any way I could remove the beginning whitespace?

  Read the article

• Calling jquery function from ascx not working

  - by Metju

  Hi Guys, I'm having a problem with the following situation. I have an ascx which contains a submit button for a search criteria and I am trying to call a validation function in a js file I've used throughout the site (this is the first time I'm using it in an ascx). Now I've just tried this: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jsAdmin_Generic_SystemValidation.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".submitBtn").click(function (e) { alert("test"); alert($.Validate()); alert("test 2"); }); }); </script> The file is being referenced correctly as I am already seeing posts in Firebug that are done by it. This is the function: jQuery.extend({ Validate: function () { does validation... }); Now at first I was getting "Validate() is not a function" in firebug. Since I did that alert testing, I am getting the first alert, then nothing with no errors. Can anyone shed some light? Thanks

  Read the article

• UpdatePanel refreshes only once

  - by superexsl

  Hi, I have two updatepanels inside an accordion control, laid out like this: <accordion> <first pane content> <updatepanel UpdateMode="conditional"> <contenttemplate>...</contenttemplate> <triggers>...</triggers> </updatepanel> </first pane content> <second pane content> <updatepanel> <contenttemplate>...</contenttemplate> <triggers>...</triggers> </updatepanel> </second pane content> </accordion> The panel updates once, but after that, no updates take place. If I refresh the page, then I can see the updated information. This means that the database is being updated, but the updatepanel isn't refreshing (after refreshing the first time). Why is this happening? This has been bugging me for days, so any advice would be much appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• VBScript: Disable caching of response from server to HTTP GET URL request

  - by Rob

  I want to turn off the cache used when a URL call to a server is made from VBScript running within an application on a Windows machine. What function/method/object do I use to do this? When the call is made for the first time, my Linux based Apache server returns a response back from the CGI Perl script that it is running. However, subsequent runs of the script seem to be using the same response as for the first time, so the data is being cached somewhere. My server logs confirm that the server is not being called in those subsequent times, only in the first time. This is what I am doing. I am using the following code from within a commercial application (don't wish to mention this application, probably not relevant to my problem): With CreateObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") .open "GET", "http://myserver/cgi-bin/nsr/nsr.cgi?aparam=1", False .send nsrresponse =.responseText End With Is there a function/method on the above object to turn off caching, or should I be calling a method/function to turn off the caching on a response object before making the URL? I looked here for a solution: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms535874(VS.85).aspx - not quite helpful enough. And here: http://www.w3.org/TR/XMLHttpRequest/ - very unfriendly and hard to read. I am also trying to force not using the cache using http header settings and html document header meta data: Snippet of server-side Perl CGI script that returns the response back to the calling client, set expiry to 0. print $httpGetCGIRequest-header( -type = 'text/html', -expires = '+0s', ); Http header settings in response sent back to client: <html><head><meta http-equiv="CACHE-CONTROL" content="NO-CACHE"></head> <body> response message generated from server </body> </html> The above http header and html document head settings haven't worked, hence my question.

  Read the article

• C++ Map Question

  - by Wallace

  Hi. I'm working on my C++ assignment about soccer and I encountered a problem with map. My problem that I encountered is that when I stored 2 or more "midfielders" as the key, even the cout data shows different, but when I do a multiplication on the 2nd -second value, it "adds up" the first -second value and multiply with it. E.g. John midfielder 1 Steven midfielder 3 I have a program that already reads in the playerPosition. So the map goes like this: John 1 (Key, Value) Steven 3 (Key, Value) if(playerName == a-first && playerPosition == "midfielder") { cout << a-second*2000 << endl; //number of goals * $2000 } So by right, the program should output: 2000 6000 But instead, I'm getting 2000 8000 So, I'm assuming it adds the 1 to 3 (resulting in 4) and multiplying with 2000, which is totally wrong... I tried cout a-first and a-second in the program and I get: John 1 Steven 3 But after the multiplication, it's totally different. Any ideas? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Uninitialized array offset

