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Idiomatic default sort using WCF RIA, EF4, Silverlight?

- by Duncan Bayne

I've got two Silverlight 4.0 ComboBoxes; the second displays the children of the entity selected in the first: <ComboBox Name="cmbThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Things,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectionChanged="CmbThingsSelectionChanged" /> <ComboBox Name="cmbChildThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedThing.ChildThings,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" /> The code behind the view provides a (simple, hacky) way to databind those ComboBoxes, by loading Entity Framework 4.0 entities through a WCF RIA service: public EntitySet<Thing> Things { get; private set; } public Thing SelectedThing { get; private set; } protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { var context = new SortingDomainContext(); context.Load(context.GetThingsQuery()); context.Load(context.GetChildThingsQuery()); Things = context.Things; DataContext = this; } private void CmbThingsSelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { SelectedThing = (Thing) cmbThings.SelectedItem; if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged.Invoke(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("SelectedThing")); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; What I'd like to do is have both combo boxes sort their contents alphabetically, and I'd like to specify that behaviour in the XAML if at all possible. Could someone please tell me what is the idiomatic way of doing this with the SL4 / EF4 / WCF RIA technology stack?

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Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

- by Matt

I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

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Changing data in a django modelform

- by Matt Hampel

I get data in from POST and validate it via this standard snippet: entry_formset = EntryFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES, prefix='entries') if entry_formset.is_valid(): .... The EntryFormSet modelform overrides a foreign key field widget to present a text field. That way, the user can enter an existing key (suggested via an Ajax live search), or enter a new key, which will be seamlessly added. I use this try-except block to test if the object exists already, and if it doesn't, I add it. entity_name = request.POST['entries-0-entity'] try: entity = Entity.objects.get(name=entity_name) except Entity.DoesNotExist: entity = Entity(name=entity_name) entity.slug = slugify(entity.name) entity.save() However, I now need to get that entity back into the entry_formset. It thinks that entries-0-entity is a string (that's how it came in); how can I directly access that value of the entry_formset and get it to take the object reference instead?

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ASP.Net MVC Object Reference in Edit View when using DropDownListFor()

- by hermiod

This question is related to another I ask recently, it can be found here for some background information. Here is the code in the Edit ActionResult: public virtual ActionResult Edit(int id) { ///Set data for DropDownLists. ViewData["MethodList"] = tr.ListMethods(); ViewData["GenderList"] = tr.ListGenders(); ViewData["FocusAreaList"] = tr.ListFocusAreas(); ViewData["SiteList"] = tr.ListSites(); ViewData["TypeList"] = tr.ListTalkbackTypes(); ViewData["CategoryList"] = tr.ListCategories(); return View(tr.GetTalkback(id)); } I add lists to the ViewData to use in the dropdownlists, these are all IEnumerable and are all returning values. GetTalkback() returns an Entity framework object of type Talkback which is generated from the Talkback table. The DropDownListFor code is: <%: Html.DropDownListFor(model=>model.method_id,new SelectList(ViewData["MethodList"] as IEnumerable<SelectListItem>,"Value","Text",Model.method_id)) %> The record I am viewing has values in all fields. When I click submit on the View, I get an Object reference not set to an instance of an object. error on the above line. There are a number of standard fields in the form prior to this, so the error is only occurring on dropdown lists, and it is occurring on all of them. Any ideas? This is my first foray in to MVC, C#, and Entity so I am completely lost!

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EF 4.0 : Save Changes Retry Logic

