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  • Multiple winform data save problem

    - by Mahesh
    hi am using C# with VS-2005 I have a form1 and about two textBox and one Combobox on it. like below textBox1 texbox2 ComboBox I have bind combobox by sql database. first user type in textbox1 and textbox2 and then goes to comboBox in which "BuyerName" available on it. if user not found the data in the comboBox then press ALT+C for opening of Form2 where they create data and save it. My problem is when I closed the form2 by saving data of "BuyerName" the form1 is open as per my requirement but the data of textBox1 and textBox2 which user typed before opening of form2 is lost and therefore user have to re-type on it. which i don't want as it wasting of time. I want when form2 closed and form1 open the data will be available on it. and when u create fresh "BuyerName" from form2 the "BuyerName" will be automaticaly available on form1 comboBox on closing of form2. Hope u will get it. am new here in programing so kindly suggest me by proper codeing. thx in Advance.

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  • Binding value for NSTableView, but tooltip gets set as well

    - by Mark
    I've set up an NSTableView in Interface Builder to be populated from an NSArray. Each value of the array represents one row in the table. The value is bound correctly, but as a side effect, the table cell's tooltip is set to the string representation of the bound object. In my case, the NSArray contains NSDictiorany objects and the tooltip looks like it could be the [... description] output of that dictionary. Very ugly... I don't want the tooltip to be set at all. I have other tables that have plain NSString values bound to them and they don't have a tooltip set automatically. Is there some Interface Builder magic going on? I tried to start with a blank project - same problem. I should add that the table cell is a custom implementation of NSTextFieldCell that uses an NSButtonCell instance to draw an image and a label into the table. The values are retrieved from the dictionary bound as value. Why is the tooltip set when I only bind the "value" attribute? Thanks in advance!

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  • Symfony: joining two forms in the same page

    - by user248959
    Hi, i'm trying to join in the same action the login and the register forms. This is what i'm trying: modules/miembros/actions.class.php public function executeAux(sfWebRequest $request) { // I execute this action } modules/miembros/templates/auxSuccess.php <?php include_component('sfGuardRegister', 'register'); ?> <?php include_component('sfGuardAuth', 'signin'); ?> modules/miembros/components.class.php public function executeSignin($request) { if ( $request->isMethod( 'post' ) && ($request- >getParameter('submit')=='signin') ){ $this->form->bind( $request->getParameter( 'login' ) ); if ( $this->form->isValid() ){ $this->getController()->getActionStack()->getLastEntry()->getActionInstance()->redirect( '@home' ); } } } modules/miembros/templates/_signin.php <form action="<?php echo url_for('miembros/aux?submit=signin') ?>" method="post"> <?php echo $form['email_address']->renderLabel() ?> <?php echo $form['email_address'] ?> ... It's working ok, but i would to know if you have other alternatives. Regards Javi

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  • Python 3.3 Webserver restarting problems

