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  • Pushing DNSSEC updates with offline keys

    - by eggyal
    In a non-professional capacity, I look after the DNS of some 18 domains: mostly personal/vanity domains for immediate family. I outsource the whole shebang to an inexpensive managed hosting provider with a web interface through which I manage the zones; since the provider also offers DNSSEC, I have successfully deployed that too. These domains are so unimportant that an attack targetted against them seems much less likely than a general compromise of my provider's systems, at which point the records of all their customers might be changed to misdirect traffic (perhaps with extremely long TTLs). DNSSEC could protect against such an attack, but only if the zone's private keys are not held by the hosting provider. So, I wonder: how can one keep DNSSEC private keys offline yet still transfer signed zones to an outsourced DNS host? The most obvious answer (to me, at least) is to run one's own shadow/hidden master (from which the provider can slave) and then copy offline-signed zonefiles to the master as required. The problem is that the only machine I (want to*) control is my personal laptop, which usually connects from a typical home ADSL (behind NAT over a dynamically-assigned IP address). Having them slave from that (e.g. with a very long Expiry time on the zone for periods when my laptop is offline/unavailable) would not only require a Dynamic DNS record from which they can slave (if indeed they can slave from a named host rather than a static IP address), but would also involve me running a DNS server on my laptop and opening both it and my home network up to the incoming zone transfer requests: not ideal. I would prefer a much more push-oriented design, whereby my laptop initiates transfer of offline-signed zonefiles/updates to the provider's servers. I looked into whether nsupdate could fit the bill: documentation is a little sketchy, but my testing (with BIND 9.7) suggests it can indeed update DNSSEC zones, but only where the server holds the keys to perform the zone signing; I have not found a way to have it take an update including the relevant RRSIG/NSEC/etc. records and have the server accept them. Is this a supported use-case? If not, I suspect the only solutions which could fit the bill will involve non-DNS-based transfer of the zone updates and would welcome recommendations that are supported by (hopefully inexpensive) hosting providers: SFTP/SCP? rsync? RDBMS replication? Proprietary API? Finally, what would be the practical implications of such a setup? Key rotation is jumping out at me as being an obvious difficulty, especially if my laptop is offline for extended periods. But the zones are extremely stable, so perhaps I could get away with long-lived ZSKs**...? * Whilst I could run a shadow/hidden master on e.g. an outsourced VPS, I dislike the overhead of having to secure / manage / monitor / maintain yet another system; not to mention the additional financial costs of so doing. ** Okay, this would enable a concerted attacker to replay outdated records—but the risk and impact of such are both tolerable in the case of these domains.

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  • volume group disappeared after xfs_check run

    - by John P
    EDIT** I have a volume group consisting of 5 RAID1 devices grouped together into a lvm and formatted with xfs. The 5th RAID device lost its RAID config (cat /proc/mdstat does not show anything). The two drives are still present (sdj and sdk), but they have no partitions. The LVM appeared to be happily using sdj up until recently. (doing a pvscan showed the first 4 RAID1 devices + /dev/sdj) I removed the LVM from the fstab, rebooted, then ran xfs_check on the LV. It ran for about half an hour, then stopped with an error. I tried rebooting again, and this time when it came up, the logical volume was no longer there. It is now looking for /dev/md5, which is gone (though it had been using /dev/sdj earlier). /dev/sdj was having read errors, but after replacing the SATA cable, those went away, so the drive appears to be fine for now. Can I modify the /etc/lvm/backup/dedvol, change the device to /dev/sdj and do a vgcfgrestore? I could try doing a pvcreate --uuid KZron2-pPTr-ZYeQ-PKXX-4Woq-6aNc-AG4rRJ /dev/sdj to make it recognize it, but I'm afraid that would erase the data on the drive UPDATE: just changing the pv to point to /dev/sdj did not work vgcfgrestore --file /etc/lvm/backup/dedvol dedvol Couldn't find device with uuid 'KZron2-pPTr-ZYeQ-PKXX-4Woq-6aNc-AG4rRJ'. Cannot restore Volume Group dedvol with 1 PVs marked as missing. Restore failed. pvscan /dev/sdj: read failed after 0 of 4096 at 0: Input/output error Couldn't find device with uuid 'KZron2-pPTr-ZYeQ-PKXX-4Woq-6aNc-AG4rRJ'. Couldn't find device with uuid 'KZron2-pPTr-ZYeQ-PKXX-4Woq-6aNc-AG4rRJ'. Couldn't find device with uuid 'KZron2-pPTr-ZYeQ-PKXX-4Woq-6aNc-AG4rRJ'. Couldn't find device with uuid 'KZron2-pPTr-ZYeQ-PKXX-4Woq-6aNc-AG4rRJ'. PV /dev/sdd2 VG VolGroup00 lvm2 [74.41 GB / 0 free] PV /dev/md2 VG dedvol lvm2 [931.51 GB / 0 free] PV /dev/md3 VG dedvol lvm2 [931.51 GB / 0 free] PV /dev/md0 VG dedvol lvm2 [931.51 GB / 0 free] PV /dev/md4 VG dedvol lvm2 [931.51 GB / 0 free] PV unknown device VG dedvol lvm2 [1.82 TB / 63.05 GB free] Total: 6 [5.53 TB] / in use: 6 [5.53 TB] / in no VG: 0 [0 ] vgscan Reading all physical volumes. This may take a while... /dev/sdj: read failed after 0 of 4096 at 0: Input/output error /dev/sdj: read failed after 0 of 4096 at 2000398843904: Input/output error Found volume group "VolGroup00" using metadata type lvm2 Found volume group "dedvol" using metadata type lvm2 vgdisplay dedvol --- Volume group --- VG Name dedvol System ID Format lvm2 Metadata Areas 5 Metadata Sequence No 10 VG Access read/write VG Status resizable MAX LV 0 Cur LV 1 Open LV 0 Max PV 0 Cur PV 5 Act PV 5 VG Size 5.46 TB PE Size 4.00 MB Total PE 1430796 Alloc PE / Size 1414656 / 5.40 TB Free PE / Size 16140 / 63.05 GB VG UUID o1U6Ll-5WH8-Pv7Z-Rtc4-1qYp-oiWA-cPD246 dedvol { id = "o1U6Ll-5WH8-Pv7Z-Rtc4-1qYp-oiWA-cPD246" seqno = 10 status = ["RESIZEABLE", "READ", "WRITE"] flags = [] extent_size = 8192 # 4 Megabytes max_lv = 0 max_pv = 0 physical_volumes { pv0 { id = "Msiee7-Zovu-VSJ3-Y2hR-uBVd-6PaT-Ho9v95" device = "/dev/md2" # Hint only status = ["ALLOCATABLE"] flags = [] dev_size = 1953519872 # 931.511 Gigabytes pe_start = 384 pe_count = 238466 # 931.508 Gigabytes } pv1 { id = "ZittCN-0x6L-cOsW-v1v4-atVN-fEWF-e3lqUe" device = "/dev/md3" # Hint only status = ["ALLOCATABLE"] flags = [] dev_size = 1953519872 # 931.511 Gigabytes pe_start = 384 pe_count = 238466 # 931.508 Gigabytes } pv2 { id = "NRNo0w-kgGr-dUxA-mWnl-bU5v-Wld0-XeKVLD" device = "/dev/md0" # Hint only status = ["ALLOCATABLE"] flags = [] dev_size = 1953519872 # 931.511 Gigabytes pe_start = 384 pe_count = 238466 # 931.508 Gigabytes } pv3 { id = "2EfLFr-JcRe-MusW-mfAs-WCct-u4iV-W0pmG3" device = "/dev/md4" # Hint only status = ["ALLOCATABLE"] flags = [] dev_size = 1953519872 # 931.511 Gigabytes pe_start = 384 pe_count = 238466 # 931.508 Gigabytes } pv4 { id = "KZron2-pPTr-ZYeQ-PKXX-4Woq-6aNc-AG4rRJ" device = "/dev/md5" # Hint only status = ["ALLOCATABLE"] flags = [] dev_size = 3907028992 # 1.81935 Terabytes pe_start = 384 pe_count = 476932 # 1.81935 Terabytes } }

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  • In Linux, what's the best way to delegate administration responsibilities, like for Apache, a database, or some other application?