- by BGR

Hi, I would like to implement an application wide retry system for all entity SaveChanges method calls. Technologies: Entity framework 4.0 .Net 4.0 namespace Sample.Data.Store.Entities { public partial class StoreDB { public override int SaveChanges(System.Data.Objects.SaveOptions options) { for (Int32 attempt = 1; ; ) { try { return base.SaveChanges(options); } catch (SqlException sqlException) { // Increment Trys attempt++; // Find Maximum Trys Int32 maxRetryCount = 5; // Throw Error if we have reach the maximum number of retries if (attempt == maxRetryCount) throw; // Determine if we should retry or abort. if (!RetryLitmus(sqlException)) throw; else Thread.Sleep(ConnectionRetryWaitSeconds(attempt)); } } } static Int32 ConnectionRetryWaitSeconds(Int32 attempt) { Int32 connectionRetryWaitSeconds = 2000; // Backoff Throttling connectionRetryWaitSeconds = connectionRetryWaitSeconds * (Int32)Math.Pow(2, attempt); return (connectionRetryWaitSeconds); } /// <summary> /// Determine from the exception if the execution /// of the connection should Be attempted again /// </summary> /// <param name="exception">Generic Exception</param> /// <returns>True if a a retry is needed, false if not</returns> static Boolean RetryLitmus(SqlException sqlException) { switch (sqlException.Number) { // The service has encountered an error // processing your request. Please try again. // Error code %d. case 40197: // The service is currently busy. Retry // the request after 10 seconds. Code: %d. case 40501: //A transport-level error has occurred when // receiving results from the server. (provider: // TCP Provider, error: 0 - An established connection // was aborted by the software in your host machine.) case 10053: return (true); } return (false); } } } The problem: How can I run the StoreDB.SaveChanges to retry on a new DB context after an error occured? Something simular to Detach/Attach might come in handy. Thanks in advance! Bart

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How to tell what name RIA Services/EF Model uses for Associations?

- by Nick Gotch

Hi, I'm working on a C#.NET 3.5 WCF RIA Services app and having an issue with my Entity Framework model. My entity Foo is mapped to a DB table and has a primary key called FooId. My Bar is mapped to a DB view. I've selectively designed this view to generate a composite key in the EF using two of the columns (by making sure they were non-nullable and the others are all nullable. This was done using NULLIF and ISNULL in the view design.) I'm able to add this view to the model with no problem but I keep running into an issue when I try to map an association between the two. Foo should contain many Bars but I keep getting the following error when I add the association: Unable to retrieve AssociationType for association 'FK_Bar_Foo' According to this page, it looks like this might work if I can properly name the association (since RIA Services looks for specific names.) I've tried several variants of names that match the pattern of other associations with no success. Does anyone know if there's a place I can look to find out what name it's looking for? Thanks,

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How do I imply code contracts of chained methods to avoid superfluous checks while chaining?

- by Sandor Drieënhuizen

I'm using Code Contracts in C# 4.0. I'm applying the usual static method chaining to simulate optional parameters (I know C# 4.0 supports optional parameters but I really don't want to use them). The thing is that my contract requirements are executed twice (or possibly the number of chained overloads I'd implement) if I call the Init(string , string[]) method -- an obvious effect from the sample source code below. This can be expensive, especially due to relatively expensive requirements like the File.Exists I use. public static void Init(string configurationPath, string[] mappingAssemblies) { // The static contract checker 'makes' me put these here as well as // in the overload below. Contract.Requires<ArgumentNullException>(configurationPath != null, "configurationPath"); Contract.Requires<ArgumentException>(configurationPath.Length > 0, "configurationPath is an empty string."); Contract.Requires<FileNotFoundException>(File.Exists(configurationPath), configurationPath); Contract.Requires<ArgumentNullException>(mappingAssemblies != null, "mappingAssemblies"); Contract.ForAll<string>(mappingAssemblies, (n) => File.Exists(n)); Init(configurationPath, mappingAssemblies, null); } public static void Init(string configurationPath, string[] mappingAssemblies, string optionalArgument) { // This is the main implementation of Init and all calls to chained // overloads end up here. Contract.Requires<ArgumentNullException>(configurationPath != null, "configurationPath"); Contract.Requires<ArgumentException>(configurationPath.Length > 0, "configurationPath is an empty string."); Contract.Requires<FileNotFoundException>(File.Exists(configurationPath), configurationPath); Contract.Requires<ArgumentNullException>(mappingAssemblies != null, "mappingAssemblies"); Contract.ForAll<string>(mappingAssemblies, (n) => File.Exists(n)); //... } If however, I remove the requirements from that method, the static checker complains that the requirements of the Init(string, string[], string) overload are not met. I reckon that the static checker doesn't understand that there requirements of the Init(string, string[], string) overload implicitly apply to the Init(string, string[]) method as well; something that would be perfectly deductable from the code IMO. This is the situation I would like to achieve: public static void Init(string configurationPath, string[] mappingAssemblies) { // I don't want to repeat the requirements here because they will always // be checked in the overload called here. Init(configurationPath, mappingAssemblies, null); } public static void Init(string configurationPath, string[] mappingAssemblies, string optionalArgument) { // This is the main implementation of Init and all calls to chained // overloads end up here. Contract.Requires<ArgumentNullException>(configurationPath != null, "configurationPath"); Contract.Requires<ArgumentException>(configurationPath.Length > 0, "configurationPath is an empty string."); Contract.Requires<FileNotFoundException>(File.Exists(configurationPath), configurationPath); Contract.Requires<ArgumentNullException>(mappingAssemblies != null, "mappingAssemblies"); Contract.ForAll<string>(mappingAssemblies, (n) => File.Exists(n)); //... } So, my question is this: is there a way to have the requirements of Init(string, string[], string) implicitly apply to Init(string, string[]) automatically?