    - by IPDGino
    I have made a simple webserver in python, and had some problems with it before as described here: Python (3.3) Webserver script with an interesting error In that question, the answer was to use a While True: loop so that any crashes or errors would be resolved instantly, because it would just start itself again. I've used this for a while, and still want to make the server restart itself every few minutes, but on Linux for some reason it won't work for me. On windows the code below works fine, but on linux it keeps saying Handler class up here ... ... class Server: def __init__(self): self.server_class = HTTPServer self.server_adress = ('MY IP GOES HERE, or localhost', 8080) global httpd httpd = self.server_class(self.server_adress, Handler) self.main() def main(self): if count > 1: global SERVER_UP_SINCE HOUR_CHECK = int(((count - 1) * RESTART_INTERVAL) / 60) SERVER_UPTIME = str(HOUR_CHECK) + " MINUTES" if HOUR_CHECK > 60: minutes = int(HOUR_CHECK % 60) hours = int(HOUR_CHECK // 60) SERVER_UPTIME = ("%s HOURS, %s MINUTES" % (str(hours), str(minutes))) SERVING_ON_ADDR = self.server_adress SERVER_UP_SINCE = str(SERVER_UP_SINCE) SERVER_RESTART_NUMBER = count - 1 print(""" SERVER INFO ------------------------------------- SERVER_UPTIME: %s SERVER_UP_SINCE: %s TOTAL_FILES_SERVED: %d SERVING_ON_ADDR: %s SERVER_RESTART_NUMBER: %s \n\nSERVER HAS RESTARTED """ % (SERVER_UPTIME, SERVER_UP_SINCE, TOTAL_FILES, SERVING_ON_ADDR, SERVER_RESTART_NUMBER)) else: print("SERVER_BOOT=1\nSERVER_ONLINE=TRUE\nRESTART_LOOP=TRUE\nSERVING_ON_ADDR:%s" % str(self.server_adress)) while True: try: httpd.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print("Shutting down...") break httpd.shutdown() httpd.socket.close() raise(SystemExit) return def server_restart(): """If you want the restart timer to be longer, replace the number after the RESTART_INTERVAL variable""" global RESTART_INTERVAL RESTART_INTERVAL = 10 threading.Timer(RESTART_INTERVAL, server_restart).start() global count count = count + 1 instance = Server() if __name__ == "__main__": global SERVER_UP_SINCE SERVER_UP_SINCE = strftime("%d-%m-%Y %H:%M:%S", gmtime()) server_restart() Basically, I make a thread to restart it every 10 seconds (For testing purposes) and start the server. After ten seconds it will say File "/home/username/Desktop/Webserver/server.py", line 199, in __init__ httpd = self.server_class(self.server_adress, Handler) File "/usr/lib/python3.3/socketserver.py", line 430, in __init__ self.server_bind() File "/usr/lib/python3.3/http/server.py", line 135, in server_bind socketserver.TCPServer.server_bind(self) File "/usr/lib/python3.3/socketserver.py", line 441, in server_bind self.socket.bind(self.server_address) OSError: [Errno 98] Address already in use As you can see in the except KeyboardInterruption line, I tried everything to make the server stop, and the program stop, but it will NOT stop. But the thing I really want to know is how to make this server able to restart, without giving some wonky errors.

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  • xcode project-/target-settings-syntax for linker flag force_load on iPhone

    - by Kaiserludi
    Hi all. I am confronted with the double bind, that on the one hand for one of the 3rd party static libraries, my iPhone application uses, the linker flag -all_load has to be set in the application project- or target settings, otherwise the app crashes at runtime not finding some symbols, called internally from the lib, on the other hand for another 3rd party static lib -all_load must not be set on application level, or the app won't build thanks to a "duplicate symbols"-linker error. To solve this issue I now want to use force_load instant of load_all, as it due to documentation it does the same like all_load, but only for the passed path or lib-file, instead of all libs. The problem with force_load is, I do not have a clue, how to pass a path or file as parameter with it, when passing it via xcode project- or target-settings. All syntax-possibilities coming to my mind either lead into xcode thinking its another linker flag instead of a parameter to the previous one, or the linker is throwing syntax related errors or the flag simply does nothing at all in comparison to not being set. I also opened the .pbxproj-file in a text-editor to edit it to the correct command line syntax manually, but when reloading the project with xcode, it auto changes the syntax into interpreting the parameter to force_load as a separate flag. Anyone having an idea on this issue? Thx, Kaiserludi.

