Search Results

Search found 6395 results on 256 pages for 'weird behaviour'.

Page 210/256 | < Previous Page | 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217  | Next Page >

• Programmatically controlled virtual drive

  - by Robert Lin

  How would I go about creating a virtual drive with which I can programmatically and dynamically change the contents? For instance, program A starts running and creates a virtual drive. When program B looks in the drive, it sees an error log and starts reading/processing it. In the middle of all this program A gets a signal from somewhere and decides to add to the log. I want program B to be unaware of the change and just keep on going. Program B should continue reading as if nothing happened. Program A would just report a rediculously large file size for the log and then fill it in as appropriate. Program A would fill the log with tags if program B tries to read past the last entry. I know this is a weird request but there's really no other way to do this... I basically can't rewrite program B so I need to fool it. How do I do this in windows? How about OSX?

  Read the article

• [php] Cookies only changing value every two page refreshes?

  - by Gazillion

  Hello, I'm trying to implement some pixel tracking where I will save certain values in a cookie to then forward users to another page. If users purchase a product after being forwarded to the online store by us the store adds an image tag in the page with our php script included. With the values set in the cookie we would like to track conversions. I understand this tracking technique has some limitations (like if a user has cookies turned off or if they do not load images but that's the direction my client wanted to go in). The problem I'm having is that the cookie's behaviour is extremely... random. I've been trying to track their values (with a var_dump so I don't have to wait for a page reload to view the cookie's value) but it seems the value for one field only gets refreshed every two page reloads. setcookie("tracking[cn]", $cn, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[t]", $t, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[kid]", $kid, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); redirectTo($redirect_url); the values of cn, t are fine but for some reason kid is always wrong (having taken the value of the previous kid) Any help would be extremely appreciated I've been at this all evening! :)

  Read the article

• TextArea being used as an itemEditor misbehaves when the enter key is pressed

  - by ChrisInCambo

  Hi, I have a TextArea inside an itemEditor component, the problem is that when typing in the TextArea if the enter key is pressed the itemEditor resets itself rather moving the caret to the next line as expected: <mx:List width="100%" editable="true" > <mx:dataProvider> <mx:ArrayCollection> <mx:Array> <mx:Object title="Stairway to Heaven" /> </mx:Array> </mx:ArrayCollection> </mx:dataProvider> <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:Text height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> <mx:itemEditor> <mx:Component> <mx:TextArea height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemEditor> </mx:List> </mx:Application> Could anyone advise how I can get around this strange behaviour and make the enter key behave as expected? Thanks, Chris

  Read the article

• [MFC] Creating multiple dialogs in an MFC app with no main Window, they become children of each othe

  - by John

  (title updated) Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000) Running in the debugger, if I manually change pParentWnd back to 0 in CDialog::CreateIndirect, everything works fine... but how do I stop it happening in the first place?

  Read the article

• Interrupting Prototype handler, alert() vs event.stop()

  - by lxs

  Here's the test page I'm using. This version works fine, forwarding to #success: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html><head> <script type="text/javascript" src="prototype.js"></script> </head><body> <form id='form' method='POST' action='#fail'> <button id='button'>Oh my giddy aunt!</button> <script type="text/javascript"> var fn = function() { $('form').action = "#success"; $('form').submit(); } $('button').observe('mousedown', fn); </script> </form> </body></html> If I empty the handler: var fn = function() { } The form is submitted, but of course we are sent to #fail this time. With an alert in the handler: var fn = function() { alert("omg!"); } The form is not submitted. This is awfully curious. With event.stop(), which is supposed to prevent the browser taking the default action: var fn = function(event) { event.stop(); } We are sent to #fail. So alert() is more effective at preventing a submission than event.stop(). What gives? I'm using Firefox 3.6.3 and Prototype 1.6.0.3. This behaviour also appears in Prototype 1.6.1.

  Read the article

• c multithreading

  - by coubeatczech

  hi, there's a weird behaviour in my threads: void * foo(void * nic){ printf("foo"); } void * threadF(void * ukazatel){ printf("1\n"); pthread_t threadT; pthread_attr_t attr; pthread_attr_init (&attr); pthread_attr_setdetachstate(&attr, PTHREAD_CREATE_JOINABLE); pthread_create(&threadT,NULL,&foo,(void*)NULL); printf("2\n"); while (!feof(stdin)){ int id, in, out; fscanf(stdin,"%d:%d:%d",&id,&in,&out); } } int main(){ pthread_attr_t attr; pthread_attr_init (&attr); pthread_attr_setdetachstate(&attr, PTHREAD_CREATE_JOINABLE); pthread_t threadT; pthread_create(&vlaknoVstupu,&attr,&threadF,(void*)&data); pthread_join(threadT,NULL); pthread_attr_destroy (&attr); } // I skipped irelevant parts of code... the thing is, that sometimes, the output is 12foo, but usually just 12. Then the function waits for input. I would expect it to be always 12foo. Do anybody know why are my expectations wrong?

