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  • Synth LaF JLabel DISABLED color

    - by mmoris
    Hi all, Using the Synth LaF, I am unable to set a JLabel's FOREGROUND color for the DISABLED state. has anybody succeeded in doing this? Here is my label's style definition in my LaF.xml file. <style id="whiteLabelStyle"> <opaque value="false"/> <font name="Bitstream Vera Sans" size="16" /> <state> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="WHITE"/> </state> <state value="DISABLED"> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="BLACK"/> </state> </style> <bind style="whiteLabelStyle" type="name" key="WhiteOrbitLabel"/> Please not that all the other styles defined in my LaF.xml file are rendered properly in my application including my label's WHITE normal state color (it just never goes to black when I do lbl.setEnabled(false) Also, going through the Synth code, I have found the following comment in SynthStyle.getColor if ((context.getComponentState() & SynthConstants.DISABLED) != 0) { //This component is disabled, so return the disabled color. //In some cases this means ignoring the color specified by the //developer on the component. In other cases it means using a //specified disabledTextColor, such as on JTextComponents. //For example, JLabel doesn't specify a disabled color that the //developer can set, yet it should have a disabled color to the //text when the label is disabled. This code allows for that. if (c instanceof JTextComponent) { JTextComponent txt = (JTextComponent)c; Color disabledColor = txt.getDisabledTextColor(); if (disabledColor == null || disabledColor instanceof UIResource) { return getColorForState(context, type); } } else if (c instanceof JLabel && (type == ColorType.FOREGROUND || type == ColorType.TEXT_FOREGROUND)){ return getColorForState(context, type); } But I could not figure out how to set a disabled color for a JLabel Thanks for your help!

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  • using a While loop to control the value of a keyframe in a timeline in Javafx

    - by dragoknight
    i want to create an animation where the ball will move in one of the 4 sectors of a circle randomly.this will happen 5 times.so,i create a while loop(i<5) and call the random function.i then create an if loop and attach some x and y values according to the random fn value.i then create an timeline object inside the while loop and in the key frame value,i use these x and y values.but when i run the program,what happens is that all the values are being created(x and y values seen through println) but only the last x and y value(for i=5)is being rendered in the screen.the animations for the previous values(1<=i<=4)are not being rendered.Please advise where have i gone wrong? public function run(args:String[]) { var i=0; while(i<5) { var z=gety(); println(z); // var relativeTime:Duration=0s; if(z==1) {xbind=120; ybind=80; } else if(z==2) {xbind=120; ybind=120; } else if(z==3) { xbind=80; ybind=120; } else if(z==4) { xbind=80; ybind=80; } var t:Timeline=Timeline{ //time: bind pos with inverse; repeatCount: Timeline.INDEFINITE autoReverse: true keyFrames: [ KeyFrame{ time: 0s values: [ x => 100.0,y => 100.0]}, KeyFrame{time: 2s values:[x => xbind tween Interpolator.LINEAR, y => ybind tween Interpolator.LINEAR,] }, ] }//end timeline i++; t.play(); Thread.sleep(2000); }//end while }

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  • How to display combo box as textbox in WPF via a style template trigger?

    - by Greg R
    I would like to display a combobox drop down list as a textbox when it's set to be read only. For some reason I can't seem to bind the text of the selected item in the combo box to the textbox. This is my XAML: <Style x:Key="EditableDropDown" TargetType="ComboBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsReadOnly" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ComboBox"> <TextBox Text="{TemplateBinding SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource StringCaseConverter}}" BorderThickness="0" Background="Transparent" FontSize="{TemplateBinding FontSize}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalAlignment}" FontFamily="{TemplateBinding FontFamily}" Width="{TemplateBinding Width}" TextWrapping="Wrap"/> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> <ComboBox IsReadOnly="{Binding ReadOnlyMode}" Style="{StaticResource EditableDropDown}" Margin="0 0 10 0"> <ComboBoxItem IsSelected="True">Test</ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> When I do this, I get the following as the text: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBoxItem: Test I would really appreciate the help!

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  • ASP:DropDownList in ItemTemplate: Why is SelectedValue attribute allowed?