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  • how to use a parameterized function for the Default Binding of a Sql Server column

    - by Walt Gaber
    I have a table that catalogs selected files from multiple sources. I want to record whether a file is a duplicate of a previously cataloged file at the time the new file is cataloged. I have a column in my table (“primary_duplicate”) to record each entry as ‘P’ (primary) or ‘D’ (duplicate). I would like to provide a Default Binding for this column that would check for other occurrences of this file (i.e. name, length, timestamp) at the time the new file is being recorded. I have created a function that performs this check (see “GetPrimaryDuplicate” below). But I don’t know how to bind this function which requires three parameters to the table’s “primary_duplicate” column as its Default Binding. I would like to avoid using a trigger. I currently have a stored procedure used to insert new records that performs this check. But I would like to ensure that the flag is set correctly if an insert is performed outside of this stored procedure. How can I call this function with values from the row that is being inserted? USE [MyDatabase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog]( [id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [catalog_timestamp] [datetime] NOT NULL, [primary_duplicate] nchar NOT NULL, [name] nvarchar NULL, [length] [bigint] NULL, [timestamp] [datetime] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_id] DEFAULT (newid()) FOR [id] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_catalog_timestamp] DEFAULT (getdate()) FOR [catalog_timestamp] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_primary_duplicate] DEFAULT (N'GetPrimaryDuplicate(name, length, timestamp)') FOR [primary_duplicate] GO USE [MyDatabase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[GetPrimaryDuplicate] ( @name nvarchar(255), @length bigint, @timestamp datetime ) RETURNS nchar(1) AS BEGIN DECLARE @c int SELECT @c = COUNT(*) FROM FileCatalog WHERE name=@name and length=@length and timestamp=@timestamp and primary_duplicate = 'P' IF @c > 0 RETURN 'D' -- Duplicate RETURN 'P' -- Primary END GO

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  • ASP:DropDownList in ItemTemplate: Why is SelectedValue attribute allowed?

    - by recursive
    This piece of code <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="testdropdown" SelectedValue="2"> <asp:ListItem Text="1" Value="1"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="2" Value="2"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="3" Value="3"></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> yields this error: The 'SelectedValue' property cannot be set declaratively. Yet, this is a legal and commonly used edit template for databound GridViews. The SelectedValue attribute certainly appears to be declaratively set here. <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="GenreDropDownList" DataSourceID="GenreDataSource" DataValueField="GenreId" DataTextField="Name" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("Genre.GenreId") %>'> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> The question is: what is the difference between the cases when you are allowed to set it declaratively and those in which you are not? The error message implies that it's never allowed.

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  • Using POST or SESSION to capture data

    - by Karinne
    Hi all! I'm currently working on web application using VB in ASP.NET. Right now I have 1 page with panels that we are using to show/hide depending on the flow. When the user first comes in, he/she is presented with a gridview containing a list of clients. Then the user, clicks a link from a row and is presented a form where he/she can update the clients' info. Originally, I had a HYPERLINKFIELD that put the clientId in the url, then I'd grab the url and do the code appropriately <asp:HyperLinkField Text='<%$ Resources:Resource, ManageClient %>' DataNavigateUrlFields="CLIENT_ID" DataNavigateUrlFormatString="~/clients/manage.aspx?clientId={0}" /> Now, I'm rethinking that and wondering if it's better to use SESSIONs to grab the clientID via this instead <asp:TemplateField Visible="false"><ItemTemplate><asp:Label runat="server" ID="hidClientId" Text='<%# Bind("CLIENT_ID")%>' Visible="false" /></ItemTemplate></asp:TemplateField> <asp:ButtonField Text='<%$ Resources:Resource, ManageClient %>' CommandName="Manage" /> Or use the POST method, which I'm not sure how it works in .NET (but I've used it in PHP) Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How can my controls size be NaN when it is actually shown?

    - by Stian Karlsen
    I have a Grid which contains an Image in one of its columns. The image itself does not have any Width or Height set, but its size is correctly controlled through the ColumnDefinition set. From this I would assume that the image controller actually has a Width and Height set, but when I try to bind another element to its Width and Height it doesn't work. When debugging it turns out that the value of Image.Height and Image.Width are NaN. Why? <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="350"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="10"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid Grid.Column="0" Margin="5"> <Image x:Name="_image" Source="image.jpg"></Image> </Grid> </Grid>

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  • How to display combo box as textbox in WPF via a style template trigger?