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How much business logic belongs in RIA services layer?

- by jkohlhepp

I have been experimenting recently with Silverlight, RIA Services, and Entity Framework using .NET 4.0. I'm trying to figure out if that stack makes sense for use in any of my upcoming projects. It certainly seems like these technologies can be very productive for developing applications, but I'm struggling to decide how an application on top of this stack should be architected. The main issue I have is that in most of the demos I've seen most of the business logic ends up as DataAnnotations and custom validations in the RIA Services domain service class. This seems inappropriate to me. I view the domain service as basically a glorified web service that happens to make it easy to push information to the client. But most of what I've seen seems to orient the domain service as the main source of business logic in the application. So, my questions: What is the best location for business logic (rules, validations, behaviors, authorization) in an application using this stack? Are there any guidelines published at an architectural level for using this stack? My questions pertain to large, complex, and long-lived applications. Obviously for an application of only a few screens this is less of a concern. Edit: Another thing I meant to mention is that obviously you can make the domain service class stupid, but then you lose a lot of the automagic entity information (e.g. validations) being pushed to the client. And then if you lose that is there any point to using RIA services?

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Update one-to-many EntityKey using Foreign Key

- by User.Anonymous

To use by the easiest way Entity Framework, I use partial class to add Foreign Key on most important Entities Model. For example, I have an Entity "CONTACT" which have "TITLE", "FUNCTION" and others. When I update a CONTACT, with this code, Foreign Key are automatically updated : public int? TitId { get { if (this.TITLE_TIT != null) return TITLE_TIT.TIT_ID; return new Nullable<int>(); } set { this.TITLE_TITReference.EntityKey = new System.Data.EntityKey("Entities.TITLE_TIT", "TIT_ID", value); } } But I have a join with ACTIVITY, that can have many CONTACT, and I don't know how to update EntityKey on setters. public IEnumerable<EntityKeyMember> ActId { get { List<EntityKeyMember> lst = new List<EntityKeyMember>(); if (this.ACT_CON2 != null) { foreach (ACT_CON2 id in this.ACT_CON2.ToList()) { EntityKeyMember key = new EntityKeyMember(id.CON_ID.ToString(),id.ACT_ID); lst.Add(key); } } return lst; } set { this.ACT_CON2.EntityKey = new System.Data.EntityKey("Entities.ACT_CON2", value); } } How set many EntityKey ? Thank you.

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Can someone code review my small SDL app? Want to make sure I didn't make any beginner mistakes