    - by Andrew Banks
    In Linux, what's the best way to delegate administration responsibilities for Apache and other "applications"? File permissions? Sudo? A mix of both? Something else? At work we have two tiers of "administrators" Operating system administrators. These are your run-of-the-mill "server administrators." They are responsible for just the operating system. Application administrators. The people who build the web site. This includes not only writing the SQL, PHP, and HTML, but also setting up and running Apache and PostgreSQL or MySQL. The aforementioned OS admins will install this stuff, but it's mainly up to the app admins to edit all the config files, start and stop processes when needed, and so on. I am one of the app admins. This is different than what I am used to. I used to just write code. The sysadmin took care not only of the OS but also installing, setting up, and keeping up the server software. But he left. Now I'm in charge of setting up Apache and the database. The new sysadmins say they just handle the operating system. It's no problem. I welcome learning new stuff. But there is a learning curve, even for the OS admins. Apache, by default, seems to be set up for administration by root directly. All the config files and scripts are 644 and owned by root:root. I'm not given the root password, naturally, so the OS admins must somehow give my ordinary OS user account all the rights necessary to edit Apache's config files, start and stop it, read its log files, and so on. Right now they're using a mix of: (1) giving me certain sudo rights, (2) adding me to certain groups, and (3) changing the file permissions of various directories, to make them writable by one of the groups I'm in. This never goes smoothly. There's always a back-and-forth between me and the sysadmins. They say it's ready. Then I try certain things, and half of them I still can't do. So they make some more changes. Then finally I seem to be independent and can administer Apache and the database without pestering them anymore. It's the sheer complication and amount of changes that make me uncomfortable. Even though it finally works, more or less, it seems hackneyed. I feel like we're doing it wrong. It seems like the makers of the software would have anticipated this scenario (someone other than root administering it) and have a clean two- or three-step program to delegate responsibility to me. But it feels like we are really chewing up the filesystem and making it far and away from the default set-up. Any suggestions? Are we doing it the recommended way? P.S. For PostgreSQL it seems a little better. Its files are owned by a system user named postgres. So giving me the right to run sudo su - postgres gives me just about everything. I'm just now getting into MySQL, but it seems to be set up similarly. But it seems a little weird doing all my work as another user.

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  • Distributed and/or Parallel SSIS processing

    - by Jeff
    Background: Our company hosts SaaS DSS applications, where clients provide us data Daily and/or Weekly, which we process & merge into their existing database. During business hours, load in the servers are pretty minimal as it's mostly users running simple pre-defined queries via the website, or running drill-through reports that mostly hit the SSAS OLAP cube. I manage the IT Operations Team, and so far this has presented an interesting "scaling" issue for us. For our daily-refreshed clients, the server is only "busy" for about 4-6 hrs at night. For our weekly-refresh clients, the server is only "busy" for maybe 8-10 hrs per week! We've done our best to use some simple methods of distributing the load by spreading the daily clients evenly among the servers such that we're not trying to process daily clients back-to-back over night. But long-term this scaling strategy creates two notable issues. First, it's going to consume a pretty immense amount of hardware that sits idle for large periods of time. Second, it takes significant Production Support over-head to basically "schedule" the ETL such that they don't over-lap, and move clients/schedules around if they out-grow the resources on a particular server or allocated time-slot. As the title would imply, one option we've tried is running multiple SSIS packages in parallel, but in most cases this has yielded VERY inconsistent results. The most common failures are DTExec, SQL, and SSAS fighting for physical memory and throwing out-of-memory errors, and ETLs running 3,4,5x longer than expected. So from my practical experience thus far, it seems like running multiple ETL packages on the same hardware isn't a good idea, but I can't be the first person that doesn't want to scale multiple ETLs around manual scheduling, and sequential processing. One option we've considered is virtualizing the servers, which obviously doesn't give you any additional resources, but moves the resource contention onto the hypervisor, which (from my experience) seems to manage simultaneous CPU/RAM/Disk I/O a little more gracefully than letting DTExec, SQL, and SSAS battle it out within Windows. Question to the forum: So my question to the forum is, are we missing something obvious here? Are there tools out there that can help manage running multiple SSIS packages on the same hardware? Would it be more "efficient" in terms of parallel execution if instead of running DTExec, SQL, and SSAS same machine (with every machine running that configuration), we run in pairs of three machines with SSIS running on one machine, SQL on another, and SSAS on a third? Obviously that would only make sense if we could process more than the three ETL we were able to process on the machine independently. Another option we've considered is completely re-architecting our SSIS package to have one "master" package for all clients that attempts to intelligently chose a server based off how "busy" it already is in terms of CPU/Memory/Disk utilization, but that would be a herculean effort, and seems like we're trying to reinvent something that you would think someone would sell (although I haven't had any luck finding it). So in summary, are we missing an obvious solution for this, and does anyone know if any tools (for free or for purchase, doesn't matter) that facilitate running multiple SSIS ETL packages in parallel and on multiple servers? (What I would call a "queue & node based" system, but that's not an official term). Ultimately VMWare's Distributed Resource Scheduler addresses this as you simply run a consistent number of clients per VM that you know will never conflict scheduleing-wise, then leave it up to VMWare to move the VMs around to balance out hardware usage. I'm definitely not against using VMWare to do this, but since we're a 100% Microsoft app stack, it seems like -someone- out there would have solved this problem at the application layer instead of the hypervisor layer by checking on resource utilization at the OS, SQL, SSAS levels. I'm open to ANY discussion on this, and remember no suggestion is too crazy or radical! :-) Right now, VMWare is the only option we've found to get away from "manually" balancing our resources, so any suggestions that leave us on a pure Microsoft stack would be great. Thanks guys, Jeff

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  • What networking hardware do I need in this situation (Fairpoint [ISP] "E-DIA" connection)?

    - by Tegeril
    Right away you'd probably want to say, "Well just ask Fairpoint." I've done that, a number of times in as many different ways I can phrase it and just keep hitting a brick wall where they will not commit to giving any useful information and instead recommend contracting an outside firm and spending a pile of money. Anyway... I'm trying to help a family member out with an office connection that is being setup. I've managed to scrape tiny details here and there from our discussions with the ISP (Fairpoint in Maine) about what is going to be done and what is going to be needed. This is the connection that is being setup: http://www.fairpoint.com/enterprise/vantagepoint/e-dia/index.jsp Information I have been given: Via this connection I can get IPs across different C blocks if that were necessary (it is not) Fairpoint is bringing hardware with them that they claim simply does the conversion from whatever line is coming in the building to ethernet, they have referred to this as the "Fairpoint Netvanta" which I know suggests a line of products that I have looked up, but some (most? all?) of those seems to handle all the routing that I saw. Fairpoint says that I need to bring my own router to sit behind their device. They have literally declined to even suggest products that have worked for other clients in the past and fall back on "any business router works, not a home router." That alone makes my head spin. Detail and clarity hit a brick wall from there. At one moment I got them to cough up that the router I provide needs to be able to do VPN tunneling but they typically fall back to "not a home router" and I was even given "just a business router, Cisco or something, it'll be $500-$1000". Now I know that VPN tunneling routers exist well below that price point and since this connection is going to one machine, possibly two only via ethernet, my desire to purchase networking hardware that over-delivers what I need is not very high. They are literally setting all this up, have provided no configuration details for after they finish, and expect me to just plunk a $500+ router behind it and cross my fingers or contract out to a third party company. If there were other options available for the location, I would have dropped them in a second, but there aren't. The device that is connected requires a static IP and I'm honestly a bit hazy on the necessity of an additional router behind their device and generally a bit over my head. I presume that the router needs to be able to serve external static IPs to its clients, but I really don't know what is going to show up when they come to do the install. This was originally going to be run via an ADSL bridge modem with a range of static IPs (which is easy and is currently setup properly) but the location is too far from the telco to get speeds that we really want for upload and this is also a connection that needs high availability. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated (I see a number of options in the Cisco Small Business line and other competitors that aren't going to break the bank…), especially if you've worked with Fairpoint before! Thanks for reading my wall of text.

