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  • Defined outlets, connected them, they all returns (null)

    - by Tom
    Hi! I'm trying to play with a WebView. I made an outlet: IBOutlet UIWebView *browser; Defined it as a property: @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWebView *browser; Synthethized it: @synthesize browser; Finally, I connected it in Interface Builder, really it is. Then I try to do something with it i.e.: [browser loadRequest:[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://apple.com"]]]; Or also: Etape *etape = [[Etape alloc] init]; NSString *html = [etape generateHTMLforEtape:[current_etape objectAtIndex:0]]; [browser loadHTMLString:html baseURL:nil]; [etape release]; I get no errors, I tried to Build & Analyse, no notices or warnings or errors.. I've been searching for one whole day, please help me :/ Thanks a lot! EDIT: Here's screenshots of my connections for my WebView: EDIT: That is how I call the view: DetailViewController *dvController = [[DetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DetailViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; dvController.workflow_id = parent_id; Etape *etape = [[Etape alloc] init]; dvController.etapes = [etape getEtapes:parent_id]; [etape release]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:dvController animated:YES]; [dvController release];

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  • Ability to switch Persistence Unit dynamically within the application (JPA)

    - by MVK
    My application data access layer is built using Spring and EclipseLink and I am currently trying to implement the following feature - Ability to switch the current/active persistence unit dynamically for a user. I tried various options and finally ended up doing the following. In the persistence.xml, declare multiple PUs. Create a class with as many EntityManagerFactory attributes as there are PUs defined. This will act as a factory and return the appropriate EntityManager based on my logic public class MyEntityManagerFactory { @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_1") private EntityManagerFactory emf1; @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_2") private EntityManagerFactory emf2; public EntityManager getEntityManager(int releaseId) { // Logic goes here to return the appropriate entityManeger } } My spring-beans xml looks like this.. <!-- First persistence unit --> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean" id="emFactory1"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="PU_1" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" id="transactionManager1"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="emFactory1"/> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager1"/> The above section is repeated for the second PU (with names like emFactory2, transactionManager2 etc). I am a JPA newbie and I know that this is not the best solution. I appreciate any assistance in implementing this requirement in a better/elegant way! Thanks!

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  • How do you Bind to a ComboBox in a DataTemplate?

    - by discwiz
    I have a listbox that is bound to an observable collection of Audio (custom class). The Audio class has two properties, DisplayText (string) and a property called TarpIds (Observable Collection of Integer). I need to allow the user to change the TarpID in the combo box for each list item displayed and catch the selection change. I created a DataTemplate that styles the DisplayText property from the Audio object and adds a ComboBox to display the available TarpIDs for this audio (These are dynamic and unique to each Audio). The DisplayText works great, but I can not get the TarpIDs to display in the ComboBox. Here is what I have so far and thanks for any help. FYI I set the ItemSource at run time that binds the ListUploadAudio to the Observable Collection of Audio. <Border BorderBrush="Red" Background="WhiteSmoke" CornerRadius="8"> <Border.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="UploadLayout" DataType="Audio"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=DisplayText}" FontWeight="Bold" Foreground="Blue"> </TextBlock> <ComboBox x:Name="ListBoxTarpIDs" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=TarpIds}"> </ComboBox> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </Border.Resources> <ListBox x:Name="ListUploadAudio" BorderBrush="Transparent" Background="Transparent" Width="230" Margin="10" Height="200" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" SelectionMode="Multiple" ItemTemplate="{DynamicResource UploadLayout}"> </ListBox> </Border>

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  • Custom UITableViewCell from xib isn't displaying properly

    - by Kenny Wyland
    I've created custom UITableCells a bunch of times and I've never run into this problem, so I'm hoping you can help me find the thing I've missed or messed up. When I run my app, the cells in my table view appear to be standard cells with Default style. I have SettingsTableCell which is a subclass of UITableViewCell. I have a SettingsTableCell.xib which contains a UITableViewCell and inside that are a couple labels and a textfield. I've set the class type in the xib to be SettingsTableCell and the File's Owner of the xib to my table controller. My SettingsTableController has an IBOutlet property named tableCell. My cellForRowAtIndexPath contains the following code to load my table view xib and assign it to my table controller's tableCell property: static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"CellSettings"; SettingsTableCell *cell = (SettingsTableCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"SettingsTableCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = self.tableCell; self.tableCell = nil; NSLog(@"cell=%@", cell); } This is what my xib set up looks like in IB: When I run my app, the table displays as if all of the cells are standard Default style cells though: The seriously weird part is though... if I tap on the area of the cell where the textfield SHOULD be, the keyboard does come up! The textfield isn't visible, there's no cursor or anything like that... but it does respond. The visible UILabel is obviously not the UILabel from my xib though because the label in my xib is right justified and the one showing in the app is left justified. I'm incredibly confused about how this is happening. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Detect whether or not a specific attribute was valid on the model