- by SDLFunTimes

In an effort to teach myself the SDL library (hence my stack overflow handle :) ) I wanted to try my hand at a side-scroller. My code is complete but I want some feedback (mostly because I have an atrocious amount of if and else statements for what seems like some simple logic). My "program" is a c++ side-scroller where you move a single sprite across the screen. No jumping, bad guys, guns, scores, levels or anything. I wanted to use this as a base to build up upon. So I figured if my base is wrong I could end up with some pretty bad future apps. It's also multi-threaded. Next up on this I would like to make the person sprite animated (so it looks like he's walking rather than sliding) as well as make the person go faster when the arrow buttons are held down longer). The code is kind of long but here's my main method. There's a link at the bottom for the whole program: #include <iostream> #include "SDL.h" #include "game.hpp" using std::cout; using std::endl; const int SCREENW = 200; const int SCREENH = 200; const int BPP = 32; const int FPS = 24; int event_loop(void* stuff); int display_loop(void* stuff); int main(int argc, char** argv) { SDL_Init(SDL_INIT_EVERYTHING | SDL_INIT_EVENTTHREAD); SDL_Thread* events_thurd; SDL_Thread* display_thurd; SDL_Surface* screen = SDL_SetVideoMode(SCREENW, SCREENH, BPP, SDL_SWSURFACE); SDL_EnableKeyRepeat(SDL_DEFAULT_REPEAT_DELAY, SDL_DEFAULT_REPEAT_INTERVAL); SDL_Event event; Game* thug_aim = new Game(&event, screen, SCREENW, SCREENH, BPP); events_thurd = SDL_CreateThread(event_loop, (void*)thug_aim); display_thurd = SDL_CreateThread(display_loop, (void*)thug_aim); SDL_WaitThread(events_thurd, NULL); SDL_KillThread(display_thurd); delete thug_aim; return 0; } int event_loop(void* stuff) { Game* gamez = (Game*)stuff; SDL_Event* event = gamez->get_event(); while(1) { while(SDL_PollEvent(event)) { if(event->type == SDL_QUIT) { return 0; } else if(event->type == SDL_KEYDOWN) { if(event->key.keysym.sym == SDLK_LEFT || event->key.keysym.sym == SDLK_RIGHT) { gamez->move(event->key.keysym.sym); } } else if(event->type == SDL_KEYUP) { if(event->key.keysym.sym == SDLK_LEFT || event->key.keysym.sym == SDLK_RIGHT) { gamez->stop_move(event->key.keysym.sym); } } else { //not an event that concerns this game } } } } int display_loop(void* stuff) { Game* gamez = (Game*)stuff; double period = 1 / FPS * 1000; Uint32 milli_period = (Uint32)period; //get some of the attributes from gamez SDL_Rect* background_rect = gamez->get_background_rect(); SDL_Rect* person_rect = gamez->get_person_rect(); SDL_Surface* screen = gamez->get_screen(); SDL_Surface* background = gamez->get_background(); SDL_Surface* person = gamez->get_person(); Uint32 start, end; int sleep; while(1) { start = SDL_GetTicks(); //blit background SDL_BlitSurface(background, background_rect, screen, NULL); //blit person SDL_BlitSurface(person, NULL, screen, person_rect); end = SDL_GetTicks(); sleep = milli_period - (end - start); if(sleep < 0) { sleep = 0; } SDL_Delay((Uint32)sleep); if(SDL_Flip(gamez->get_screen()) != 0) { cout << "error drawing to screen: " << SDL_GetError() << endl; } } } Here's the link to the .zip file of all my code (please ignore some of the variable names ;-) ): Anyway can you guys take a look and tell me what you think? url edit: holy crap I didn't know 2shared was such a shitty site. Looking for a better uploader than that or rapidshare / mediafire.

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EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

- by Lorenzo

In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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Hibernate and parent/child relations

- by Marco

Hi to all, I'm using Hibernate in a Java application, and i feel that something could be done better for the management of parent/child relationships. I've a complex set of entities, that have some kind of relationships between them (one-to-many, many-to-many, one-to-one, both unidirectional and bidirectional). Every time an entity is saved and it has a parent, to estabilish the relationship the parent has to add the child to its collection (considering a one-to-may relationship). For example: Parent p = (Parent) session.load(Parent.class, pid); Child c = new Child(); c.setParent(p); p.getChildren().add(c); session.save(c); session.flush(); In the same way, if i remove a child then i have to explicitly remove it from the parent collection too. Child c = (Child) session.load(Child.class, cid); session.delete(c); Parent p = (Parent) session.load(Parent.class, pid); p.getChildren().remove(c); session.flush(); I was wondering if there are some best practices out there to do this jobs in a different way: when i save a child entity, automatically add it to the parent collection. If i remove a child, automatically update the parent collection by removing the child, etc. For example, Child c = new Child(); c.setParent(p); session.save(c); // Automatically update the parent collection session.flush(); or Child c = (Child) session.load(Child.class, cid); session.delete(c); // Automatically updates its parents (could be more than one) session.flush(); Anyway, it would not be difficult to implement this behaviour, but i was wondering if exist some standard tools or well known libraries that deals with this issue. And, if not, what are the reasons? Thanks

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What is the best database structure for this scenario?