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  • Flat File Connection Manager in SSIS package shows "Valid File Name Must be Selected"

    - by Traples
    (Flat File Location) Samba Share | Windows Share (SSIS) _______________________________ | | XP 32bit | Works | Works | | 2003 Serv 32bit | Works | Works | | Vista 64bit | ERROR | Works | | Win 7 64bit | ERROR | Works | | 2008 Serv 64bit | ERROR | Works I created an SSIS package in VS 2008 that parses a flat file from a shared folder and puts the records into a SQL Server db. I recently installed Windows 7 and VS 2008 on a new workstation. When I import the package from TFS and open it, I get the error Validation error. Parse and Import Catalog Flat File: MySSISPackage: The file name "\\shared\flatfile.txt" specified in the connection was not valid. When I open the Flat File Connection Manager Editor, there is an error stating: A valid file name must be selected I can browse to and select the file from inside the editor, but I cannot change any properties, or move away from the General tab because of this error. If I go back to my laptop (Windows XP), where the package was first created, there is no error. Both workstations are on the same domain, and I'm logging in using the same credentials. Any ideas as to why I would receive this error from one workstation and not another? UPDATE: If I take the .dtsx package from the running workstation and load it into SSIS on the server, I get the following errors when it tries to run: Error: The file name "\\shared\flatfile.txt" specified in the connection was not valid. and... Error: Connection "MySSISPackage" failed validation. and... Error: The file name property is not valid. The file name is a device or contains invalid characters. UPDATE 2: a) The Shared folder I'm trying to pull the flat file from is a Samba share on a Unix box. b) If I access the file using SSIS on any 64-bit platform (Windows 7 64-bit, Vista 64-bit, Windows Server 2008) I get the error "A valid file name must be selected." c) Accessing the file using SSIS from 32-bit environments (Windows XP 32-bit, Windows Server 2003 32-bit) there is no problem. d) If I move the file to a shared folder on a Windows server, 64-bit SSIS recognizes the file.

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  • Why is Git telling me "Your branch is ahead of 'origin/master' by 11 commits." and how do I get it t

    - by spilth
    I'm a Git newbie. I recently moved a Rails project from Subversion to Git. I followed the tutorial here: http://www.simplisticcomplexity.com/2008/03/05/cleanly-migrate-your-subversion-repository-to-a-git-repository/ I am also using unfuddle.com to store my code. I make changes on my Mac laptop on the train to/from work and then push them to unfuddle when I have a network connection using the following command: git push unfuddle master I use Capistrano for deployments and pull code from the unfuddle repository using the master branch. Lately I've noticed the following message when I run "git status" on my laptop: # On branch master # Your branch is ahead of 'origin/master' by 11 commits. # nothing to commit (working directory clean) And I'm confused as to why. I thought my laptop was the origin... but don't know if either the fact that I originally pulled from Subversion or push to Unfuddle is what's causing the message to show up. How can I: Find out where Git thinks 'origin/master' is? If it's somewhere else, how do I turn my laptop into the 'origin/master'? Get this message to go away. It makes me think Git is unhappy about something. My mac is running Git version 1.6.0.1. When I run git remote show origin as suggested by dbr, I get the following: ~/Projects/GeekFor/geekfor 10:47 AM $ git remote show origin fatal: '/Users/brian/Projects/GeekFor/gf/.git': unable to chdir or not a git archive fatal: The remote end hung up unexpectedly When I run git remote -v as suggested by Aristotle Pagaltzis, I get the following: ~/Projects/GeekFor/geekfor 10:33 AM $ git remote -v origin /Users/brian/Projects/GeekFor/gf/.git unfuddle [email protected]:spilth/geekfor.git Now, interestingly, I'm working on my project in the geekfor directory but it says my origin is my local machine in the gf directory. I believe gf was the temporary directory I used when converting my project from Subversion to Git and probably where I pushed to unfuddle from. Then I believe I checked out a fresh copy from unfuddle to the geekfor directory. So it looks like I should follow dbr's advice and do: git remote rm origin git remote add origin [email protected]:spilth/geekfor.git

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  • Creating Entity Framework objects with Unity for Unit of Work/Repository pattern

    - by TobyEvans
    Hi there, I'm trying to implement the Unit of Work/Repository pattern, as described here: http://blogs.msdn.com/adonet/archive/2009/06/16/using-repository-and-unit-of-work-patterns-with-entity-framework-4-0.aspx This requires each Repository to accept an IUnitOfWork implementation, eg an EF datacontext extended with a partial class to add an IUnitOfWork interface. I'm actually using .net 3.5, not 4.0. My basic Data Access constructor looks like this: public DataAccessLayer(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, IRealtimeRepository realTimeRepository) { this.unitOfWork = unitOfWork; this.realTimeRepository = realTimeRepository; } So far, so good. What I'm trying to do is add Dependency Injection using the Unity Framework. Getting the EF data context to be created with Unity was an adventure, as it had trouble resolving the constructor - what I did in the end was to create another constructor in my partial class with a new overloaded constructor, and marked that with [InjectionConstructor] [InjectionConstructor] public communergyEntities(string connectionString, string containerName) :this() { (I know I need to pass the connection string to the base object, that can wait until once I've got all the objects initialising correctly) So, using this technique, I can happily resolve my entity framework object as an IUnitOfWork instance thus: using (IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer()) { container.RegisterType<IUnitOfWork, communergyEntities>(); container.Configure<InjectedMembers>() .ConfigureInjectionFor<communergyEntities>( new InjectionConstructor("a", "b")) DataAccessLayer target = container.Resolve<DataAccessLayer>(); Great. What I need to do now is create the reference to the repository object for the DataAccessLayer - the DAL only needs to know the interface, so I'm guessing that I need to instantiate it as part of the Unity Resolve statement, passing it the appropriate IUnitOfWork interface. In the past, I would have just passed the Repository constructor the db connection string, and it would have gone away, created a local Entity Framework object and used that just for the lifetime of the Repository method. This is different, in that I create an Entity Framework instance as an IUnitOfWork implementation during the Unity Resolve statement, and it's that instance I need to pass into the constructor of the Repository - is that possible, and if so, how? I'm wondering if I could make the Repository a property and mark it as a Dependency, but that still wouldn't solve the problem of how to create the Repository with the IUnitOfWork object that the DAL is being Resolved with I'm not sure if I've understood this pattern correctly, and will happily take advice on the best way to implement it - Entity Framework is staying, but Unity can be swapped out if not the best approach. If I've got the whole thing upside down, please tell me thanks

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  • Using depends with the jQuery Validation plugin

    - by Glenn Slaven
    I've got a form with a bunch of textboxes that are disabled by default, then enabled by use of a checkbox next to each one. When enabled, the values in these textboxes are required to be a valid number, but when disabled they don't need a value (obviously). I'm using the jQuery Validation plugin to do this validation, but it doesn't seem to be doing what I expect. When I click the checkbox and disable the textbox, I still get the invalid field error despite the depends clause I've added to the rules (see code below). Oddly, what actually happens is that the error message shows for a split second then goes away. Here is a sample of the list of checkboxes & textboxes: <ul id="ItemList"> <li> <label for="OneSelected">One</label><input id="OneSelected" name="OneSelected" type="checkbox" value="true" /> <input name="OneSelected" type="hidden" value="false" /> <input disabled="disabled" id="OneValue" name="OneValue" type="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="TwoSelected">Two</label><input id="TwoSelected" name="TwoSelected" type="checkbox" value="true" /> <input name="TwoSelected" type="hidden" value="false" /> <input disabled="disabled" id="TwoValue" name="TwoValue" type="text" /> </li> </ul> And here is the jQuery code I'm using //Wire up the click event on the checkbox jQuery('#ItemList :checkbox').click(function(event) { var textBox = jQuery(this).siblings(':text'); textBox.valid(); if (!jQuery(this).attr("checked")) { textBox.attr('disabled', 'disabled'); textBox.val(''); } else { textBox.removeAttr('disabled'); textBox[0].focus(); } }); //Add the rules to each textbox jQuery('#ItemList :text').each(function(e) { jQuery(this).rules('add', { required: { depends: function(element) { return jQuery(element).siblings(':checkbox').attr('checked'); } }, number: { depends: function(element) { return jQuery(element).siblings(':checkbox').attr('checked'); } } }); }); Ignore the hidden field in each li it's there because I'm using asp.net MVC's Html.Checkbox method.