  - by kimmothy16

  Hey everyone, I am using PHP to create a form with an array of fields. Basically you can add an unlimited number of 'people' to the form and each person has a first name, last name, and phone number. The form requires that you add a phone number for the first person only. If you leave the phone number field blank on any others, the handler file is supposed to be programmed to use the phone number from the first person. So, my fields are: person[] - a hidden field with a value that is this person's primary key. fname[] - an input field lname[] - an input field phone[] - an input field My form handler looks like this: $people = $_POST['person'] $counter = 0; foreach($people as $person): if($phone[$counter] == '') { // use $phone[0]'s phone number } else { // use $phone[$counter] number } $counter = $counter + 1; endforeach; PHP doesn't like this though, it is throwing me an Notice: Uninitialized string offset error. I debugged it by running the is_array function on people, fname, lname, and phone and it returns true to being an array. I can also manually echo out $phone[2], etc. and get the correct value. I've also ran is_int on the $counter variable and it returned true, so I'm unsure why this isn't working as intended? Any help would be great!

  Read the article

• How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

  - by Gnee

  I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

  Read the article

• Using Flash comboboxes with Jaws

  - by Zoe Gagnon

  I'm working on a project for a government agency which requires 508 compliance. Our product is written for Flash 10 in ActionScript 3 using Flash CS4. We are doing this 100% programatically. We have almost all of the elements working properly, but when accessing combobox components, we have a problem. The combobox can be tabbed to directly with no problem, and the drop-down can be navigated directly with the arrow keys. However, when navigating, it reads the last item in the dropdown, not the current. For example, consider a combobox with the list of selections: first, second. Jaws reads the prompt fine, but when we press the down arrow to select the first item, it reads nothing. Pressing the down arrow again (so "second" is selected) causes it to read "first". Pressing down a final time causes it to read "second". I am completely baffled by this, and it is probably as likely that we don't know how to use Jaws, or that Flash simply can't support this function properly. If you have any suggestions for how we can resolve this, I would really appreciate it.

  Read the article

• Launch .jar files with command line arguments (but with no console window)

  - by Virat Kadaru

  I have to do a demo of an application, the application has a server.jar and client.jar. Both have command line arguments and are executable. I need to launch two instances of server.jar and two instances of client.jar. I thought that using a batch file was the way to go, but, the batch file executes the first command (i.e. server.bat [argument1] [argument2]) and does not do anything else unless I close the first instance, in which case it then runs the 2nd command. And also the I do not want a blank console window to open (or be minimized) What I really need is a batch script that will just launch these apps without any console windows and launch all instances that I need. Thanks in Advance! EDIT: javaw: works if I type the command into the console window individually. If I put the same in the batch file, it will behave as before. Console window opens, one instance starts (whichever was first) and it does not proceed further unless I close the application in which case it runs the 2nd command. I want it to run all commands silently SOLUTION: Found the solution, below is the contents of my batch file @echo off start /B server.jar [arg1] [arg2] start /B server.jar [arg3] [arg4] @echo on this opens, runs all the commands and closes the window, does not wait for the command to finish.

  Read the article

• Are Fortran control characters (carriage control) still implemented in compilers?

  - by CmdrGuard

  In the book Fortran 95/2003 for Scientists and Engineers, there is much talk given to the importance of recognizing that the first column in a format statement is reserved for control characters. I've also seen control characters referred to as carriage control on the internet. To avoid confusion, by control characters, I refer to the characters "1, a blank (i.e. \s), 0, and +" as having an effect on the vertical spacing of output when placed in the first column (character) of a FORMAT statement. Also, see this text-only web page written entirely in fixed-width typeface : Fortran carriage-control (because nothing screams accuracy and antiquity better than prose in monospaced font). I found this page and others like it to be not quite clear. According to Fortran 95/2003 for Scientists and Engineers, failure to recall that the first column is reserved for carriage control can lead to horrible unintended output. Paraphrasing Dave Barry, type the wrong character, and nuclear missiles get fired at Norway. However, when I attempt to adhere to this stern warning, I find that gfortran has no idea what I'm talking about. Allow me to illustrate my point with some example code. I am trying to print out the number Pi: PROGRAM test_format IMPLICIT NONE REAL :: PI = 2 * ACOS(0.0) WRITE (*, 100) PI WRITE (*, 200) PI WRITE (*, 300) PI 100 FORMAT ('1', "New page: ", F11.9) 200 FORMAT (' ', "Single Space: ", F11.9) 300 FORMAT ('0', "Double Space: ", F11.9) END PROGRAM test_format This is the output: 1New page: 3.141592741 Single Space: 3.141592741 0Double Space: 3.141592741 The "1" and "0" are not typos. It appears that gfortran is completely ignoring the control character column. My question, then, is this: Are control characters still implemented in standards compliant compilers or is gfortran simply not standards compliant? For clarity, here is the output of my gfortran -v Using built-in specs. Target: powerpc-apple-darwin9 Configured with: ../gcc-4.4.0/configure --prefix=/sw --prefix=/sw/lib/gcc4.4 --mandir=/sw/share/man --infodir=/sw/share/info --enable-languages=c,c++,fortran,objc,java --with-gmp=/sw --with-libiconv-prefix=/sw --with-ppl=/sw --with-cloog=/sw --with-system-zlib --x-includes=/usr/X11R6/include --x-libraries=/usr/X11R6/lib --disable-libjava-multilib --build=powerpc-apple-darwin9 --host=powerpc-apple-darwin9 --target=powerpc-apple-darwin9 Thread model: posix gcc version 4.4.0 (GCC)