- by Ricketts

I have a database that is holding real estate MLS (Multiple Listing Service) data. Currently, I have a single table that holds all the listing attributes (price, address, sqft, etc.). There are several different property types (residential, commercial, rental, income, land, etc.) and each property type share a majority of the attributes, but there are a few that are unique to that property type. My question is the shared attributes are in excess of 250 fields and this seems like too many fields to have in a single table. My thought is I could break them out into an EAV (Entity-Attribute-Value) format, but I've read many bad things about that and it would make running queries a real pain as any of the 250 fields could be searched on. If I were to go that route, I'd literally have to pull all the data out of the EAV table, grouped by listing id, merge it on the application side, then run my query against the in memory object collection. This also does not seem very efficient. I am looking for some ideas or recommendations on which way to proceed. Perhaps the 250+ field table is the only way to proceed. Just as a note, I'm using SQL Server 2012, .NET 4.5 w/ Entity Framework 5, C# and data is passed to asp.net web application via WCF service. Thanks in advance.

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How to avoid using the same identifier for Class Names and Property Names?

- by Wololo

Here are a few example of classes and properties sharing the same identifier: public Coordinates Coordinates { get; set; } public Country Country { get; set; } public Article Article { get; set; } public Color Color { get; set; } public Address Address { get; set; } This problem occurs more frequently when using POCO with the Entity Framework as the Entity Framework uses the Property Name for the Relationships. So what to do? Use non-standard class names? public ClsCoordinates Coordinates { get; set; } public ClsCountry Country { get; set; } public ClsArticle Article { get; set; } public ClsColor Color { get; set; } public ClsAddress Address { get; set; } public ClsCategory Category { get; set; } Yuk Or use more descriptive Property Names? public Coordinates GeographicCoordinates { get; set; } public Country GeographicCountry { get; set; } public Article WebArticle { get; set; } public Color BackgroundColor { get; set; } public Address HomeAddress { get; set; } public Category ProductCategory { get; set; } Less than ideal, but can live with it I suppose. Or JUST LIVE WITH IT? What are you best practices?

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Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

- by Andrzej Doyle

Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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How to create view model without sorting collections in memory.

- by Chevex

I have a view model (below). public class TopicsViewModel { public Topic Topic { get; set; } public Reply LastReply { get; set; } } I want to populate an IQueryable<TopicsViewModel> with values from my IQueryable<Topic> collection and IQueryable<Reply> collection. I do not want to use the attached entity collection (i.e. Topic.Replies) because I only want the last reply for that topic and doing Topic.Replies.Last() loads the entire entity collection in memory and then grabs the last one in the list. I am trying to stay in IQueryable so that the query is executed in the database. I also don't want to foreach through topics and query replyRepository.Replies because looping through IQueryable<Topic> will start the lazy loading. I'd prefer to build one expression and have all the leg work done in the lower layers. I have the following: IQueryable<TopicsViewModel> topicsViewModel = from x in topicRepository.Topics from y in replyRepository.Replies where y.TopicID == x.TopicID orderby y.PostedDate ascending select new TopicsViewModel { Topic = x, LastReply = y }; But this isn't working. Any ideas how I can populate an IQueryable or IEnumerable of TopicsViewModel so that it queries the database and grabs topics and that topic's last reply? I am trying really hard to avoid grabbing all replies related to that topic. I only want to grab the last reply. Thank you for any insight you have to offer.

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Data layer refactoring

- by Joey

I've taken control of some entity framework code and am looking to refactor it. Before I do, I'd like to check my thoughts are correct and I'm not missing the entity-framework way of doing things. Example 1 - Subquery vs Join Here we have a one-to-many between As and Bs. Apart from the code below being hard to read, is it also inefficient? from a in dataContext.As where ((from b in dataContext.Bs where b.Text.StartsWith(searchText) select b.AId).Distinct()).Contains(a.Id) select a Would it be better, for example, to use the join and do something like this? from a in dataContext.As where a.Bs.Any(b => b.Text.StartsWith(searchText)) select a Example 2 - Explicit Joins vs Navigation Here we have a one-to-many between As and Bs and a one-to-many between Bs and Cs. from a in dataContext.As join b in dataContext.Bs on b.AId equals a.Id join c in dataContext.Cs on c.BId equals b.Id where c.SomeValue equals searchValue select a Is there a good reason to use explicit joins rather than navigating through the data model? For example: from a in dataContext.As where a.Bs.Any(b => b.Cs.Any(c => c.SomeValue == searchValue) select a

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I need help solving a rather weird error in a WCF service.