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  • Python Memory leak - Solved, but still puzzled

    - by disappearedng
    Dear everyone, I have successfully debugged my own memory leak problems. However, I have noticed some very strange occurence. for fid, fv in freqDic.iteritems(): outf.write(fid+"\t") #ID for i, term in enumerate(domain): #Vector tfidf = self.tf(term, fv) * self.idf( term, docFreqDic) if i == len(domain) - 1: outf.write("%f\n" % tfidf) else: outf.write("%f\t" % tfidf) outf.flush() print "Memory increased by", int(self.memory_mon.usage()) - startMemory outf.close() def tf(self, term, freqVector): total = freqVector[TOTAL] if total == 0: return 0 if term not in freqVector: ## When you don't have these lines memory leaks occurs return 0 ## return float(freqVector[term]) / freqVector[TOTAL] def idf(self, term, docFrequencyPerTerm): if term not in docFrequencyPerTerm: return 0 return math.log( float(docFrequencyPerTerm[TOTAL])/docFrequencyPerTerm[term]) Basically let me describe my problem: 1) I am doing tfidf calculations 2) I traced that the source of memory leaks is coming from defaultdict. 3) I am using the memory_mon from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/276052/how-to-get-current-cpu-and-ram-usage-in-python 4) The reason for my memory leaks is as follows: a) in self.tf, if the lines: if term not in freqVector: return 0 are not added that will cause the memory leak. (I verified this myself using memory_mon and noticed a sharp increase in memory that kept on increasing) The solution to my problem was 1) since fv is a defaultdict, any reference to it that are not found in fv will create an entry. Over a very large domain, this will cause memory leaks. I decided to use dict instead of default dict and the memory problem did go away. My only puzzle is: since fv is created in "for fid, fv in freqDic.iteritems():" shouldn't fv be destroyed at the end of every for loop? I tried putting gc.collect() at the end of the for loop but gc was not able to collect everything (returns 0). Yes, the hypothesis is right, but the memory should stay fairly consistent with ever for loop if for loops do destroy all temp variables. This is what it looks like with that two line in self.tf: Memory increased by 12 Memory increased by 948 Memory increased by 28 Memory increased by 36 Memory increased by 36 Memory increased by 32 Memory increased by 28 Memory increased by 32 Memory increased by 32 Memory increased by 32 Memory increased by 40 Memory increased by 32 Memory increased by 32 Memory increased by 28 and without the the two line: Memory increased by 1652 Memory increased by 3576 Memory increased by 4220 Memory increased by 5760 Memory increased by 7296 Memory increased by 8840 Memory increased by 10456 Memory increased by 12824 Memory increased by 13460 Memory increased by 15000 Memory increased by 17448 Memory increased by 18084 Memory increased by 19628 Memory increased by 22080 Memory increased by 22708 Memory increased by 24248 Memory increased by 26704 Memory increased by 27332 Memory increased by 28864 Memory increased by 30404 Memory increased by 32856 Memory increased by 33552 Memory increased by 35024 Memory increased by 36564 Memory increased by 39016 Memory increased by 39924 Memory increased by 42104 Memory increased by 42724 Memory increased by 44268 Memory increased by 46720 Memory increased by 47352 Memory increased by 48952 Memory increased by 50428 Memory increased by 51964 Memory increased by 53508 Memory increased by 55960 Memory increased by 56584 Memory increased by 58404 Memory increased by 59668 Memory increased by 61208 Memory increased by 62744 Memory increased by 64400 I look forward to your answer

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  • Android: OutofMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget with no reason I can see.

    - by Meymann
    Hi. I am having an OutOfMemory exception with a gallery over 600x800 pixels JPEG's. The environment I've been using Gallery with JPG images around 600x800 pixels. Since my content may be a bit more complex than just images, I have set each view to be a RelativeLayout that wraps ImageView with the JPG. In order to "speed up" the user experience I have a simple cache of 4 slots that prefetches (in a looper) about 1 image left and 1 image right to the displayed image and keeps them in a 4 slot HashMap. The platform I am using AVD of 256 RAM and 128 Heap Size, with a 600x800 screen. It also happens on an Entourage Edge target, except that with the device it's harder to debug. The problem I have been getting an exception: OutofMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget And it happens when fetching the fifth image. I have tried to change the size of my image cache, and it is still the same. The strange thing: There should not be a memory problem In order to make sure the heap limit is very far away from what I need, I have defined a dummy 8MB array in the beginning, and left it unreferenced so it's immediately dispatched. It is a member of the activity thread and is defined as following static { @SuppressWarnings("unused") byte dummy[] = new byte[ 8*1024*1024 ]; } The result is that the heap size is nearly 11MB and it's all free. Note I have added that trick after it began to crash. It makes OutOfMemory less frequent. Now, I am using DDMS. Just before the crash (does not change much after the crash), DDMS shows: ID Heap Size Allocated Free %Used #Objects 1 11.195 MB 2.428 MB 8.767 MB 21.69% 47,156 And in the detail table it shows: Type Count Total Size Smallest Largest Median Average free 1,536 8.739MB 16B 7.750MB 24B 5.825KB The largest block is 7.7MB. And yet the LogCat says: ERROR/dalvikvm-heap(1923): 925200-byte external allocation too large for this process. If you mind the relation of the median and the average, it is plausible to assume that most of the available blocks are very small. However, there is a block large enough for the bitmap, it's 7.7M. How come it is still not enough? Note: I recorded a heap trace. When looking at the amount of data allocated, it does not feel like more than 2M is allocated. It does match the free memory report by DDMS. Could it be that I experience some problem like heap-fragmentation? How do I solve/workaround the problem? Is the heap shared to all threads? Could it be that I interpret the DDMS readout in a wrong way, and there is really no 900K block to allocate? If so, can anybody please tell me where I can see that? Thanks a lot Meymann

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  • How to send messages between c++ .dll and C# app using named pipe?