    - by Greg R
    I would like to display a combobox drop down list as a textbox when it's set to be read only. For some reason I can't seem to bind the text of the selected item in the combo box to the textbox. This is my XAML: <Style x:Key="EditableDropDown" TargetType="ComboBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsReadOnly" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ComboBox"> <TextBox Text="{TemplateBinding SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource StringCaseConverter}}" BorderThickness="0" Background="Transparent" FontSize="{TemplateBinding FontSize}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalAlignment}" FontFamily="{TemplateBinding FontFamily}" Width="{TemplateBinding Width}" TextWrapping="Wrap"/> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> <ComboBox IsReadOnly="{Binding ReadOnlyMode}" Style="{StaticResource EditableDropDown}" Margin="0 0 10 0"> <ComboBoxItem IsSelected="True">Test</ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> When I do this, I get the following as the text: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBoxItem: Test I would really appreciate the help!

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  • Flash - Http service bound to a button can be used only once ?

    - by SAKIROGLU Koray
    I have a flex project, in one of the screen of my UI, I create a HTTP service that call a "doGet" J2EE servlet through the GET method; and I bind the service call to a button. The service print log to system.out so I know when it is run. The problem I have is, when I click said button the first time, the servlets do what it is supposed to do, and print the stack to system.out, but if I click another time, nothing happens. Any idea what might be the cause ? Here's the flex code (code and service has been generated by Eclipse flex plugin) <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ protected function button_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { LaunchSimulResult.token = simulation.LaunchSimul(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Canvas> ... <mx:Button label="Simulation" id="button" click="button_clickHandler(event)"/> .. </mx:Canvas> <mx:CallResponder id="LaunchSimulResult"/> <simulation:Simulation id="simulation" fault="Alert.show(event.fault.faultString + '\n' + event.fault.faultDetail)" showBusyCursor="true"/>

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  • problem configure JBoss to work with JNDI(2)

    - by Spiderman
    in continuation to the question from last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828237/problem-configure-jboss-to-work-with-jndi I'm trying to bind datasource in JBoss and use it in my application. In my struggling, I already managed to avoid the javax.naming.NameNotFoundException by: 1. using in java new InitialContext().lookup(connection); instead of new JndiObjectFactoryBean().setJndiName(connection); 2. changing the connection name from: 'jndi-name' to 'java:jndi-name' Now the problem is that the datasouce that I get from the lookup is null. I created the datsource file: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>bilby</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:myURL</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver </driver-class> <user-name>myUsername</user-name> <password>myPassword</password> <exception-sorter-class- name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and put it under \server\default\deploy\oracle-ds.xml I get during runtime the line: 18:37:56,560 INFO [ConnectionFactoryBindingService] Bound ConnectionManager 'jb oss.jca:service=DataSourceBinding,name=bilby' to JNDI name 'java:bilby' So my question is - why do I get null as my datasource???

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • LINQ - Querying a list filtered via a Many-to-Many reltionship

    - by user118190
    Please excuse the context of my question for I did not know how to exactly word it. To not complicate things further, here's my business requirement: "bring me back all the Employees where they belong in Department "X". So when I view this, it will display all of the Employees that belong to this Department. Here's my environment: Silverlight 3 with Entity Framework 1.0 and WCF Data Services 1.0. I am able to load and bind all kinds of lists (simple), no problem. I don't feel that my environment matters and that's why I feel it is a LINQ question more than the technologies. My question is for scenarios where I have 3 tables linked, i.e. entities (collections). For example, I have this in my EDM: Employee--EmployeeProject--Project. Here's the table design from the Database: Employee (table1) ------------- EmployeeID (PK) FirstName other Attributes ... EmployeeProject (table2) ------------- EmployeeProjectID (PK) EmployeeID (FK) ProjectID (FK) AssignedDate other Attributes ... Project (table3) ------------- ProjectID (PK) Name other Attributes ... Here's the EDM design from Entity Framework: ------------------------ Employee (entity1) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- EmployeeID (PK) FirstName other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjects ------------------------ EmployeeProject (entity2) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjectID (PK) AssignedDate other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- Employee Project ------------------------ Project (entity3) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- ProjectID (PK) Name other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjects So far, I have only been able to do: var filteredList = Context.Employees .Where(e => e.EmployeeProjects.Where(ep => ep.Project.Name == "ProjectX")) NOTE: I have updated the syntax of the query after John's post. As you can see, I can only query, the related entity (EmployeeProjects). All I want is being able to filter to Project from the Employee entity. Thanks for any advice.