    - by recursive
    This piece of code <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="testdropdown" SelectedValue="2"> <asp:ListItem Text="1" Value="1"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="2" Value="2"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="3" Value="3"></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> yields this error: The 'SelectedValue' property cannot be set declaratively. Yet, this is a legal and commonly used edit template for databound GridViews. The SelectedValue attribute certainly appears to be declaratively set here. <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="GenreDropDownList" DataSourceID="GenreDataSource" DataValueField="GenreId" DataTextField="Name" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("Genre.GenreId") %>'> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> The question is: what is the difference between the cases when you are allowed to set it declaratively and those in which you are not? The error message implies that it's never allowed.

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  • sorting a gridview alphabetically when columns are codes

    - by nat
    hi there i have a gridview populated by a Web Service search function. some of the columns in the grid are templatefields, because the values coming back from the search (in a datatable) are ids - i then use these ids to lookup the values when the rowdatabound event is triggered and populate a label or some such. this means that my sorting function for these id/lookup columns sorts by the ids rather than the textual value that i have looked up and actually populated the grid with (although i do put the ids in the grids datakeys). what i want to do is top be able to sort by the looked up textual value rather than the codes for these particular columns. what i was going to do to get around this was to when the datatable comes back from the search, adding more columns the textual values and doing all the looking up then, thus being able to sort directly from the manually added columns. is there another way to do this? as that approach seems like a bit of a bodge. although i guess it does remove having to do the looking up in the rowdatabound event.... my sorting function works by sticking the datatable in the session and on each bind grabbing the sort column and binding the gridview to a DataView with the sort attribute set to the column - and the direction. thanks nat

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  • Using POST or SESSION to capture data

    - by Karinne
    Hi all! I'm currently working on web application using VB in ASP.NET. Right now I have 1 page with panels that we are using to show/hide depending on the flow. When the user first comes in, he/she is presented with a gridview containing a list of clients. Then the user, clicks a link from a row and is presented a form where he/she can update the clients' info. Originally, I had a HYPERLINKFIELD that put the clientId in the url, then I'd grab the url and do the code appropriately <asp:HyperLinkField Text='<%$ Resources:Resource, ManageClient %>' DataNavigateUrlFields="CLIENT_ID" DataNavigateUrlFormatString="~/clients/manage.aspx?clientId={0}" /> Now, I'm rethinking that and wondering if it's better to use SESSIONs to grab the clientID via this instead <asp:TemplateField Visible="false"><ItemTemplate><asp:Label runat="server" ID="hidClientId" Text='<%# Bind("CLIENT_ID")%>' Visible="false" /></ItemTemplate></asp:TemplateField> <asp:ButtonField Text='<%$ Resources:Resource, ManageClient %>' CommandName="Manage" /> Or use the POST method, which I'm not sure how it works in .NET (but I've used it in PHP) Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • JQuery drag, drop and save via cookie - how to?

    - by RussP
    Sorry to be back folks, but you guys & girls seem to know much more about this than I do ... anyhow, here is my question/problem I want to use drag, drop, sort (the interface plugin does me even though I have read it's out of date? but have looked at UI and to be honest is not clear and to me appears heavier than interface?) Anyhow, how do I set a cookie to save positions from this: $(document).ready( function () { $('a.closeEl').bind('click', toggleContent); $('div.groupWrapper').Sortable( { accept: 'groupItem', helperclass: 'sortHelper', activeclass : 'sortableactive', hoverclass : 'sortablehover', handle: 'div.itemHeader', tolerance: 'pointer', onChange : function(ser) { }, onStart : function() { $.iAutoscroller.start(this, document.getElementsByTagName('body')); }, onStop : function() { $.iAutoscroller.stop(); } } ); } ); var toggleContent = function(e) { var targetContent = $('div.itemContent', this.parentNode.parentNode); if (targetContent.css('display') == 'none') { targetContent.slideDown(300); $(this).html('[-]'); } else { targetContent.slideUp(300); $(this).html('[+]'); } return false; }; var ser = function (s) { serial = $.SortSerialize(s); alert(serial.hash); }; which is the "standard" interface demo, PLUS How do I then get to read that cookie so that when I next visit the page the order is as I set it in the cookie? Hopefully from that I can work out the rest .......? Thanks for help in advance.