    - by Gal
    I'm making an injected .dll written in C++, and I want to communicate with a C# app using named pipes. Now, I am using the built in System.IO.Pipe .net classes in the C# app, and I'm using the regular functions in C++. I don't have much experience in C++ (Read: This is my first C++ code..), tho I'm experienced in C#. It seems that the connection with the server and the client is working, the only problem is the messaged aren't being send. I tried making the .dll the server, the C# app the server, making the pipe direction InOut (duplex) but none seems to work. When I tried to make the .dll the server, which sends messages to the C# app, the code I used was like this: DWORD ServerCreate() // function to create the server and wait till it successfully creates it to return. { hPipe = CreateNamedPipe(pipename,//The unique pipe name. This string must have the following form: \\.\pipe\pipename PIPE_ACCESS_DUPLEX, PIPE_TYPE_MESSAGE | PIPE_READMODE_MESSAGE | PIPE_NOWAIT, //write and read and return right away PIPE_UNLIMITED_INSTANCES,//The maximum number of instances that can be created for this pipe 4096 , // output time-out 4096 , // input time-out 0,//client time-out NULL); if(hPipe== INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { return 1;//failed } else return 0;//success } void SendMsg(string msg) { DWORD cbWritten; WriteFile(hPipe,msg.c_str(), msg.length()+1, &cbWritten,NULL); } void ProccesingPipeInstance() { while(ServerCreate() == 1)//if failed { Sleep(1000); } //if created success, wait to connect ConnectNamedPipe(hPipe, NULL); for(;;) { SendMsg("HI!"); if( ConnectNamedPipe(hPipe, NULL)==0) if(GetLastError()==ERROR_NO_DATA) { DebugPrintA("previous closed,ERROR_NO_DATA"); DisconnectNamedPipe(hPipe); ConnectNamedPipe(hPipe, NULL); } Sleep(1000); } And the C# cliend like this: static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Hello!"); using (var pipe = new NamedPipeClientStream(".", "HyprPipe", PipeDirection.In)) { Console.WriteLine("Created Client!"); Console.Write("Connecting to pipe server in the .dll ..."); pipe.Connect(); Console.WriteLine("DONE!"); using (var pr = new StreamReader(pipe)) { string t; while ((t = pr.ReadLine()) != null) { Console.WriteLine("Message: {0}",t); } } } } I see that the C# client connected to the .dll, but it won't receive any message.. I tried doing it the other way around, as I said before, and trying to make the C# send messages to the .dll, which would show them in a message box. The .dll was injected and connected to the C# server, but when It received a message it just crashed the application it was injected to. Please help me, or guide me on how to use named pipes between C++ and C# app

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  • Android Packaging Problem: resources.ap_ does not exist

    - by Galip
    I am trying to fix a problem in Eclipse for like 3 hours and I haven't made any progress. Tomorrow is the customer coming to look at my app, and I have no time left. This is really frustrating! This morning when I was coding and I wanted to run my app on my device Eclipse crashed all of a sudden. 'aapt.exe has stopped working' After this Eclipse wasn't starting anymore. It froze at the splash image. I looked on the internet and tried different solutions like going back to Java SE 6 update 20, changing .ini file etc. in the end reinstalling Eclipse did the job. Shortly after that the 'aapt.exe has stopped working' returned. I found a solution by changing my projects target. 1.5, 1.6, 2.2 doesn't matter, as long as it's different than the one before. Now I get the Error generating final archive: java.io.FileNotFoundException: C:\xxx\bin\resources.ap_ does not exist error. I tried clean but that doesn't work. Deleting and automatically regenarting R.java also didn't work. I ran the same code in Netbeans with the Android plugin and there it gives me the 'aapt.exe has stopped working' again :( Please guys, how can I fix this? Edit: I think I may have found the reason. These are the error lines in the console: org.xmlpull.v1.XmlPullParserException: Binary XML file line #3: <bitmap> requires a valid src attribute at android.graphics.drawable.BitmapDrawable.inflate(BitmapDrawable.java:341) at android.graphics.drawable.Drawable.createFromXmlInner(Drawable.java:779) at android.graphics.drawable.Drawable.createFromXml(Drawable.java:720) at com.android.layoutlib.bridge.ResourceHelper.getDrawable(ResourceHelper.java:150) at com.android.layoutlib.bridge.BridgeTypedArray.getDrawable(BridgeTypedArray.java:668) at android.view.View.<init>(View.java:1846) at android.view.View.<init>(View.java:1795) at android.view.ViewGroup.<init>(ViewGroup.java:282) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Unknown Source) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.invokeFramework(Main.java:619) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.basicRun(Main.java:574) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.run(Main.java:1407) at org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.Main.main(Main.java:1383) [2011-01-17 16:37:20 - gegevens.xml] Unable to resolve drawable "com.android.layoutlib.utils.ResourceValue@267e33de" in attribute "background" The file it's talking about is 'bg.png'. It's a small png file which I repeat in a .xml file. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <bitmap xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:src="@drawable/bg" android:tileMode="repeat" /> This file has worked from the first time without any problems. I deleted it from the drawable folder, waited for an error message, and then added it back. The red x next to the foldername got away, but still nothing different...

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  • How can I make a WPF TreeView data binding lazy and asynchronous?

    - by pauldoo
    I am learning how to use data binding in WPF for a TreeView. I am procedurally creating the Binding object, setting Source, Path, and Converter properties to point to my own classes. I can even go as far as setting IsAsync and I can see the GUI update asynchronously when I explore the tree. So far so good! My problem is that WPF eagerly evaluates parts of the tree prior to them being expanded in the GUI. If left long enough this would result in the entire tree being evaluated (well actually in this example my tree is infinite, but you get the idea). I would like the tree only be evaluated on demand as the user expands the nodes. Is this possible using the existing asynchronous data binding stuff in the WPF? As an aside I have not figured out how ObjectDataProvider relates to this task. My XAML code contains only a single TreeView object, and my C# code is: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); treeView.Items.Add( CreateItem(2) ); } static TreeViewItem CreateItem(int number) { TreeViewItem item = new TreeViewItem(); item.Header = number; Binding b = new Binding(); b.Converter = new MyConverter(); b.Source = new MyDataProvider(number); b.Path = new PropertyPath("Value"); b.IsAsync = true; item.SetBinding(TreeView.ItemsSourceProperty, b); return item; } class MyDataProvider { readonly int m_value; public MyDataProvider(int value) { m_value = value; } public int[] Value { get { // Sleep to mimick a costly operation that should not hang the UI System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2000); System.Diagnostics.Debug.Write(string.Format("Evaluated for {0}\n", m_value)); return new int[] { m_value * 2, m_value + 1, }; } } } class MyConverter : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { // Convert the double to an int. int[] values = (int[])value; IList<TreeViewItem> result = new List<TreeViewItem>(); foreach (int i in values) { result.Add(CreateItem(i)); } return result; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { throw new InvalidOperationException("Not implemented."); } } } Note: I have previously managed to do lazy evaluation of the tree nodes by adding WPF event handlers and directly adding items when the event handlers are triggered. I'm trying to move away from that and use data binding instead (which I understand is more in spirit with "the WPF way").

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  • InteropServices COMException when executing a .net app from a web CGI script on Windows Server 2003

    - by Kurt W. Leucht
    Disclaimer: I'm completely clueless about .net and COM. I have a vendor's application that appears to be written in .net and I'm trying to wrap it with a web form (a cgi-bin Perl script) so I can eventually launch this vendor's app from a separate computer. I'm on a Windows Server 2003 R2 SE SP1 system and I'm using Apache 2.2 for the web server and ActivePerl 5.10.0.1004 for the cgi script. My cgi script calls the vendor's app that resides on the same machine using the Perl backtick operator. ... $result = "Result: " . `$vendorsPath/$vendorsExecutable $arg1 $arg2`; ... Right now I'm just running IE web browser locally on the server machine and accessing "http://localhost/cgi-bin/myPerlScript.pl". The vendor's app fails and logs a debug message that includes the following stack trace (I changed a couple names so as to not give away the vendor's identity): ... System.Reflection.TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. ---> System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80043A1D): 0x80040154 - Class not registered --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.RuntimeType.InvokeDispMethod(String name, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Object target, Object[] args, Boolean[] byrefModifiers, Int32 culture, String[] namedParameters) at System.RuntimeType.InvokeMember(String name, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object target, Object[] args, ParameterModifier[] modifiers, CultureInfo culture, String[] namedParameters) at VendorsTool.Engine.Core.VendorsEngine.LoadVendorsServices(String fileName, String& projectCommPath) ... When I run the vendors app from the Windows command line on the server machine with the exact same arguments that the cgi script is passing it runs just fine, so there's something about invoking their app via the web script that is causing a problem. This problem is likely security related because the whole thing runs just fine on a Windows XP Pro machine (both command line and web invocation). I actually developed my web script there and got it completely working there before I tried moving it to the Windows Server 2003 machine. So what's different about the Windows Server 2003 machine that would keep the vendor's .net app from being executed successfully by a web cgi script? Can I fix this problem somehow to make it work on my server or will the vendor have to make a change to their .net app and ship out a new version? I'm probably the only person in the world who is trying to execute this vendor's app from a separate program, so I hate to bother the vendor with the issue if there's a workaround that I can implement myself here on my server machine. Plus, I'm in kind of a hurry and I don't want to wait 4 or 6 months for the vendor to put in a fix and deploy a new version. Thanks for any advise you can give.