    - by Sir Code-A-Lot
    Having created my own validation attribute deriving from System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute, I wish to be able to detect from my controller, whether or not that specific attribute was valid on the model. My setup: public class MyModel { [Required] [CustomValidation] [SomeOtherValidation] public string SomeProperty { get; set; } } public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // Custom validation logic here } } Now, how do I detect from the controller whether validation of CustomValidationAttribute succeeded or not? I have been looking at the Exception property of ModelError in the ModelState, but I have no way of adding a custom exception to it from my CustomValidationAttribute. Right now I have resorted to checking for a specific error message in the ModelState: public ActionResult PostModel(MyModel model) { if(ModelState.Where(i => i.Value.Errors.Where((e => e.ErrorMessage == CustomValidationAttribute.SharedMessage)).Any()).Any()) DoSomeCustomStuff(); // The rest of the action here } And changed my CustomValidationAttribute to: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public static string SharedMessage = "CustomValidationAttribute error"; public override bool IsValid(object value) { ErrorMessage = SharedMessage; // Custom validation logic here } } I don't like relying on string matching, and this way the ErrorMessage property is kind of misused. What are my options?

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  • Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

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  • PHP Object Access Syntax Question with the $

    - by ImperialLion
    I've been having trouble searching for this answer because I am not quite sure how to phrase it. I am new to PHP and still getting my feet on the ground. I was writing a page with a class in it that had the property name. When I originally wrote the page there was no class so I just had a variable called $name. When I went to encapsulate it in a class I accidental changed it to be $myClass->$name. It tool me a while to realize that the syntax I needed was $myClass->name. The reason it took so long was the error I kept getting was "Attempt to access a null property" or something along those lines. The error lead me to believe it was a data population error. My question is does $myClass->$name have a valid meaning? In other words is there a time you would use this and a reason why it doesn't create a syntax error? If so what is the semantic meaning of that code? When would I use it if it is valid? If its not valid, is there a reason that it doesn't create a syntax error?

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  • Is it getting to be time for C# to support compile-time macros?

    - by Robert Rossney
    Thus far, Microsoft's C# team has resisted adding formal compile-time macro capabilities to the language. There are aspects of programming with WPF that seem (to me, at least) to be creating some compelling use cases for macros. Dependency properties, for instance. It would be so nice to just be able to do something like this: [DependencyProperty] public string Foo { get; set; } and have the body of the Foo property and the static FooProperty property be generated automatically at compile time. Or, for another example an attribute like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public string Foo { get; set; } that would make the currently-nonexistent preprocessor produce this: private string _Foo; public string Foo { get { return _Foo; } set { _Foo = value; OnPropertyChanged("Foo"); } } You can implement change notification with PostSharp, and really, maybe PostSharp is a better answer to the question. I really don't know. Assuming that you've thought about this more than I have, which if you've thought about it at all you probably have, what do you think? (This is clearly a community wiki question and I've marked it accordingly.)

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  • Batch insert mode with hibernate and oracle: seems to be dropping back to slow mode silently

    - by Chris
    I'm trying to get a batch insert working with Hibernate into Oracle, according to what i've read here: http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/core/3.3/reference/en/html/batch.html , but with my benchmarking it doesn't seem any faster than before. Can anyone suggest a way to prove whether hibernate is using batch mode or not? I hear that there are numerous reasons why it may silently drop into normal mode (eg associations and generated ids) so is there some way to find out why it has gone non-batch? My hibernate.cfg.xml contains this line which i believe is all i need to enable batch mode: <property name="jdbc.batch_size">50</property> My insert code looks like this: List<LogEntry> entries = ..a list of 100 LogEntry data classes... Session sess = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); for(LogEntry e : entries) { sess.save(e); } sess.flush(); sess.clear(); My 'logentry' class has no associations, the only interesting field is the id: @Entity @Table(name="log_entries") public class LogEntry { @Id @GeneratedValue public Long id; ..other fields - strings and ints... However, since it is oracle, i believe the @GeneratedValue will use the sequence generator. And i believe that only the 'identity' generator will stop bulk inserts. So if anyone can explain why it isn't running in batch mode, or how i can find out for sure if it is or isn't in batch mode, or find out why hibernate is silently dropping back to slow mode, i'd be most grateful. Thanks

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  • There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

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  • How does asp.net MVC remember my false values on postback?