- by Moulde

Hi.. I have a solution that contains three projects. A main project with my MVC app, a silverlight application and a (silverlight enabled) WCF service project. In my silverlight project i have made a Service Reference to my WCF service. And i pretty much got that working. In my WCF service i have a method that returns an Book object, which got some random fields like title, date etc. In the book class, i have a ICollection field that contains a list of events. The book class is generated using entity framework 4.0, and Lazy Loading is enabled. If i in my getBook(int id) method return a book with the events field not initialized, it works as a charm. But if i initialize the field, i'm getting this error. The server did not provide a meaningful reply; this might be caused by a contract mismatch, a premature session shutdown or an internal server error. I have a few ideas why that is happening, and while writing this i just got another one. The wcf service somehow threw away the reference to the event class. That would be very weird since i have a reference between my main mvc app (with the models) and my WCF service. Since i have enabled lazy loading in EF 4.0, i suspect that it may be the thing generating the error. But i'm not sure why that would be, because i'm not in any way accessing that field. I could understand that i may not be able to access the events field after i recive the object in my silverlight application since the connection between the book object and the entity framework is like broken. Did i mention that Lazy Loading is enabled on my EF instance? And there is no inner exception in the thrown exception. Thanks in advance. Malte Baden Hansen

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Advice on Minimizing Stored Procedure Parameters

- by RPM1984

Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC Web Application that interacts with a SQL Server 2008 database via Entity Framework 4.0. On a particular page, i call a stored procedure in order to pull back some results based on selections on the UI. Now, the UI has around 20 different input selections, ranging from a textbox, dropdown list, checkboxes, etc. Each of those inputs are "grouped" into logical sections. Example: Search box : "Foo" Checkbox A1: ticked, Checkbox A2: unticked Dropdown A: option 3 selected Checkbox B1: ticked, Checkbox B2: ticked, Checkbox B3: unticked So i need to call the SPROC like this: exec SearchPage_FindResults @SearchQuery = 'Foo', @IncludeA1 = 1, @IncludeA2 = 0, @DropDownSelection = 3, @IncludeB1 = 1, @IncludeB2 = 1, @IncludeB3 = 0 The UI is not too important to this question - just wanted to give some perspective. Essentially, i'm pulling back results for a search query, filtering these results based on a bunch of (optional) selections a user can filter on. Now, My questions/queries: What's the best way to pass these parameters to the stored procedure? Are there any tricks/new ways (e.g SQL Server 2008) to do this? Special "table" parameters/arrays - can we pass through User-Defined-Types? Keep in mind im using Entity Framework 4.0 - but could always use classic ADO.NET for this if required. What about XML? What are the serialization/de-serialization costs here? Is it worth it? How about a parameter for each logical section? Comma-seperated perhaps? Just thinking out loud. This page is particulary important from a user point of view, and needs to perform really well. The stored procedure is already heavy in logic, so i want to minimize the performance implications - so keep that in mind. With that said - what is the best approach here?

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CSS selector involving pseudo class first-child and dropcap

- by Grnbeagle

Hi, I need to format HTML similar to below. Basically a quote is optional, and I need to dropcap the first letter of the body paragraph. <article> <p class="quote">  Genius begins great works; labor alone finishes them.-- Joseph Joubert </p> <p>  Life is like a box of chocolates. </p> <p>...</p> <p>...</p> </article> My CSS looks like this: article > p:first-child:first-letter { float: left; font-family: Georgia, serif; font-size: 360%; line-height: 0.85em; margin-right: 0.05em; } p.quote { font-weight: bold; } It doesn't work currently when the quote is introduced. AFAIK I can't select the article's first child P which is not class "quote." I'll use jQuery if I can't figure this out, but for now I'm looking for a way to do it CSS only. Thanks in advance!

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Generating code -- is there an easy way to get a proper string representation of nullable type?

- by Cory Larson

So I'm building an application that is going to do a ton of code generation with both C# and VB output (depending on project settings). I've got a CodeTemplateEngine, with two derived classes VBTemplateEngine and CSharpTemplateEngine. This question regards creating the property signatures based on columns in a database table. Using the IDataReader's GetSchemaTable method I gather the CLR type of the column, such as "System.Int32", and whether it IsNullable. However, I'd like to keep the code simple, and instead of having a property that looks like: public System.Int32? SomeIntegerColumn { get; set; } or public Nullable<System.Int32> SomeIntegerColumn { get; set; }, where the property type would be resolved with this function (from my VBTemplateEngine), public override string ResolveCLRType(bool? isNullable, string runtimeType) { Type type = TypeUtils.ResolveType(runtimeType); if (isNullable.HasValue && isNullable.Value == true && type.IsValueType) { return "System.Nullable(Of " + type.FullName + ")"; // or, for example... return type.FullName + "?"; } else { return type.FullName; } }, I would like to generate a simpler property. I hate the idea of building a Type string from nothing, and I would rather have something like: public int? SomeIntegerColumn { get; set; } Is there anything built-in anywhere, such as in the VBCodeProvider or CSharpCodeProvider classes that would somehow take care of this for me? Or is there a way to get a type alias of int? from a type string like System.Nullable'1[System.Int32]? Thanks!