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  • Multiple winform data save problem

    - by Mahesh
    hi am using C# with VS-2005 I have a form1 and about two textBox and one Combobox on it. like below textBox1 texbox2 ComboBox I have bind combobox by sql database. first user type in textbox1 and textbox2 and then goes to comboBox in which "BuyerName" available on it. if user not found the data in the comboBox then press ALT+C for opening of Form2 where they create data and save it. My problem is when I closed the form2 by saving data of "BuyerName" the form1 is open as per my requirement but the data of textBox1 and textBox2 which user typed before opening of form2 is lost and therefore user have to re-type on it. which i don't want as it wasting of time. I want when form2 closed and form1 open the data will be available on it. and when u create fresh "BuyerName" from form2 the "BuyerName" will be automaticaly available on form1 comboBox on closing of form2. Hope u will get it. am new here in programing so kindly suggest me by proper codeing. thx in Advance.

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  • How can I get the type I want?

    - by Danny Chen
    There are a lot of such classes in my project (very old and stable code, I can't do many changes to them, maybe slight changes are OK) public class MyEntity { public long ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Salary { get; set; } public static GetMyEntity ( long ID ) { MyEntity e = new MyEntity(); // load data from DB and bind to this instance return e; } } For some reasons, now I need to do this: Type t = Type.GetType("XXX"); // XXX is one of the above classes' name MethodInfo staticM= t.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static).FirstOrDefault();// I'm sure I can get the correct one var o = staticM.Invoke(...); //returns a object, but I want the type above! If I pass "MyEntity" at beginning, I hope I can get o as MyEntity! Please NOTE that I know the "name of the class" only. MyEntity e = staticM.Invoke(...) as MyEntity; can't be used here.

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • Flash - Http service bound to a button can be used only once ?

    - by SAKIROGLU Koray
    I have a flex project, in one of the screen of my UI, I create a HTTP service that call a "doGet" J2EE servlet through the GET method; and I bind the service call to a button. The service print log to system.out so I know when it is run. The problem I have is, when I click said button the first time, the servlets do what it is supposed to do, and print the stack to system.out, but if I click another time, nothing happens. Any idea what might be the cause ? Here's the flex code (code and service has been generated by Eclipse flex plugin) <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ protected function button_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { LaunchSimulResult.token = simulation.LaunchSimul(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Canvas> ... <mx:Button label="Simulation" id="button" click="button_clickHandler(event)"/> .. </mx:Canvas> <mx:CallResponder id="LaunchSimulResult"/> <simulation:Simulation id="simulation" fault="Alert.show(event.fault.faultString + '\n' + event.fault.faultDetail)" showBusyCursor="true"/>

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  • How does Backbone.js connect View to Model

    - by William Sham
    I am trying to learn backbone.js through the following example. Then I got stuck at the point ItemView = Backbone.View.extend why you can use this.model.get? I thought this is referring to the instance of ItemView that would be created. Then why would ItemView has a model property at all?!! (function($){ var Item = Backbone.Model.extend({ defaults: { part1: 'hello', part2: 'world' } }); var List = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: Item }); var ItemView = Backbone.View.extend({ tagName: 'li', initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render'); }, render: function(){ $(this.el).html('<span>'+this.model.get('part1')+' '+this.model.get('part2')+'</span>'); return this; } }); var ListView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: $('body'), events: { 'click button#add': 'addItem' }, initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render', 'addItem', 'appendItem'); this.collection = new List(); this.collection.bind('add', this.appendItem); this.counter = 0; this.render(); }, render: function(){ $(this.el).append("<button id='add'>Add list item</button>"); $(this.el).append("<ul></ul>"); _(this.collection.models).each(function(item){ appendItem(item); }, this); }, addItem: function(){ this.counter++; var item = new Item(); item.set({ part2: item.get('part2') + this.counter }); this.collection.add(item); }, appendItem: function(item){ var itemView = new ItemView({ model: item }); $('ul', this.el).append(itemView.render().el); } }); var listView = new ListView(); })(jQuery);

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  • Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

    - by CoreyT
    I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

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  • node.js UDP data lost at high package rates

    - by koleto
    I am observing a significant data-lost on a UDP connection with node.js 0.6.18 and 0.8.0 . It appears at high packet rates about 1200 packet per second with frames about 1500 byte limit. Each data packages has a incrementing number so it easy to track the number of lost packages. var server = dgram.createSocket("udp4"); server.on("message", function (message, rinfo) { //~processData(message); //~ writeData(message, null, 5000); }).bind(10001); On the receiving callback I tested two cases I first saved 5000 packages in a file. The result ware no dropped packages. After I have included a data processing routine and got about 50% drop rate. What I expected was that the process data routine should be completely asynchronous and should not introduce dead time to the system, since it is a simple parser to process binary data in the package and to emits events to a further processing routine. It seems that the parsing routine introduce dead time in which the event handler is unable to handle each packets. At the low package rates (< 1200 packages/sec) there are no data lost observed! Is this a bug or I am doing something wrong?