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  • Sharing a COM port over TCP

    - by guinness
    What would be a simple design pattern for sharing a COM port over TCP to multiple clients? For example, a local GPS device that could transmit co-ordinates to remote hosts in realtime. So I need a program that would open the serial port and accept multiple TCP connections like: class Program { public static void Main(string[] args) { SerialPort sp = new SerialPort("COM4", 19200, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One); Socket srv = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp); srv.Bind(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 8000)); srv.Listen(20); while (true) { Socket soc = srv.Accept(); new Connection(soc); } } } I would then need a class to handle the communication between connected clients, allowing them all to see the data and keeping it synchronized so client commands are received in sequence: class Connection { static object lck = new object(); static List<Connection> cons = new List<Connection>(); public Socket socket; public StreamReader reader; public StreamWriter writer; public Connection(Socket soc) { this.socket = soc; this.reader = new StreamReader(new NetworkStream(soc, false)); this.writer = new StreamWriter(new NetworkStream(soc, true)); new Thread(ClientLoop).Start(); } void ClientLoop() { lock (lck) { connections.Add(this); } while (true) { lock (lck) { string line = reader.ReadLine(); if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(line)) break; foreach (Connection con in cons) con.writer.WriteLine(line); } } lock (lck) { cons.Remove(this); socket.Close(); } } } The problem I'm struggling to resolve is how to facilitate communication between the SerialPort instance and the threads. I'm not certain that the above code is the best way forward, so does anybody have another solution (the simpler the better)?

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  • JQuery drag, drop and save via cookie - how to?

    - by RussP
    Sorry to be back folks, but you guys & girls seem to know much more about this than I do ... anyhow, here is my question/problem I want to use drag, drop, sort (the interface plugin does me even though I have read it's out of date? but have looked at UI and to be honest is not clear and to me appears heavier than interface?) Anyhow, how do I set a cookie to save positions from this: $(document).ready( function () { $('a.closeEl').bind('click', toggleContent); $('div.groupWrapper').Sortable( { accept: 'groupItem', helperclass: 'sortHelper', activeclass : 'sortableactive', hoverclass : 'sortablehover', handle: 'div.itemHeader', tolerance: 'pointer', onChange : function(ser) { }, onStart : function() { $.iAutoscroller.start(this, document.getElementsByTagName('body')); }, onStop : function() { $.iAutoscroller.stop(); } } ); } ); var toggleContent = function(e) { var targetContent = $('div.itemContent', this.parentNode.parentNode); if (targetContent.css('display') == 'none') { targetContent.slideDown(300); $(this).html('[-]'); } else { targetContent.slideUp(300); $(this).html('[+]'); } return false; }; var ser = function (s) { serial = $.SortSerialize(s); alert(serial.hash); }; which is the "standard" interface demo, PLUS How do I then get to read that cookie so that when I next visit the page the order is as I set it in the cookie? Hopefully from that I can work out the rest .......? Thanks for help in advance.

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  • doesn't parse xml when it's a single node

    - by tag
    my script.php returns this XML <all> <item> <field1>value1</field1> <field2>value2</field2> </item> <item> <field1>value1</field1> <field2>value2</field2> </item> </all> The HTTPService uses the default resultFormat="object" but I don't declare it since it's the default. Then I bind it to a List dataProvider="{getDataHTTP.lastResult.all.item}" I get no problems when the number of item returned is more than 1. But when it's only 1 item I get an error cannot convert XMLList to mx.collections.IList. I tried different solutions including trying to cast it as XMLListCollection but it still gives an error for single items. Does anyone know of a way to possibly solve this?