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  • facebook connect for android returns a blank login screen?

    - by jonney
    Hi, i am trying to use the old facebook connect authentication to authenticate my android client to get the necessary session id's and other credentials thats needed to start using the web service of facebook. the issue i am having is that when my android application launces and tries to load the login page for facebook, that very same login page is blank and it only displays the the facebook logo as the title of the screen. No login fields or buttons are visible leaving me nowhere to login and authenticate a user. i have tried two API's one is facebook connect api for android http://code.google.com/p/fbconnect-android/ and the other one is the official android facebook sdk that is recommended to be used instead of the previous one i have just mentioned https://github.com/facebook/facebook-android-sdk/ . please see the image below of how it looks like on my app. Here is code that uses the latest android sdk facebook: /** * Authenticate facebook network */ private void authenticateFacebook() { // TODO: move this away from this activty class into some kind of // helper/wrapper class Log.d(TAG, "Clicked on the facebook"); Facebook facebook = new Facebook(OAUTH_KEY_FACEBOOK_API); facebook.authorize(this, new AuthorizeListener()); } class AuthorizeListener implements DialogListener{ @Override public void onComplete(Bundle values) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Log.d(TAG, "finished authorizing facebook user"); } @Override public void onFacebookError(FacebookError e) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onError(DialogError e) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onCancel() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } And a simple example of how to use it: http://developers.facebook.com/docs/guides/mobile/ My code is more or less identical to the above example. edit: i did not catch what logcat was inputing in my first attempted at my code above but their was no exceptions or warnings thrown at the time. just a blank page. i then tried it again and diddnt touch my code and what happens now is that a loading dialogue view pops up and stays their for a few minutes until the facebook windows disapears and the logcat outputs the error below: 11-18 17:26:19.913: DEBUG/Facebook-WebView(783): Webview loading URL: https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?type=user_agent&redirect_uri=fbconnect%3A%2F%2Fsuccess&display=touch&client_id=e??????????????????? 11-18 17:27:01.756: DEBUG/Facebook-authorize(783): Login failed: com.kc.unity.agent.util.oauth.facebook.DialogError: The connection to the server was unsuccessful. 11-18 17:27:01.783: DEBUG/Facebook-WebView(783): Webview loading URL: https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?type=user_agent&redirect_uri=fbconnect%3A%2F%2Fsuccess&display=touch&client_id=??????????????? please note that the client id i have amended for obvious reasons but the rest of the logcat is untouched

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  • Landscape orientation for UITabBarController?

    - by gingersnap
    The UITabBarController does not allow landscape orientation. So I used a subclass of UITabBarContoller (called RotatingTabBarController). Its sole purpose it to allow rotation by returning YES to shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation call. The problem is that when you rotate the iPhone in simulator it gives the following malloc error. malloc: *** error for object 0x3888000: pointer being freed was not allocated *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug I am using 3.0 SDK with Xcode 3.2 on Snow Leopard. I set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break but I can not trace it back to my code. Is there something I can do to make this error go away? Here is the RotatingTabBarController class: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface RotatingTabBarController : UITabBarController { } @end @implementation RotatingTabBarController -(BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } @end Update: I tried the same with a category. But it gives the same malloc error. // UITabBarController+Rotation.h @interface UITabBarController (rotation) - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation; @end // UITabBarController+Rotation.m #import "UITabBarController+Rotation.h" @implementation UITabBarController (rotation) - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } @end Backtrace [Session started at 2009-09-05 12:13:19 -0400.] Untitled(992,0xa06d9500) malloc: *** error for object 0x2024000: pointer being freed was not allocated *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Untitled(992,0xa06d9500) malloc: *** error for object 0x2014000: pointer being freed was not allocated *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug [Session started at 2009-09-05 12:13:27 -0400.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1344) (Fri Jul 3 01:19:56 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-apple-darwin".Attaching to process 992. sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all (gdb) bt #0 0x951908fa in mach_msg_trap () #1 0x95191067 in mach_msg () #2 0x30244d62 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific () #3 0x30244628 in CFRunLoopRunInMode () #4 0x32044c31 in GSEventRunModal () #5 0x32044cf6 in GSEventRun () #6 0x309021ee in UIApplicationMain () #7 0x00002608 in main (argc=1, argv=0xbfffef94) at /Users/vishwas/Desktop/Untitled/main.m:13 (gdb)

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  • How to debug nondeterministic access violation crash?

    - by Special Touch
    Our C#/COM/C++ application is crashing and I need help debugging it. Running with gflags enabled and WinDbg attached, we determined the crashes are caused by an access violation, but we haven't been able to narrow it down any more than that. We are not seeing the issue on all machines; there are a couple of machines that seem to reproduce the issue frequently but not deterministically. We have observed the application crash from simply switching away from the application (say, Alt-Tab) and then back. Output from WinDbg is below. We have been trying to systematically comment out areas of code that could be causing the problem, but we haven't had much success yet. Any suggestions on what debugging steps or tools we should try? !analyze -v EXCEPTION_RECORD: ffffffff -- (.exr 0xffffffffffffffff) ExceptionAddress: 1a584ff2 (+0x1a584ff1) ExceptionCode: c0000005 (Access violation) ExceptionFlags: 00000000 NumberParameters: 2 Parameter[0]: 00000000 Parameter[1]: 1a584ff2 Attempt to read from address 1a584ff2 PROCESS_NAME: ProcessFiles.exe ERROR_CODE: (NTSTATUS) 0xc0000005 - The instruction at 0x%08lx referenced memory at 0x%08lx. The memory could not be %s. EXCEPTION_CODE: (NTSTATUS) 0xc0000005 - The instruction at 0x%08lx referenced memory at 0x%08lx. The memory could not be %s. EXCEPTION_PARAMETER1: 00000000 EXCEPTION_PARAMETER2: 1a584ff2 READ_ADDRESS: 1a584ff2 FOLLOWUP_IP: Ed20+1a584ff1 1a584ff2 ?? ??? NTGLOBALFLAG: 2000000 APPLICATION_VERIFIER_FLAGS: 0 IP_MODULE_UNLOADED: Ed20+1a584ff1 1a584ff2 ?? ??? MANAGED_STACK: (TransitionMU) 0EC6F6F4 7B1D8CCE System_Windows_Forms_ni!System.Windows.Forms.Application+ComponentManager.System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop(Int32, Int32, Int32)+0x24e 0EC6F790 7B1D8937 System_Windows_Forms_ni!System.Windows.Forms.Application+ThreadContext.RunMessageLoopInner(Int32, System.Windows.Forms.ApplicationContext)+0x177 0EC6F7E4 7B1D8781 System_Windows_Forms_ni!System.Windows.Forms.Application+ThreadContext.RunMessageLoop(Int32, System.Windows.Forms.ApplicationContext)+0x61 0EC6F814 7B195911 System_Windows_Forms_ni!System.Windows.Forms.Application.Run(System.Windows.Forms.Form)+0x31 0EC6F828 0969D97A Extract_Utilities_Forms!Extract.Utilities.Forms.VerificationForm`1[[System.__Canon, mscorlib]].A(System.Object)+0x23a 0EC6F8C0 79A00EEE mscorlib_ni!System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(System.Object)+0x72a25e 0EC6F8CC 792E019F mscorlib_ni!System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(System.Threading.ExecutionContext, System.Threading.ContextCallback, System.Object)+0x6f 0EC6F8E4 797DB48A mscorlib_ni!System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart(System.Object)+0x4a (TransitionUM) LAST_CONTROL_TRANSFER: from 7e418734 to 1a584ff2 FAULTING_THREAD: ffffffff ADDITIONAL_DEBUG_TEXT: Followup set based on attribute [ip_not_executable] from Frame:[0] on thread:[e30] BUGCHECK_STR: APPLICATION_FAULT_BAD_INSTRUCTION_PTR_INVALID_POINTER_READ_WRONG_SYMBOLS_WINDOW_HOOK PRIMARY_PROBLEM_CLASS: BAD_INSTRUCTION_PTR DEFAULT_BUCKET_ID: BAD_INSTRUCTION_PTR STACK_TEXT: 7b1d8cce System_Windows_Forms_ni!System.Windows.Forms.Application+ComponentManager.System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop+0xc 7b1d8937 System_Windows_Forms_ni!System.Windows.Forms.Application+ThreadContext.RunMessageLoopInner+0x0 7b1d8781 System_Windows_Forms_ni!System.Windows.Forms.Application+ThreadContext.RunMessageLoop+0x0 7b195911 System_Windows_Forms_ni!System.Windows.Forms.Application.Run+0x31 0969d97a Extract_Utilities_Forms!Extract.Utilities.Forms.VerificationForm`1[[System.__Canon, mscorlib]].A+0x23a 79a00eee mscorlib_ni!System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context+0x72a25e 792e019f mscorlib_ni!System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run+0x6f 797db48a mscorlib_ni!System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart+0x4a STACK_COMMAND: .ecxr ; ~~[e30] ; .frame 0 ; ** Pseudo Context ** ; kb FAILED_INSTRUCTION_ADDRESS: Ed20+1a584ff1 1a584ff2 ?? ??? SYMBOL_NAME: Ed20 FOLLOWUP_NAME: MachineOwner MODULE_NAME: Ed20 IMAGE_NAME: Ed20 DEBUG_FLR_IMAGE_TIMESTAMP: 0 FAILURE_BUCKET_ID: BAD_INSTRUCTION_PTR_c0000005_Ed20!Unloaded BUCKET_ID: APPLICATION_FAULT_BAD_INSTRUCTION_PTR_INVALID_POINTER_READ_WRONG_SYMBOLS_WINDOW_HOOK_BAD_IP_Ed20 Followup: MachineOwner