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  • How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

    - by quakkels
    Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

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  • Symfony: joining two forms in the same page

    - by user248959
    Hi, i'm trying to join in the same action the login and the register forms. This is what i'm trying: modules/miembros/actions.class.php public function executeAux(sfWebRequest $request) { // I execute this action } modules/miembros/templates/auxSuccess.php <?php include_component('sfGuardRegister', 'register'); ?> <?php include_component('sfGuardAuth', 'signin'); ?> modules/miembros/components.class.php public function executeSignin($request) { if ( $request->isMethod( 'post' ) && ($request- >getParameter('submit')=='signin') ){ $this->form->bind( $request->getParameter( 'login' ) ); if ( $this->form->isValid() ){ $this->getController()->getActionStack()->getLastEntry()->getActionInstance()->redirect( '@home' ); } } } modules/miembros/templates/_signin.php <form action="<?php echo url_for('miembros/aux?submit=signin') ?>" method="post"> <?php echo $form['email_address']->renderLabel() ?> <?php echo $form['email_address'] ?> ... It's working ok, but i would to know if you have other alternatives. Regards Javi

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  • 2-Way databinding with Entity Framework and WPF DataGrid , is Possible ?

    - by Panindra
    i am working on POS application using SQL CE , WPF , Entity framework 3.5sp2 and iam trying to use data grid as my Order Entry Control for User to enter Products Order . Iam plannning to bind this to enitiy frmae work model , abd looking for 2 way updating ? private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { using (MasterEntities nwEntities = new MasterEntities()) { var users = from d in nwEntities.Companies select new { d.CompanyId, d.CompanyName, d.Place }; listBox1.DataContext = users; dataGrid1.DataContext = users; // foreach (String c in customers) // { // MessageBox.Show(c.ToString()); // } } } When try to double clikc on the datagrid it through s a error with Caption " Invalid Operation Execption was unhandled " and Message " A TwoWay or OneWayToSource binding cannot work on the read-only property 'CompanyId' of type '<f__AnonymousType0`3[System.Int32,System.String,System.String]'. whats wrong here and my xaml coding goes like this <Grid> <ListBox Name="listBox1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" /> <Button Content="Show " Name="button1" Click="button1_Click" /> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" > <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header=" ID" Binding="{Binding CompanyId}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Company Name" Binding="{Binding CompanyName}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Place" Binding="{Binding Place}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> EDITED : i made the changes shown by @vorrtex, But, then i added another button to save the chages and in button click event i added follwing code , butit showing Updating error private void button2_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { nwEntities.SaveChanges(); }

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  • How can my controls size be NaN when it is actually shown?

    - by Stian Karlsen
    I have a Grid which contains an Image in one of its columns. The image itself does not have any Width or Height set, but its size is correctly controlled through the ColumnDefinition set. From this I would assume that the image controller actually has a Width and Height set, but when I try to bind another element to its Width and Height it doesn't work. When debugging it turns out that the value of Image.Height and Image.Width are NaN. Why? <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="350"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="10"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid Grid.Column="0" Margin="5"> <Image x:Name="_image" Source="image.jpg"></Image> </Grid> </Grid>

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  • Sharing a COM port over TCP

    - by guinness
    What would be a simple design pattern for sharing a COM port over TCP to multiple clients? For example, a local GPS device that could transmit co-ordinates to remote hosts in realtime. So I need a program that would open the serial port and accept multiple TCP connections like: class Program { public static void Main(string[] args) { SerialPort sp = new SerialPort("COM4", 19200, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One); Socket srv = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp); srv.Bind(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 8000)); srv.Listen(20); while (true) { Socket soc = srv.Accept(); new Connection(soc); } } } I would then need a class to handle the communication between connected clients, allowing them all to see the data and keeping it synchronized so client commands are received in sequence: class Connection { static object lck = new object(); static List<Connection> cons = new List<Connection>(); public Socket socket; public StreamReader reader; public StreamWriter writer; public Connection(Socket soc) { this.socket = soc; this.reader = new StreamReader(new NetworkStream(soc, false)); this.writer = new StreamWriter(new NetworkStream(soc, true)); new Thread(ClientLoop).Start(); } void ClientLoop() { lock (lck) { connections.Add(this); } while (true) { lock (lck) { string line = reader.ReadLine(); if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(line)) break; foreach (Connection con in cons) con.writer.WriteLine(line); } } lock (lck) { cons.Remove(this); socket.Close(); } } } The problem I'm struggling to resolve is how to facilitate communication between the SerialPort instance and the threads. I'm not certain that the above code is the best way forward, so does anybody have another solution (the simpler the better)?