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by Dann
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • PHP mail() function not delivering mail

    - by Ryan Jones
    Hi there, I have a slight problem. I am using a working script (works on my testing account - shared server) to send a mail through PHP using the mail() function. I just got a dedicated server, and I haven't been able to get the function to work. I've spent the last 10 or so hours reading various documentations on BIND (for the SPF record), dovecot, sendmail and postfix trying various things to get this to work. There is clearly something that I am missing. So we know the PHP code works fine. All the headers are fine everything. We know this as it's a direct copy from my testing account. So the problem must arise somewhere in the server config. The path to sendmail is correct, and sendmail is (apparently) working fine. I've set up the script to now deliver "Sent" or "Error" based on the boolean result from the PHP mail() function. That is: if(mail($blah,$blah,$blah,$blah,$blah)) { echo "Sent"; } else { echo "Error";} And the result ALWAYS comes up as "Sent" - however, the email never arrives. Can someone suggest things to check, as I'm completely new to this (24 hours or so!). Thanks in advance. Ryan

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  • 2-Way databinding with Entity Framework and WPF DataGrid , is Possible ?

    - by Panindra
    i am working on POS application using SQL CE , WPF , Entity framework 3.5sp2 and iam trying to use data grid as my Order Entry Control for User to enter Products Order . Iam plannning to bind this to enitiy frmae work model , abd looking for 2 way updating ? private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { using (MasterEntities nwEntities = new MasterEntities()) { var users = from d in nwEntities.Companies select new { d.CompanyId, d.CompanyName, d.Place }; listBox1.DataContext = users; dataGrid1.DataContext = users; // foreach (String c in customers) // { // MessageBox.Show(c.ToString()); // } } } When try to double clikc on the datagrid it through s a error with Caption " Invalid Operation Execption was unhandled " and Message " A TwoWay or OneWayToSource binding cannot work on the read-only property 'CompanyId' of type '<f__AnonymousType0`3[System.Int32,System.String,System.String]'. whats wrong here and my xaml coding goes like this <Grid> <ListBox Name="listBox1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" /> <Button Content="Show " Name="button1" Click="button1_Click" /> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" > <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header=" ID" Binding="{Binding CompanyId}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Company Name" Binding="{Binding CompanyName}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Place" Binding="{Binding Place}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> EDITED : i made the changes shown by @vorrtex, But, then i added another button to save the chages and in button click event i added follwing code , butit showing Updating error private void button2_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { nwEntities.SaveChanges(); }

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  • How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

    - by quakkels
    Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

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  • Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

    - by johncatfish
    Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

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  • Regarding the ViewModel

    - by mizipzor
    Im struggling to understand the ViewModel part of the MVVM pattern. My current approach is to have a class, with no logic whatsoever (important), except that it implements INotifyPropertyChanged. The class is just a collection of properties, a struct if you like, describing an as small part of the data as possible. I consider this my Model. Most of the WPF code I write are settings dialogs that configure said Model. The code-behind of the dialog exposes a property which returns an instance of the Model. In the XAML code I bind to subproperties of that property, thereby binding directly to the Model's properties. Which works quite well since it implements the INotifyPropertyChanged. I consider this settings dialog the View. However, I havent really been able to figure out what in all this is the ViewModel. The articles Ive read suggests that the ViewModel should tie the View and the Model together, providing the logic the Model lacks but is still to complex to go directly into the View. Is this correct? Would, in my example, the code-behind of the settings dialog be considered the ViewModel? I just feel a bit lost and would like my peers to debunk some of my assumptions. Am I completely off track here?

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  • Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

    - by CoreyT
    I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

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  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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