    - by Michel
    Hi, This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

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  • Packages name conflicting with getters and setters?

    - by MrKishi
    Hello, folks. So, I've came across this compilation error a while ago.. As there's an easy fix and I didn't find anything relevant at the time, I eventually let it go. I just remembered it and I'm now wondering if this is really part of the language grammar (which I highly doubt) or if it's a compiler bug. I'm being purely curious about this -- it doesn't really affect development, but it would be nice to see if any of you have seen this already. package view { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _view:Sprite = new Sprite(); public function Main() { this.test(); } private function test():void { trace(this.view.x, this.view.y); //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property x through a reference with static type view:Main. //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property y through a reference with static type view:Main. //Note that I got this due to the package name. //It runs just fine if I rename the package or getter. } public function get view():Sprite { return this._view; } } }

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  • Create lambda action from function expression

    - by Martin Robins
    It is relatively easy to create a lambda function that will return the value of a property from an object, even including deep properties... Func<Category, string> getCategoryName = new Func<Category, string>(c => c.Name); and this can be called as follows... string categoryName = getCategoryName(this.category); But, given only the resulting function above (or the expression originally used to create the function), can anybody provide an easy way to create the opposing action... Action<Category, string> setCategoryName = new Action<Category, string>((c, s) => c.Name = s); ...that will enable the same property value to be set as follows? setCategoryName(this.category, ""); Note that I am looking for a way to create the action programatically from the function or expression - I hope that I have shown that I already know how to create it manually. I am open to answers that work in both .net 3.5 and 4.0. Thanks.

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  • Avoiding duplication in setting properties on the task in Rake tasks

    - by Stray
    I have a bunch of rake building tasks. They each have unique input / output properties, but the majority of the properties I set on the tasks are the same each time. Currently I'm doing that via simple repetition like this: task :buildThisModule => "bin/modules/thisModule.swf" mxmlc "bin/modules/thisModule.swf" do |t| t.input = "src/project/modules/ThisModule.as" t.prop1 = value1 t.prop2 = value2 ... (And many more property=value sets that are the same in each task) end task :buildThatModule => "bin/modules/thatModule.swf" mxmlc "bin/modules/thatModule.swf" do |t| t.input = "src/project/modules/ThatModule.as" t.prop1 = value1 t.prop2 = value2 ... (And many more property=value sets that are the same in each task) end In my usual programming headspace I'd expect to be able to break out the population of the recurring task properties to a re-usable function. Is there a rake analogy for this? Some way I can have a single function where the shared properties are set on any task? Something equivalent to: task :buildThisModule => "bin/modules/thisModule.swf" mxmlc "bin/modules/thisModule.swf" do |t| addCommonTaskParameters(t) t.input = "src/project/modules/ThisModule.as" end task :buildThatModule => "bin/modules/thatModule.swf" mxmlc "bin/modules/thatModule.swf" do |t| addCommonTaskParameters(t) t.input = "src/project/modules/ThatModule.as" end Thanks.

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  • [WPF] ExceptionValidationRule doesn't react to exceptions...

    - by Darmak
    Hi, I have an ExceptionValidationRule on my TextBox: <Window.Resources> <Style x:Key="textStyleTextBox" TargetType="TextBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Window.Resources> <TextBox x:Name="myTextBox" {Binding Path=MyProperty, ValidatesOnExceptions=True}" Style="{StaticResource ResourceKey=textStyleTextBox}" /> and MyProperty looks like that: private int myProperty; public int MyProperty { get { return myProperty; } set { if(value > 10) throw new ArgumentException("LOL that's an error"); myProperty = value; } } In DEBUG mode, application crashes with unhandled exception "LOL that's an error" (WPF Binding Engine doesn't catch this and I think it should...). In RELEASE mode, everything works fine. Can someone tell me, why the hell is this happening? And how can I fix this?

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  • Objective-C Definedness

    - by Dan Ray
    This is an agonizingly rookie question, but here I am learning a new language and framework, and I'm trying to answer the question "What is Truth?" as pertains to Obj-C. I'm trying to lazy-load images across the network. I have a data class called Event that has properties including: @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImage image; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImage thumbnail; in my AppDelegate, I fetch up a bunch of data about my events (this is an app that shows local arts event listings), and pre-sets each event.image to my default "no-image.png". Then in the UITableViewController where I view these things, I do: if (thisEvent.image == NULL) { NSLog(@"Going for this item's image"); UIImage *tempImage = [UIImage imageWithData:[NSData dataWithContentsOfURL: [NSURL URLWithString: [NSString stringWithFormat: @"http://www.mysite.com/content_elements/%@_image_1.jpg", thisEvent.guid]]]]; thisEvent.image = tempImage; } We never get that NSLog call. Testing thisEvent.image for NULLness isn't the thing. I've tried == nil as well, but that also doesn't work.