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  • Issue with dynamic array Queue data structure with void pointer

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, Maybe there's no way to solve this the way I'd like it but I don't know everything so I better ask... I've implemented a simple Queue with a dynamic array so the user can initialize with whatever number of items it wants. I'm also trying to use a void pointer as to allow any data type, but that's the problem. Here's my code: typedef void * QueueValue; typedef struct sQueueItem { QueueValue value; } QueueItem; typedef struct sQueue { QueueItem *items; int first; int last; int size; int count; } Queue; void queueInitialize(Queue **queue, size_t size) { *queue = xmalloc(sizeof(Queue)); QueueItem *items = xmalloc(sizeof(QueueItem) * size); (*queue)->items = items; (*queue)->first = 0; (*queue)->last = 0; (*queue)->size = size; (*queue)->count = 0; } Bool queuePush(Queue * const queue, QueueValue value, size_t val_sz) { if(isNull(queue) || isFull(queue)) return FALSE; queue->items[queue->last].value = xmalloc(val_sz); memcpy(queue->items[queue->last].value, value, val_sz); queue->last = (queue->last+1) % queue->size; queue->count += 1; return TRUE; } Bool queuePop(Queue * const queue, QueueValue *value) { if(isEmpty(queue)) return FALSE; *value = queue->items[queue->first].value; free(queue->items[queue->first].value); queue->first = (queue->first+1) % queue->size; queue->count -= 1; return TRUE; } The problem lies on the queuePop function. When I call it, I lose the value because I free it right away. I can't seem to solve this dilemma. I want my library to be generic and modular. The user should not care about allocating and freeing memory, that's the library's job. How can the user still get the value from queuePop and let the library handle all memory allocs/frees?

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  • General advice and guidelines on how to properly override object.GetHashCode()

    - by Svish
    According to MSDN, a hash function must have the following properties: If two objects compare as equal, the GetHashCode method for each object must return the same value. However, if two objects do not compare as equal, the GetHashCode methods for the two object do not have to return different values. The GetHashCode method for an object must consistently return the same hash code as long as there is no modification to the object state that determines the return value of the object's Equals method. Note that this is true only for the current execution of an application, and that a different hash code can be returned if the application is run again. For the best performance, a hash function must generate a random distribution for all input. I keep finding myself in the following scenario: I have created a class, implemented IEquatable<T> and overridden object.Equals(object). MSDN states that: Types that override Equals must also override GetHashCode ; otherwise, Hashtable might not work correctly. And then it usually stops up a bit for me. Because, how do you properly override object.GetHashCode()? Never really know where to start, and it seems to be a lot of pitfalls. Here at StackOverflow, there are quite a few questions related to GetHashCode overriding, but most of them seems to be on quite particular cases and specific issues. So, therefore I would like to get a good compilation here. An overview with general advice and guidelines. What to do, what not to do, common pitfalls, where to start, etc. I would like it to be especially directed at C#, but I would think it will work kind of the same way for other .NET languages as well(?). I think maybe the best way is to create one answer per topic with a quick and short answer first (close to one-liner if at all possible), then maybe some more information and end with related questions, discussions, blog posts, etc., if there are any. I can then create one post as the accepted answer (to get it on top) with just a "table of contents". Try to keep it short and concise. And don't just link to other questions and blog posts. Try to take the essence of them and then rather link to source (especially since the source could disappear. Also, please try to edit and improve answers instead of created lots of very similar ones. I am not a very good technical writer, but I will at least try to format answers so they look alike, create the table of contents, etc. I will also try to search up some of the related questions here at SO that answers parts of these and maybe pull out the essence of the ones I can manage. But since I am not very stable on this topic, I will try to stay away for the most part :p

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  • Which functions in the C standard library commonly encourage bad practice?

    - by Ninefingers
    Hello all, This is inspired by this question and the comments on one particular answer in that I learnt that strncpy is not a very safe string handling function in C and that it pads zeros, until it reaches n, something I was unaware of. Specifically, to quote R.. strncpy does not null-terminate, and does null-pad the whole remainder of the destination buffer, which is a huge waste of time. You can work around the former by adding your own null padding, but not the latter. It was never intended for use as a "safe string handling" function, but for working with fixed-size fields in Unix directory tables and database files. snprintf(dest, n, "%s", src) is the only correct "safe strcpy" in standard C, but it's likely to be a lot slower. By the way, truncation in itself can be a major bug and in some cases might lead to privilege elevation or DoS, so throwing "safe" string functions that truncate their output at a problem is not a way to make it "safe" or "secure". Instead, you should ensure that the destination buffer is the right size and simply use strcpy (or better yet, memcpy if you already know the source string length). And from Jonathan Leffler Note that strncat() is even more confusing in its interface than strncpy() - what exactly is that length argument, again? It isn't what you'd expect based on what you supply strncpy() etc - so it is more error prone even than strncpy(). For copying strings around, I'm increasingly of the opinion that there is a strong argument that you only need memmove() because you always know all the sizes ahead of time and make sure there's enough space ahead of time. Use memmove() in preference to any of strcpy(), strcat(), strncpy(), strncat(), memcpy(). So, I'm clearly a little rusty on the C standard library. Therefore, I'd like to pose the question: What C standard library functions are used inappropriately/in ways that may cause/lead to security problems/code defects/inefficiencies? In the interests of objectivity, I have a number of criteria for an answer: Please, if you can, cite design reasons behind the function in question i.e. its intended purpose. Please highlight the misuse to which the code is currently put. Please state why that misuse may lead towards a problem. I know that should be obvious but it prevents soft answers. Please avoid: Debates over naming conventions of functions (except where this unequivocably causes confusion). "I prefer x over y" - preference is ok, we all have them but I'm interested in actual unexpected side effects and how to guard against them. As this is likely to be considered subjective and has no definite answer I'm flagging for community wiki straight away. I am also working as per C99.