  Read the article

• Several Objective-C objects become Invalid for no reason, sometimes.

  - by farnsworth

  - (void)loadLocations { NSString *url = @"<URL to a text file>"; NSStringEncoding enc = NSUTF8StringEncoding; NSString *locationString = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:url] usedEncoding:&enc error:nil]; NSArray *lines = [locationString componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]; for (int i=0; i<[lines count]; i++) { NSString *line = [lines objectAtIndex:i]; NSArray *components = [line componentsSeparatedByString:@", "]; Restaurant *res = [byID objectForKey:[components objectAtIndex:0]]; if (res) { NSString *resAddress = [components objectAtIndex:3]; NSArray *loc = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:[components objectAtIndex:1], [components objectAtIndex:2]]; [res.locationCoords setObject:loc forKey:resAddress]; } else { NSLog([[components objectAtIndex:0] stringByAppendingString:@" res id not found."]); } } } There are a few weird things happening here. First, at the two lines where the NSArray lines is used, this message is printed to the console- *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSCFDictionary count]: method sent to an uninitialized mutable dictionary object' which is strange since lines is definitely not an NSMutableDictionary, definitely is initialized, and because the app doesn't crash. Also, at random points in the loop, all of the variables that the debugger can see will become Invalid. Local variables, property variables, everything. Then after a couple lines they will go back to their original values. setObject:forKey never has an effect on res.locationCoords, which is an NSMutableDictionary. I'm sure that res, res.locationCoords, and byId are initialized. I also tried adding a retain or copy to lines, same thing. I'm sure there's a basic memory management principle I'm missing here but I'm at a loss.

  Read the article

• What can I do about ambigous wildcard patterns in Struts?

  - by Hanno Fietz

  I have a problem finding the right wildcard pattern to extract parts of my URL into action parameters in Struts. This is how I set up the action. The intent of the pattern is to capture the last two path elements and then everything that might precede them. <action name="**/*/*" class="com.example.ObjectAction"> <param name="filter">{1}</param> <param name="type">{2}</param> <param name="id">{3}</param> </action> Calling it with the URL channels/123/transmissions/456 I get the following result (the action just sets the input parameters on a POJO and returns that as XML): <result> <filter>channels/123/transmissions</filter> <id/> <type>456</type> </result> It should be: <result> <filter>channels/123</filter> <id>456</id> <type>transmissions</type> </result> Now, because ** matches all characters including the slash, I guess my pattern allows more than one way to match the URL, and Struts happens to pick one that leaves the id empty. Is the behaviour for multiple possible matches defined somewhere? Can I make the pattern less ambigous? Are there alternative ways of doing this? I'm running Struts 2.0.8. Upgrading to 2.1.9 would give me regex matching, but I got into trouble with Struts' dependencies and my OSGi environment when I went past 2.0.8, so I'd like to stick to that version for now.

  Read the article

• How do I ensure only the headers are shown for the first item in an ItemsControl in WPF?

  - by Dan Ryan

  I am using MVVM binding an ObservableCollection of children to an ItemsControl. The ItemsControl contains a UserControl used to style the UI for the children. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Documents}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <View:DocumentView Margin="0, 10, 0, 0" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I want to show a header row for the contents of the ItemsControl but only want to show this once at the top (not for every child). How can I implement this behaviour in the DocumentView user control? Fyi I am using a Grid layout to style the child rows: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="34"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="100"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="60" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="0" Text="Should only show this at the top"></TextBlock> <Image Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Height="24" Width="24" Source="/Beazley.Documents.Presentation;component/Icons/error.png"></Image> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="ContentTypes" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.ContentTypes}" SelectedValue="{Binding ContentType}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Path=FileName}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="1" Command="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.RemoveFile}" CommandParameter="{Binding}">Remove</Button> </Grid>

  Read the article

• Awkward looking uses of Contract.ValueAtReturn()