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Not indent the first paragraph of a LaTeX document

- by Andrew

In the standard LaTeX article class (and probably others as well), paragraph indentation follows standard American publishing norms of not indenting the first paragraph after a section{} or subsection{}. I've redefined \maketitle in a LaTeX document and put the actual title left-aligned as the last line, fairly close to the actual text (kind of like this) Author Date Title Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. Section title Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. Since the title is left-aligned and so close to the text, I'd like the first paragraph of the document to not be indented, just like with the headings ... Title Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor... ... I've attempted to use @afterindentfalse, which is what the section commands use, inside my renewed commands, but it doesn't work. \makeatletter \def\noindentation{\let\@afterindentfalse} \newcommand{\mytitle}[1]{% \vskip 2em {\bf\sffamily\LARGE #1} \noindentation} \renewcommand{\@maketitle}{ \begin{flushleft}{ % Author \@author \par % Date \@date \par % Title \mytitle{\@title} } \end{flushleft} } \makeatother By default the first paragraph in the article class is indented, so this question is applicable whether or not I renew \maketitle. So, what's the best way to automatically not indent the first paragraph of the document? Thanks!

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Where do I input a piece of code in Emacs?

- by Vivi

Hi there, I have just started using Emacs for the specific purpose of editing latex documents. I was attracted to Emacs because I want to be able to customize syntax highlighting even to the point of defining the colors of specific words. I am new to Emacs and not a programmer, so I having an extreme difficulty in doing what I want to do because most help I find assume too much knowledge for my level (it took me days just to be able to install emacs + auctex and change the first face color). I found something that I think will help me but I don't know how to do it. The post below is what I want to do, but what I am supposed to do with this code? Where should I insert it or where should I type it? I am using GNU Emacs in Windows. Thank you so much for you help :) M-x what-face will print the face found at the current point. And the code for that is: (defun what-face (pos) (interactive "d") (let ((face (or (get-char-property (point) 'read-face-name) (get-char-property (point) 'face)))) (if face (message "Face: %s" face) (message "No face at %d" pos)))) By the way, I found this in another post that can be found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1242352/get-font-face-under-cursor-in-emacs

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How to select LI exept first and second ?

- by Wazdesign

Here is the structure of the content , I want to select all LI except the first two ( ie no-link) jQuery(document).ready(function(){ var nosubnav = jQuery('.first-level li:not(:has(ul))'); var nosubnavsize = jQuery('.first-level li:not(:has(ul))').size(); jQuery(nosubnav).css('border' , '1px solid red'); alert('List item which does not have submenu '+nosubnavsize); }); div class="navigation-container"> <ul class="first-level"> <li><a href="#">No Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">No Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link 1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link 2</a> <ul> <li><a href="#">Link2.1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link2.2</a> <ul> <li><a href="#">Link 2.2.1</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#">Link </a></li> </ul> </div> related Question : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2771801/how-to-count-li-which-does-not-have-ul

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How to select LI except first and second ?

- by Wazdesign

Here is the structure of the content, I want to select all LI except the first two (ie no-link) jQuery(document).ready(function(){ var nosubnav = jQuery('.first-level li:not(:has(ul))'); var nosubnavsize = jQuery('.first-level li:not(:has(ul))').size(); jQuery(nosubnav).css('border' , '1px solid red'); alert('List item which does not have submenu '+nosubnavsize); }); div class="navigation-container"> <ul class="first-level"> <li><a href="#">No Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">No Link</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link 1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link 2</a> <ul> <li><a href="#">Link2.1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Link2.2</a> <ul> <li><a href="#">Link 2.2.1</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#">Link </a></li> </ul> </div> related Question : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2771801/how-to-count-li-which-does-not-have-ul

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