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  • T-SQL selecting values that match ISNUMERIC and also are within a specified range. (plus Linq-to-sql

    - by Toby
    I am trying to select rows from a table where one of the (NVARCHAR) columns is within a numeric range. SELECT ID, Value FROM Data WHERE ISNUMERIC(Value) = 1 AND CONVERT(FLOAT, Value) < 66.6 Unfortunately as part of the SQL spec the AND clauses don't have to short circuit (and don't on MSSQL Server EE 2008). More info: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/789231/is-the-sql-where-clause-short-circuit-evaluated My next attempt was to try this to see if I could achieve delayed evaluation of the CONVERT SELECT ID, Value FROM Data WHERE (CASE WHEN ISNUMERIC(Value) = 1 THEN CONVERT(FLOAT, Value) < 66.6 ELSE 0 END) but I cannot seem to use a < (or any comparison) with the result of a CONVERT. It fails with the error Incorrect syntax near '<'. I can get away with SELECT ID, CONVERT(FLOAT, Value) AS Value FROM Data WHERE ISNUMERIC(Value) = 1 So the obvious solution is to wrap the whole select statement in another SELECT and WHERE and return the converted values from the inner select and filter in there where of the outer select. Unfortunately this is where my Linq-to-sql problem comes in. I am filtering not only by one range but potentialy by many, or just by the existance of the record (there are some date range selects and comparisons I've left out.) Essentially I would like to be able to generate something like this: SELECT ID, TypeID, Value FROM Data WHERE (TypeID = 4 AND ISNUMERIC(Value) AND CONVERT(Float, Value) < 66.6) OR (TypeID = 8 AND ISNUMERIC(Value) AND CONVERT(Float, Value) > 99) OR (TypeID = 9) (With some other clauses in each of those where options.) This clearly doesn't work if I filter out the non-ISNUMERIC values in an inner select. As I mentioned I am using Linq-to-sql (and PredicateBulider) to build up these queries but unfortunately Datas.Where(x => ISNUMERIC(x.Value) ? Convert.ToDouble(x.Value) < 66.6 : false) Gets converted to this which fails the initial problem. WHERE (ISNUMERIC([t0].[Value]) = 1) AND ((CONVERT(Float,[t0].[Value])) < @p0) My last resort will have to be to outer join against a double select on the same table for each of the comparisons but this isn't really an idea solution. I was wondering if anyone has run into similar issues before?

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  • Entity Attribute Value Database vs. strict Relational Model Ecommerce question

    - by Dr. Zim
    It is safe to say that the EAV/CR database model is bad. That said, Question: What database model, technique, or pattern should be used to deal with "classes" of attributes describing e-commerce products which can be changed at run time? In a good E-commerce database, you will store classes of options (like TV resolution then have a resolution for each TV, but the next product may not be a TV and not have "TV resolution"). How do you store them, search efficiently, and allow your users to setup product types with variable fields describing their products? If the search engine finds that customers typically search for TVs based on console depth, you could add console depth to your fields, then add a single depth for each tv product type at run time. There is a nice common feature among good e-commerce apps where they show a set of products, then have "drill down" side menus where you can see "TV Resolution" as a header, and the top five most common TV Resolutions for the found set. You click one and it only shows TVs of that resolution, allowing you to further drill down by selecting other categories on the side menu. These options would be the dynamic product attributes added at run time. Further discussion: So long story short, are there any links out on the Internet or model descriptions that could "academically" fix the following setup? I thank Noel Kennedy for suggesting a category table, but the need may be greater than that. I describe it a different way below, trying to highlight the significance. I may need a viewpoint correction to solve the problem, or I may need to go deeper in to the EAV/CR. Love the positive response to the EAV/CR model. My fellow developers all say what Jeffrey Kemp touched on below: "new entities must be modeled and designed by a professional" (taken out of context, read his response below). The problem is: entities add and remove attributes weekly (search keywords dictate future attributes) new entities arrive weekly (products are assembled from parts) old entities go away weekly (archived, less popular, seasonal) The customer wants to add attributes to the products for two reasons: department / keyword search / comparison chart between like products consumer product configuration before checkout The attributes must have significance, not just a keyword search. If they want to compare all cakes that have a "whipped cream frosting", they can click cakes, click birthday theme, click whipped cream frosting, then check all cakes that are interesting knowing they all have whipped cream frosting. This is not specific to cakes, just an example.

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  • WCF Duplex net.tcp issues on win7

    - by Tom
    We have a WCF service with multiple clients to schedule operations amongst clients. It worked great on XP. Moving to win7, I can only connect a client to the server on the same machine. At this point, I'm thinking it's something to do with IPv6, but I'm stumped as to how to proceed. Client trying to connect to a remote server gives the following exception: System.ServiceModel.EndpointNotFoundException: Could not connect to net.tcp://10.7.11.14:18297/zetec/Service/SchedulerService/Scheduler. The connection attempt lasted for a time span of 00:00:21.0042014. TCP error code 10060: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond 10.7.11.14:18297. --- System.Net.Sockets.SocketException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond 10.7.11.14:18297 The service is configured like so: <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="SchedulerService" behaviorConfiguration="SchedulerServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/zetec/Service/SchedulerService"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:18297/zetec/Service/SchedulerService/Scheduler" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration = "ConfigBindingNetTcp" contract="IScheduler" /> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:18297/zetec/Service/SchedulerService/Scheduler" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration = "ConfigBindingNetTcp" contract="IProcessingNodeControl" /> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name = "ConfigBindingNetTcp" portSharingEnabled="True"> <security mode="None"/> </binding> </netTcpBinding > </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="SchedulerServiceBehavior"> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentSessions="100"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> I've checked my firewall about a dozen times, but I guess there could be something I'm missing. Tried disabling windows firewall. I tried changing localhost to my ipv4 address to try to keep away from ipv6, I've tried removing any anti-ipv6 code.

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  • firefox, jQuery ajax calls firing twice and never triggering success or error functions

    - by Adrian Adkison
    Hi, I am developing with the .NET framework, using jQuery 1.4.2 client side. When developing in Firefox version 3.6, every so often an one of the many ajax calls I make on the page will fire twice, the second will return successfully but will not trigger the success handler of the ajax call and the first never returns anything. So basically the data is all sent to the server and response is sent down but nothing happens with the response. Here is an example of the call I am making. It happens to any of the ajax calls, so there is not one particular that is causing the problem: $.ajax({ type:"POST", contentType : "application/json; charset=utf-8", data:"{}", dataType:"json", success:function(){ alert('success'); }, error:function(){ alert('error'); }, url:'/services.aspx/somemethod' }); }) From firebug, here are the headers of the first call which in firebug shows as never completely responding, meaning i see no response code and the loader gif in the firebug never goes away. Note:In firebug it usually says Response Header but for the first call this space is blank Server ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 X-AspNet-Version 2.0.50727 Content-Type application/json; charset=utf-8 Connection Close Request Headers Host mydomain.com User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401Firefox/3.6.3 ( .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Content-Type application/json; charset=utf-8 X-Requested-With XMLHttpRequest Referer http://mydomain.com/mypage.aspx Here is the header from the second request which just appear to complete in firebug (i.e response is 200): Response Header Server ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 X-AspNet-Version 2.0.50727 Content-Type application/json; charset=utf-8 Connection Close Request Headers Host mydomain.com User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 ( .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Content-Type application/json; charset=utf-8 Referer http://mydomain.com/mypage.aspx To summarize my question, why are two requests being made and why are neither of them triggering a success or error handler in the ajax call. I have seen this article about firefox 3.5+ and preflighted requests https://developer.mozilla.org/En/HTTP_access_control#Preflighted_requests In the article is says if a "POST" is made with any other content type than "application/x-www-form-urlencoded, multipart/form-data, or text/plain" than the request is pre-flighted. If this is the case, this should happen to all of my calls. Thanks

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