  Read the article

• pthread condition variables on Linux, odd behaviour.

  - by janesconference

  Hi. I'm synchronizing reader and writer processes on Linux. I have 0 or more process (the readers) that need to sleep until they are woken up, read a resource, go back to sleep and so on. Please note I don't know how many reader processes are up at any moment. I have one process (the writer) that writes on a resource, wakes up the readers and does its business until another resource is ready (in detail, I developed a no starve reader-writers solution, but that's not important). To implement the sleep / wake up mechanism I use a Posix condition value, pthread_cond_t. The clients call a pthread_cond_wait() on the variable to sleep, while the server does a pthread_cond_broadcast() to wake them all up. As the manual says, I surround these two calls with a lock/unlock of the associated pthread mutex. The condition variable and the mutex are initialized in the server and shared between processes through a shared memory area (because I'm not working with threads, but with separate processes) an I'm sure my kernel / syscall support it (because I checked _POSIX_THREAD_PROCESS_SHARED). What happens is that the first client process sleeps and wakes up perfectly. When I start the second process, it blocks on its pthread_cond_wait() and never wakes up, even if I'm sure (by the logs) that pthread_cond_broadcast() is called. If I kill the first process, and launch another one, it works perfectly. In other words, the condition variable pthread_cond_broadcast() seems to wake up only one process a time. If more than one process wait on the very same shared condition variable, only the first one manages to wake up correctly, while the others just seem to ignore the broadcast. Why this behaviour? If I send a pthread_cond_broadcast(), every waiting process should wake up, not just one (and, however, not always the same one).

  Read the article

• Text message intent - catch and send

  - by Espen

  Hi! I want to be able to control incoming text messages. My application is still on a "proof of concept" version and I'm trying to learn Android programming as I go. First my application need to catch incomming text messages. And if the message is from a known number then deal with it. If not, then send the message as nothing has happened to the default text message application. I have no doubt it can be done, but I still have some concern and I see some pitfalls at how things are done on Android. So getting the incomming text message could be fairly easy - except when there are other messaging applications installed and maybe the user wants to have normal text messages to pop up on one of them - and it will, after my application has had a look at it first. How to be sure my application get first pick of incomming text messages? And after that I need to send most text messages through to any other text message application the user has chosen so the user can actually read the message my application didn't need. Since Android uses intents that are relative at best, I don't see how I can enforce my application to get a peek at all incomming text messages, and then stop it or send it through to the default text messaging application...

  Read the article

• Trouble passing JSP values to ActionForm (Struts)

  - by tacotime

  Hi, I am a newbie to Struts and have inherited a problem. I am trying to pass 3 values contained in the same table cell from a JSP to my ActionForm class. The first value (and others in the JSP) work fine, but for some reason the other two do not. I have the appropriate getters and setters, but only the first (newrecnum) shows up, the other two are null. Is there a limitation to only pass the first value? Or is there something else wrong? Here is the JSP code: <td> <html:text size="10" maxlength="10" property="newrecnum"/><br> <html:text size="5" maxlength="5" property="newrectime"/> <html:select property="newreccode" disabled="true"> <html:option value="YES">YES</html:option> <html:option value="NO">NO</html:option></html:select> </td> I can include the ActionForm code as well if needed. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Entity Framework - refresh objects from database