  - by devoured elysium

  I am designing a method that will add an element to an internal list. The structure of the class is something along the lines of: class MyCustomerDatabase { private IList<Customer> _customers = new List<Customer>(); public int NumberOfCustomers { get { return _customers; } } public void AddCustomer(Customer customer) { _customers.Add(customer); } } Now, I was thinking of adding a Contract.Ensures() about the size of the _customers growing by 1 with this call. The problem is that I end up with some weird looking code: public void AddCustomer(Customer customer) { int numberOfCustomersAtReturn; Contract.Ensures(Contract.ValueAtReturn<int>(out numberOfCustomersAtReturn) == Contract.OldValue<int>(NumberOfCustomers) + 1); _customers.Add(customer); numberOfCustomersAtReturn = NumberOfCustomers; } The main problem is that properties are in fact methods, so you can't just reference them direcly when using Contract.ValueAtReturn() as its only parameter accepts variables as out. The situation gets even odder if I want to achieve the same but this time with a method that should return a value: public int MyReturningMethod() { ... return abc(); //abc will add by one the number of customers in list } //gets converted to public int MyReturningMethod() { int numberOfCustomersAtReturn; Contract.Ensures(Contract.ValueAtReturn<int>(out numberOfCustomersAtReturn) == Contract.OldValue<int>(NumberOfCustomers) + 1); int returnValue = abc(); numberOfCustomersAtReturn = NumberOfCustomers; return returnValue; } This seems pretty clumsy :( Code Contracts should aim to get things clearer and this seems right the opposite. Am I doing something wrong? Thanks

  Read the article

• Problem with Mergesort in C++

  - by cambr

  vector<int>& mergesort(vector<int> &a) { if (a.size() == 1) return a; int middle = a.size() / 2; vector<int>::const_iterator first = a.begin(); vector<int>::const_iterator mid = a.begin() + (middle - 1); vector<int>::const_iterator last = a.end(); vector<int> ll(first, mid); vector<int> rr(mid, last); vector<int> l = mergesort(ll); vector<int> r = mergesort(rr); vector<int> result; result.reserve(a.size()); int dp = 0, lp = 0, rp = 0; while (dp < a.size()) { if (lp == l.size()) { result[dp] = (r[rp]); rp++; } else if (rp == r.size()) { result[dp] = (l[lp]); lp++; } else if (l[lp] < r[rp]) { result[dp] = (l[lp]); lp++; } else { result[dp] = (r[rp]); rp++; } dp++; } a = result; return a; } It compiles correctly but while execution, I am getting: This application has requested the runtime to end it in an unusual way. This is a weird error. Is there something that is fundamentally wrong with the code?

  Read the article

• Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

  - by d4nt

  Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

  Read the article

• Giving another object a NSManagedObject

  - by Wayfarer

  Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

  Read the article

• Having an issue with Nullable MySQL columns in SubSonic 3.0 templates

  - by omegawkd

  Looking at this line in the Settings.ttinclude string CheckNullable(Column col){ string result=""; if(col.IsNullable && col.SysType !="byte[]" && col.SysType !="string") result="?"; return result; } It describes how it determines if the column is nullable based on requirements and returns either "" or "?" to the generated code. Now I'm not too familiar with the ? nullable type operator but from what I can see a cast is required. For instance, if I have a nullable integer MySQL column and I generate the code using the default template files it returns a line similar to this: int? _User_ID; When trying to compile the project I get the error: Cannot implicitly convert type 'int?' to 'int'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) I checked teh Settings files for the other database types and they all seems to have the same routine. So my question is, is this behaviour expected or is this a bug? I need to solve it one way or the other before I can procede. Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• ExternalInterface issue on loadup with FireFox

  - by Rudy

  Hello, I have an issue with my ExternalInterface. The way it is currently set up is, on the page load up, a boolean is set to true in JavaScript and then checked by ActionScript constructors (using a timer) until it is true. This marks that JavaScript is ready to get calls from AS3. At this point, AS3 will add the callback and do some internal stuff, and at the end of the constructor I call JavaScript. So far so good. JavaScript will at this point call a function in AS3 (that was defined in the callback described above), and this is where it all messes up. On IE this works perfectly fine. On FireFox though, it does not. When I debug it, I see that the javascript function is called but when it tries to call AS3, nothing happens. I also tried to add a timer, but for some reason the function STILL executes straight away (in IE). What is very weird is that a second or two later, that function will work, so it seems that the Flash is not completely loaded in FireFox? But it runs to the last line of my constructor, so I would believe it's loaded. Any idea please, I am really stuck. Thanks a lot, Rudy

  Read the article

• NOT A DUPLICATE! VS2010 - How to automatically stop compile on first compile error