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  • What's the proper approach for writing multi-path "story" flows?

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, I wonder if you can help me. I'm writing a game (2d) which allows players to take multiple routes, some of which branch/merge - perhaps even loop. Each section of the game will decide which section is loaded next. I'm calling each section an IStoryElement - And I'm wondering how best to link these elements up in a way that is easily changed/configured and at the same time, graphable I'm going to have an engine/factory assembly which will load the appropriate StoryElement(s) based on various config options. I initially planned to give each StoryElement a NextElement() As IStoryElement property and a Completed() event. When the vent fires, the engine reads the NextElement property to find the next StoryElement. The downside to this is that if I ever wanted to graph all the routes through the game, I would be unable to - I couldn't determine all possible targets for each StoryElement. I considered a couple of other solutions but they all feel a little clunky - eg Do I need an additional layer of abstraction? ie StoryElementPlayers or similar - Each one would be responsible for stringing together multiple StoryElement perhaps a Series and a ChoicePlayer with each responsible for graphing its own StoryElement - But this will just move the problem up a layer. In short, I need some way of emulating a simple but dynamic workflow (but I'd rather not actually use WWF). Is there a pattern for something this simple? All the ones I've managed to find relate to more advanced control flow (parallel processing, etc.)

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  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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  • Stil facing the problem in Orientation in iphone

    - by aman-gupta
    Hi, In my application I have 15 screens in that i m using UIViewController for all screens and in all screens i m using the below way to call other screen :- AppDelegate *appRefre = (AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication]delegate]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:appRefre.frmReferencesLink animated:YES]; And the below code is activated in all screen for orientation to control the user to switch from one orientation to other mode (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { if (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { return YES; } else { return NO; } } But when i run my application in iPhone device my application gets terminated when i physically rotate my iphone device from UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait to UIInterfaceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown or UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft,UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight. And One more things is that when my application lauch i used following code for launching my appliaction :- 1) I made a pointer in mydelegate.h file: UINavigationController *navigationController; Then synthesize its property @property(nonatomic,retain)UINavigationController *navigationController 2) In mydelegat.m I Wrote @synthesize navigationController; (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:DefaultViewLink]; [window addSubview:navigationController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } 3) In above point DefaultView is launch first and gets remove from view and then actual my appliaction come into picture. So exactly what i want i want my appliaction to be in portrait mode for all screens i dont want my appliaction will switch to other mode.It remains the same as in portrait mode after rotation to any other mode. Please help me out its very urgent. Thanks in Advance and humble request to help me out

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  • Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

    - by Avatar_Squadron
    Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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  • JSP Iterating over a map of a list when the value might be null

    - by Brian Hoover
    How do I clear the value from the stack of a s:iterator? I'm trying to iterator over a TreeMultimap with a structure like: TreeMultimap<person, lineItems> persons; Using something like: <s:iterator value="attendeesForParticipantTypeEvents.asMap()"> <div> <s:property value="key.name" /><br /> <s:iterator id="currentSku" value="value"> <s:property value="currentSku.name" /><br /> </s:iterator> </div> </s:iterator> This works fine, except when the treeMultimap has null for lineItems, then it's taking the value from the previous iteration. So, a structure like: persons = {{"Person1",["Line1","line2"]}, {"Person2",["Line3","line4"]}, {"Person2",null}} Renders as: <div> Person1<br /> Line1<br /> Line2<br /> </div> <div> Person2<br /> Line3<br /> Line4<br /> </div> <div> Person3<br /> Line3<br /> Line4<br /> </div> Which seems to indicate that the value isn't being cleared on each iterator. What do I need to do to handle the case where value might be null? Thanks for your help

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  • Using h:outputFormat to message-format the f:selectItems of a h:selectOneRadio