  - by Nebo

  I'm having trouble with refreshing objects in my database. I have an two PC's and two applications. On the first PC, there's an application which communicates with my database and adds some data to Measurements table. On my other PC, there's an application which retrives the latest Measurement under a timer, so it should retrive measurements added by the application on my first PC too. The problem is it doesn't. On my application start, it caches all the data from database and never get new data added. I use Refresh() method which works well when I change any of the cached data, but it doesn't refresh newly added data. Here is my method which should update the data: public static Entities myEntities = new Entities(); public static Measurement GetLastMeasurement(int conditionId) { myEntities.Refresh(RefreshMode.StoreWins, myEntities.Measurements); return (from measurement in myEntities.Measurements where measurement.ConditionId == conditionId select measurement).OrderByDescending(cd => cd.Timestamp).First(); } P.S. Applications have different connection strings in app.config (different accounts for the same DB).

  Read the article

• Best practice PHP Form Action

  - by Rob

  Hi there i've built a new script (from scratch not a CMS) and i've done alot of work on reducing memory usage and the time it takes for the page to be displayed (caching HTML etc) There's one thing that i'm not sure about though. Take a simple example of an article with a comments section. If the comment form posts to another page that then redirects back to the article page I won't have the problem of people clicking refresh and resending the information. However if I do it that way, I have to load up my script twice use twice as much memory and it takes twice as long whilst i'm still only displaying the page once. Here's an example from my load log. The first load of the article is from the cache, the second rebuilds the page after the comment is posted. Example 1 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.018667 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1325723 bytes of memory in 0.075825 - domain.com/article/1/my_article/newcomment.html 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.029449 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Example 2 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.023526 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1659096 bytes of memory in 0.060032 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Obviously the time fluctuates so you can't really compare that. But as you can see with the first method I use more memory and it takes longer to load. BUT the first method avoides the refresh problem. Does anyone have any suggestions for the best approach or for alternative ways to avoid the extra load (admittadely minimal but i'd still like to avoid it) whilst also avoiding the refresh problem?

  Read the article

• Hide anchors using jQuery

  - by Eric Di Bari

  I've created a dynamic page that, depending on the view type, will sometimes utilize the anchor tags and other times not. Essentially, I want to be able to control if on click the page jumps to the anchor. Is it possible to hide anchor tags using jQUery, so they are essentially removed? I need to be able to re-enable the anchors when necessary, and always show the current anchor in the browser's address bar. It seems to work in FireFox, but not in Internet Explorer. I have three sections: the 'table of contents', the content, and the javascript (jQuery) code Table of Contents <a id="expandLink0" class="expandLinksList" href="#green">What is green purchasing</a><br> <a id="expandLink1" class="expandLinksList" href="#before">Before you buy</a><br> Contents <ul id="makeIntoSlideshowUL">' <li id="slideNumber0" class="slideShowSlide"> <a name="green"></a> <div>Green Purchasing refers to the procurement of products and service...<a href="#topOfPageAnchor" class="topOfPageAnchorClass">Back to Top</a></div> </li> <li id="slideNumber1" class="slideShowSlide"> <a name="before"></a> <div>We easily accomplish the first four bullet points under...<a href="#topOfPageAnchor" class="topOfPageAnchorClass">Back to Top</a></div> </li> </ul> jQuery On Page Load $(".slideShowSlide").each(function() { $(this).children(":first-child").hide(); }); jQuery to re-enable links $(".slideShowSlide").each(function() { $(this).children(":first-child").show(); });

  Read the article

• Silverlight 3 data-binding child property doesn't update

  - by sonofpirate

  I have a Silverlight control that has my root ViewModel object as it's data source. The ViewModel exposes a list of Cards as well as a SelectedCard property which is bound to a drop-down list at the top of the view. I then have a form of sorts at the bottom that displays the properties of the SelectedCard. My XAML appears as (reduced for simplicity): <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <ComboBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Cards}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedCard, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.Name}" /> <ListBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.PendingTransactions}" /> </StackPanel> I would expect the TextBlock and ListBox to update whenever I select a new item in the ComboBox, but this is not the case. I'm sure it has to do with the fact that the TextBlock and ListBox are actually bound to properties of the SelectedCard so it is listening for property change notifications for the properties on that object. But, I would have thought that data-binding would be smart enough to recognize that the parent object in the binding expression had changed and update the entire binding. It bears noting that the PendingTransactions property (bound to the ListBox) is lazy-loaded. So, the first time I select an item in the ComboBox, I do make the async call and load the list and the UI updates to display the information corresponding to the selected item. However, when I reselect an item, the UI doesn't change! For example, if my original list contains three cards, I select the first card by default. Data-binding does attempt to access the PendingTransactions property on that Card object and updates the ListBox correctly. If I select the second card in the list, the same thing happens and I get the list of PendingTransactions for that card displayed. But, if I select the first card again, nothing changes in my UI! Setting a breakpoint, I am able to confirm that the SelectedCard property is being updated correctly. How can I make this work???