  - by Ben Robbins

  {rant}First I'd like to say that this IS NOT A DUPLICATE. I've asked this question previously but it got closed as a duplicate when it isn't. This question is SPECIFIC to VS 2010 and the answers to the so-called duplicate work in VS 2008 but not in VS 2010 (at least not for me or anyone I know). So before you go closing something as a duplicate how about you read the question carefully and try the answer for yourself and see if it actually works. Apologies for the rant but there is no obvious way to contact the SO police that closed the issue or get it reopened. {/rant} At work we have a C# solution with over 80 projects. In VS 2008 we use a macro to stop the compile as soon as a project in the solution fails to build (see this question for several options for VS 2005 & VS 2008: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134796/how-to-automatically-stop-visual-c-build-at-first-compile-error). Is it possible to do the same in VS 2010? What we have found is that in VS 2010 the macros don't work (at least I couldn't get them to work) as it appears that the environment events don't fire in VS 2010. The default behaviour is to continue as far as possible and display a list of errors in the error window. I'm happy for it to stop either as soon as an error is encountered (file-level) or as soon as a project fails to build (project-level). Answers for VS 2010 only please. If the macros do work then a detailed explanation of how to configure them for VS 2010 would be appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• CSS Background image in Redmine template arbitrarily not loading

  - by Pekka

  I`m in the process of building a template for Redmine (a project management system based on Ruby on Rails.) Ruby is running on a virtual server from a Bitnami.org installation package. The OS is Windows. The template essentially consists of a styles.css file. In that file, I have the following line: #header { padding: 0px; padding-top: 48px; background-color: #62DFFF; background-image: url(../images/bkg.jpg) background-position: center bottom; background-repeat: repeat-x; height:150px; } It's a header element with a background image. The problem: This background image arbitrarily appears and disappears when reloading. Say you reload ten times in twenty seconds; the image will appear in two instances, and be missing in the 18 others. I would have put this down to server problems, but the weird thing is that when it's missing, the request for the image doesn't appear in Firebug's net tab at all. Even if it were cached, the request should be there. Raw screenshots of the identical page on two reloads: I am 100% sure the CSS file does not change in between. I have examined both instances with Firebug and the CSS is identical. It happens in both Firefox and Chrome so it must be something basic I'm overlooking. What could be causing a browser not to load a resource at all? I have zero idea about Ruby nor Rails - getting Redmine running and customized is all I have ever had to do with this platform - so I don't really know where to look. Apache's, Mongrel's and Redmine's error logs look fine, though.

  Read the article

• Null reference exceptions in .net

  - by Carlo

  Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Rails with passenger only runs in development

  - by Ignace

  Hey, I have a problem on one of our webservers. I'll try to explain it as clear as possible, but I'm not 100% aware of all the configuration of the server. There are 2 sites running next to eachother (blcc_preprod and blcc_prod), so in the 'sites-enabled' of apache this i have a file 'blcc' like this: <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /opt/dn/blcc/www RailsBaseURI /blcc_preprod RailsBaseURI /blcc_prod RailsEnv production </VirtualHost> My config/environments/production.log (from both) looks like this(I removed all comments, because it messes with the layout) config.cache_classes = true config.action_controller.consider_all_requests_local = false config.action_controller.perform_caching = true config.action_view.cache_template_loading = true config.log_level = :debug The weird thing is, that my production log dates from months ago, so something is really wrong. Could someone help? If you need more info, just ask. Thanks! Edit: Error.log from apache show the normal output for a event to the server (the situation here is that the webserver plugs in to another business (java) server via a framework) Access.log is empty Content from other_vhosts_access.log after we surf to ip/blcc_preprod is the following blcc.localdomain:80 192.168.21.194 - - [25/May/2010:08:33:04 +0200] "GET/ blcc_preprod HTTP/1.1" 500 594 "-" "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727)"

  Read the article

• Windsor IHandlerSelector in RIA Services Visual Studio 2010 Beta2

  - by Savvas Sopiadis

  Hi everybody! I want to implement multi tenancy using Windsor and i don't know how to handle this situation: i succesfully used this technique in plain ASP.NET MVC projects and thought incorporating in a RIA Services project would be similar. So i used IHandlerSelector, registered some components and wrote an ASP.NET MVC view to verify it works in a plain ASP.NET MVC environment. And it did! Next step was to create a DomainService which got an IRepository injected in the constructor. This service is hosted in the ASP.NET MVC application. And it actually ... works:i can get data out of it to a Silverlight application. Sample snippet: public OrganizationDomainService(IRepository<Culture> cultureRepository) { this.cultureRepository = cultureRepository; } Last step is to see if it works multi-tenant-like: it does not! The weird thing is this: using some line of code and writing debug messages in a log file i verified that the correct handler is selected! BUT this handler seems not to be injected in the DomainService. I ALWAYS get the first handler (that's the logic in my SelectHandler) Can anybody verify this behavior? Is injection not working in RIA Services? Or am i missing something basic?? Development environment: Visual Studio 2010 Beta2 Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• SQL Server Database In Single User Mode after Failover