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by Dann
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • XML Decryption Bug (referencing issue)

    - by OrangePekoe
    Hi, Needing some explanation of what exactly the decryption is doing, in addition to some help on solving the problem. Currently, when a portion of XML is encrypted, and then decrypted, the DOM appears to work correctly. We can see the element is encrypted and then see it return back once it is decrypted. Our problem lies when a user tries to change data in that same element after decryption has occurred. When a user changes some settings, data in the XML should change. However, if the user attempts to change an XML element that has been decrypted the changes are not reflected in the DOM. We have a reference pointer to the XML element that is used to bind the element to an object. If you encrypt the node and then decrypt it, the reference pointer now points to a valid orphaned XML element that is no longer part of the DOM. After decryption, there will be 2 copies of the XML element. One in the DOM as expected (though will not reflect new changes), and one orphaned element in memory that is still referenced by our pointer. The orphaned element is valid (reflects new changes). We can see that this orphaned element is owned by the DOM, but when we try to return its parent, it returns null. The question is: Where did this orphaned xml element come from? And how can we get it to correctly append (replace old data) to the DOM? The code resembles: public static void Decrypt(XmlDocument Doc, SymmetricAlgorithm Alg) { if (Doc == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Doc"); if (Alg == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("Alg"); XmlElement encryptedElement = Doc.GetElementsByTagName("EncryptedData")[0] as XmlElement; if (encryptedElement == null) { throw new XmlException("The EncryptedData element was not found."); } EncryptedData edElement = new EncryptedData(); edElement.LoadXml(encryptedElement); EncryptedXml exml = new EncryptedXml(); byte[] rgbOutput = exml.DecryptData(edElement, Alg); exml.ReplaceData(encryptedElement, rgbOutput); }

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  • Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

    - by johncatfish
    Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

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  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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  • PHP mail() function not delivering mail

    - by Ryan Jones
    Hi there, I have a slight problem. I am using a working script (works on my testing account - shared server) to send a mail through PHP using the mail() function. I just got a dedicated server, and I haven't been able to get the function to work. I've spent the last 10 or so hours reading various documentations on BIND (for the SPF record), dovecot, sendmail and postfix trying various things to get this to work. There is clearly something that I am missing. So we know the PHP code works fine. All the headers are fine everything. We know this as it's a direct copy from my testing account. So the problem must arise somewhere in the server config. The path to sendmail is correct, and sendmail is (apparently) working fine. I've set up the script to now deliver "Sent" or "Error" based on the boolean result from the PHP mail() function. That is: if(mail($blah,$blah,$blah,$blah,$blah)) { echo "Sent"; } else { echo "Error";} And the result ALWAYS comes up as "Sent" - however, the email never arrives. Can someone suggest things to check, as I'm completely new to this (24 hours or so!). Thanks in advance. Ryan

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  • DataGridView update datasource directly after changed Checkbox value

    - by SchlaWiener
    I have a System.Windows.Forms DataGridView that is bound to a List<MyObject>. The class MyObject contains a boolean property that is bound to DataGridViewCheckboxCell within the DataGridView. public class MyObject { public decimal DefaultValue {get; set; } public bool HasCustomValue {get;set; } public decimal CustomValue {get;set; } public decimal CurrentValue { get { return HasCustomValue ? CustomValue : DefaultValue; } } If I change the value of HasCustomValue another (readonly) property CurrentValue changes it's value, too. That is done by implementing the INotifyPropertyChanged event (I left that part in the source example for simplicity) If I changed HasCustomValue from outside the DataGridView, the column bound to CurrentValue gets updated immediately. Howevery, If the users enables/disables the checkbox, HasCustomValue is not changed in the underlying datasource unless he leaves the column by clicking with the mouse or pressing the TAB key. Is there a way to force the grid to update the datasource directly after changing a checkbox value? If I bind a Control Property I have the ability to set the DataSourceUpdateMode to Windows.Forms.DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged but I haven't found anything like that in a DataGridView

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