  Read the article

• A little confusion about AJAX and inserting into DOM..

  - by Gnee

  I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. THanks!!

  Read the article

• haml - if-else with different identations

  - by egarcia

  Hi everyone, I'm trying to render a calendar with rails and haml. The dates used come from a variable called @dates. It is a Date range that contains the first and last days to be presented on the calendar. The first day is always sunday and the last one is always monday. I'm planning to render a typical calendar, with one column per weekday (sunday is going to be the first day of the week) using an html table. So, I need to put a %tr followed by a %td on sundays, but the rest of the days I just need a %td. I'm having trouble modelling that on haml. This seems to require different levels of identation, and that's something it doesn't like. Here's my failed attempt: %table %tr %th= t('date.day_names')[0] # Sunday %th= t('date.day_names')[1] %th= t('date.day_names')[2] %th= t('date.day_names')[3] %th= t('date.day_names')[4] %th= t('date.day_names')[5] %th= t('date.day_names')[6] # Monday [email protected] do |date| - if(date.wday == 0) # if date is sunday %tr %td=date.to_s - else %td=date.to_s This doesn't work the way I want. The %tds for the non-sunday days appear outside of the %tr: <tr> <td>2010-04-24</td> </tr> <td>2010-04-25</td> <td>2010-04-26</td> <td>2010-04-27</td> <td>2010-04-28</td> <td>2010-04-29</td> <td>2010-04-30</td> I tried adding two more spaces to the else but then haml complained about improper identation. What's the best way to do this? Note: I'm not interested on rendering the calendar using unordered lists. Please don't suggest that.

  Read the article

• object datasource problems in visual studio 2008,

  - by kamal

  After going to the process of adding the various attributes like insert,delete and update.But when i run it through the browser ,editing works but updating and deleting doesn't !(for the update and shows the same thing for delete,my friends think i need to use codes to repair the problems,can you help me please.it shows this: Server Error in '/WebSite3' Application. ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.GetResolvedMethodData(Type type, String methodName, IDictionary allParameters, DataSourceOperation operation) +1119426 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.ExecuteUpdate(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues) +1008 System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Update(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues, DataSourceViewOperationCallback callback) +92 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleUpdate(GridViewRow row, Int32 rowIndex, Boolean causesValidation) +907 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleEvent(EventArgs e, Boolean causesValidation, String validationGroup) +704 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +95 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridViewRow.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +123 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118

  Read the article

• How to flush DNS cache in Windows Mobile programmatically?

  - by Bounded

  Hello, My windows mobile application (written in C# with the compact framework) needs to know if a particular machine is active or not. To achieve this goal, I thought to use a ping mechanism. I tried to use the Ping class implemented in the opennetcf framework (the System.Net.NetworkInformation.Ping class for the .NET Framework is not part of the compact framework). Because I give to the Ping.Send function a host name, it first tries to resolve this host name and to retrieve an IP address. But i observe the following problem : If the first dns resolution fails (because the network is down at this moment), and if the application tries immediately again to send the ping, it fails too, even if the network is note down anymore. I check with a famous network protocol analyzer and i saw that only the requests concerning the first dns resolution are sent. The requests concerning the dns resolution of the second ping are not sent. Why is the second dns request not sent ? Is there any dns cache mechanism on such Windows Mobile devices ? If yes, can this mechanism beeing flushed programmatically ? EDIT : I gave up finding a solution to this DNS flush. I chose to ping an IP adress instead of a name machine. The problem of pinging an hard coded adress IP is that we have to be 100% sure that this IP will not change. The gateway IP can be used because it's always reachable (if it does not, it means the network is down).

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210  | Next Page >