  - by jlichauc

  Here is a weird situation we experienced with a SQL Server 2008 Database Mirroring Failover. We have a pair of mirrored databases running in high-availability mode and both the principal and mirror showed as synchronized. As part of some maintenance I triggered a manual failover of the principal to the mirror. However after the failover the principal was now in single-user mode instead of the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state we usually get. The database had been in multi-user mode on the previous principal before this had happened. We ended up stopping all applications, restarting the SQL Server instances, and executing "ALTER DATABASE ... SET MULTI_USER" to bring the database back to the expected "Principal/Synchronized" state in a multi-user mode. Question. Does anyone know where SQL Server stores information about whether a database should be in single-user mode or not? I'm wondering if there is some system database or table that has this setting recorded somewhere. In particular we had an incident once with the database on the original principal (the one I was failing over to) where when trying to detach the database it was put into single-user mode. I'm wondering if that setting is cached somewhere and is the reason that SQL Server put it back into single-user mode after a failover.

  Read the article

• confusing fork system call

  - by benjamin button

  Hi, i was just checking the behaviour of fork system call and i found it very confusing. i saw in a website that Unix will make an exact copy of the parent's address space and give it to the child. Therefore, the parent and child processes have separate address spaces #include <stdio.h> #include <sys/types.h> int main(void) { pid_t pid; char y='Y'; char *ptr; ptr=&y; pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { y='Z'; printf(" *** Child process ***\n"); printf(" Address is %p\n",ptr); printf(" char value is %c\n",y); sleep(5); } else { sleep(5); printf("\n ***parent process ***\n",&y); printf(" Address is %p\n",ptr); printf(" char value is %c\n",y); } } the output of the above program is : *** Child process *** Address is 69002894 char value is Z ***parent process *** Address is 69002894 char value is Y so from the above mentioned statement it seems that child and parent have separet address spaces.this is the reason why char value is printed separately and why am i seeing the address of the variable as same in both child and parent processes.? Please help me understand this!

  Read the article

• HTML5 Shiv not parsing quick enough

  - by Mikey Hogarth

  One of our web designers is working on a site at the moment and is using HTML5 elements, which she styles up in older browsers using the well documented Html5Shiv; http://css-tricks.com/html5-innershiv/ She reported some pretty weird behavior today and it looks like this is the cause. Initially it was very confusing, and went something along the lines of; "The page looks fine, I refresh it looks fine, refresh several times and occasionally it will not apply my styles to the HTML5 elements" Current best theory is that the shiv is not kicking in quick enough, and the page loads before the new elements have been registered. I was wondering if anyone could suggest a surefire way of including the shiv and making sure it's loaded and been parsed BEFORE the rest of the elements, so they will definitely get styled. EDIT (more info) Shiv is being included in the head, directly below the title/meta tags; <!--[if IE]> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://html5shiv.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/html5.js"></script> <![endif]--> The bit that is being styled is in the footer and is cross-site. Many of the pages will change in size as they're being powered by a CMS that our marketing team will use so I am unable to give an exact page size. All I would say is that if page size is an issue and there is no workaround, can someone let me know as this will mean we basically can't use HTML5 on this project (or at the very least we'll need to add superflous markup such as divs to ensure that the layout doesn't go crazy) EDIT 2 There is no chance of me posting the code unfortunately - it's only re-creatable under really obscure circumstances and the project is marked "top secret" at the moment :( If nobody knows then I'm guessing it's either a case of "everyone knows it happens but kinda ignores it" or just that it's something else other than the shiv.

  Read the article

• UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

  - by prd

  Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

  Read the article

• operators computing direction

  - by amiad

  Hi all! I enqunterd something that I can't understand. I have this code: cout << "f1 * f1 + f2 * f1 - f1 / f2 is: "<< f1 * f1 + f2 * f1 - f1 / f2 << endl; All the "f"s are objects, and all the operators are overloaded. The weird this is that the first computarion is of the "/" operator, then the second "" and then the first "", after that - the operator "+" and at last - operator "-". So basicly - the "/" and "*" worked from right to left, and the "+" and "-" operators worked from left to right. I made another test... I checked this code: cout << "f1 * f1 / f2 is: " << f1 * f1 / f2 << endl; Now, the first operator was "*" and only then oerator "/". So now, it worked from left to right. Can someone help me underatand why is there diffrence in the directions? 10X!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217  | Next Page >