    - by msharma
    I am having some trouble with using h:selectOneRadio. I have a list of objects which is being returned which needs to be displayed. I am trying something like this: <h:selectOneRadio id="selectPlan" layout="pageDirection"> <f:selectItems value="#{detailsHandler.planList}" /> </h:selectOneRadio> and planList is a List of Plans. Plan is defined as: public class Plan { protected String id; protected String partNumber; protected String shortName; protected String price; protected boolean isService; protected boolean isOption; //With all getters/setters } The text that must appear for each radio button is actually in a properties file, and I need to insert params in the text to fill out some value in the bean. For example the text in my properties file is: plan_price=The price of this plan is {0}. I was hoping to do something like this: <f:selectItems value="<h:outputFormat value="#{i18n.plan_price}"> <f:param value="#{planHandler.price}"> </h:outputFormat>" /> Usually if it's not a h:selectOneRadio component, if it's just text I use the h:outputFormat along with f:param tags to display the messages in my .property file called i18n above, and insert a param which is in the backing bean. here this does not work. Does anyone have any ideas how I can deal with this? I am being returned a list of Plans each with their own prices and the text to be displayed is held in property file. Any help much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • WPF Single Selection Across Multiple ItemsControls

    - by gregsdennis
    Part of my app has a month-view calendar interface, but I'm having trouble with item selection. The interface is set up so that each of the days in the view contains a ListBox of items, much like the month view in Outlook. The problem I'm experiencing is that I need to maintain a single item selection across all of the ListBoxes. Below is a sample window that should adequately describe my situation. I need to maintain a single selection between both ListBoxes. <Window x:Class="StackOverflow.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Numbers}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedObject"/> <ListBox Grid.Column="1" ItemsSource="{Binding Dates}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedObject"/> </Grid> </Window> In this primitive example, I would expect that when the SelectedObject property of my view model gets set to an item that's not in one ListBox, the selection would be removed in that ListBox, but that doesn't happen. I understand that I can simply name each ListBox, and hook into the SelectionChanged event. I'd prefer to not have to do that with an entire month-view calendar. There has to be a better way. In a previous iteration of the app, I was able to create a SelectionManager static class with an attached property that was used to maintain selection. However, I can't use this now as the classes I'm using for my items are not DependencyObjects, and I'd really prefer not to have to create DependencyObject wrapper classes as this will considerably complicate my architecture. Thanks.

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  • GUnload is null or undefined using Directions Service

    - by user1677756
    I'm getting an error using Google Maps API V3 that I don't understand. My initial map displays just fine, but when I try to get directions, I get the following two errors: Error: The value of the property 'GUnload' is null or undefined, not a Function object Error: Unable to get value of the property 'setDirections': object is null or undefined I'm not using GUnload anywhere, so I don't understand why I'm getting that error. As far as the second error is concerned, it's as if something is wrong with the Directions service. Here is my code: var directionsDisplay; var directionsService = new google.maps.DirectionsService(); var map; function initialize(address) { directionsDisplay = new google.maps.DirectionsRenderer(); var geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(42.733963, -84.565501); var mapOptions = { center: latlng, zoom: 15, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), mapOptions); geocoder.geocode({ 'address': address }, function (results, status) { if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { map.setCenter(results[0].geometry.location); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, position: results[0].geometry.location }); } else { alert("Geocode was not successful for the following reason: " + status); } }); directionsDisplay.setMap(map); } function getDirections(start, end) { var request = { origin:start, destination:end, travelMode: google.maps.TravelMode.DRIVING }; directionsService.route(request, function(result, status) { if (status == google.maps.DirectionsStatus.OK) { directionsDisplay.setDirections(result); } else { alert("Directions cannot be displayed for the following reason: " + status); } }); } I'm not very savvy with javascript, so I could have made some sort of error there. I appreciate any help I can get.

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  • Compare Properties automatically

    - by juergen d
    I want to get the names of all properties that changed for matching objects. I have these (simplified) classes: public enum PersonType { Student, Professor, Employee } class Person { public string Name { get; set; } public PersonType Type { get; set; } } class Student : Person { public string MatriculationNumber { get; set; } } class Subject { public string Name { get; set; } public int WeeklyHours { get; set; } } class Professor : Person { public List<Subject> Subjects { get; set; } } Now I want to get the objects where the Property values differ: List<Person> oldPersonList = ... List<Person> newPersonList = ... List<Difference> = GetDifferences(oldPersonList, newPersonList); public List<Difference> GetDifferences(List<Person> oldP, List<Person> newP) { //how to check the properties without casting and checking //for each type and individual property?? //can this be done with Reflection even in Lists?? } In the end I would like to have a list of Differences like this: class Difference { public List<string> ChangedProperties { get; set; } public Person NewPerson { get; set; } public Person OldPerson { get; set; } } The ChangedProperties should contain the name of the changed properties.

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