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• Are there Windows API binaries for Subversion or do I have to build SVN to call the API from Windows

  - by JeffH

  I want to call a Subversion API from a Visual Studio 2003 C++ project. I know there are threads here, here, here, and here that tell how to get started with C#.NET on Windows (the consensus seems to be SharpSvn, which I've used easily and successfully on another project) but that's not what I want. I've read the chapter on using APIs in the red-bean book which says: Subversion is primarily a set of C libraries, with header (.h) files that live in the subversion/include directory of the source tree. These headers are copied into your system locations (e.g., /usr/local/include) when you build and install Subversion itself from source. These headers represent the entirety of the functions and types meant to be accessible by users of the Subversion libraries. I'd like to use CollabNet Subversion but there doesn't seem to be API binary downloads, and I'd just as soon not build the whole thing if I can avoid it. Considering another approach, I found RapidSVN's C++ API, but it doesn't appear to offer Windows API binaries either and seems to require building SVN (which I would be willing to do as a last choice if RapidSVN's API is higher-level than the stock SVN offering.) Does calling the API from C++ in Windows have to be this much more work compared to using SharpSvn under .NET, or is there something I haven't found that would help me achieve my goal?

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• temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

  - by lau

  Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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• Should my validator have access to my entire model?

  - by wb

  As the title states I'm wondering if it's a good idea for my validation class to have access to all properties from my model. Ideally, I would like to do that because some fields require 10+ other fields to verify whether it is valid or not. I could but would rather not have functions with 10+ parameters. Or would that make the model and validator too coupled with one another? Here is a little example of what I mean. This code however does not work because it give an infinite loop! Class User Private m_UserID Private m_Validator Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Property Let Validator(value) Set m_Validator = value m_Validator.Initialize(Me) End Property Public Property Get Validator() Validator = m_Validator End Property Public Property Let UserID(value) m_UserID = value End property Public Property Get UserID() UserID = m_Validator.IsUserIDValid() End property End Class Class Validator Private m_User Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Sub Initialize(value) Set m_User = value End Sub Public Function IsUserIDValid() IsUserIDValid = m_User.UserID > 13 End Function End Class Dim mike : Set mike = New User mike.UserID = 123456 mike.Validator = New Validator Response.Write mike.UserID If I'm right and it is a good idea, how can I go a head and fix the infinite loop with the get property UserID? Thank you.

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• Bash PATH: How long is too long?

  - by ajwood

  Hi, I'm currently designing a software quarantine pattern to use on Ubuntu. I'm not sure how standard "quarantine" is in this context, so here is what I hope to accomplish... Inside a particular quarantine is all of the stuff one needs to run an application (bin, share, lib, etc.). Ideally, the quarantine has no leaks, which means it's not relying on any code outside of itself on the system. A quarantine can be defined as a set of executables (and some environment settings needed to make them run). I think it will be beneficial to separate the built packages enough such that upgrading to a newer version of the quarantine won't require rebuilding the whole thing. I'll be able to update just a few packages, and then the new quarantine can use some of old parts and some of the new parts. One issue I'm wondering about is the environment variables I'll be setting up to use a particular quarantines. Is there a hard limit on how big PATH can be? (either in number of characters, or in the number of directories it contains) Might a path be so long that it affects performance? Thanks very much, Andrew p.s. Any other wisdom that might help my design would be greatly appreciated :)

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• How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

  - by Jon Cram

  Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

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• Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

  - by CoreyT

  I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

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• How to authenticate multiple entry points in a facebook app?

  - by Simon_Weaver

  I am using an IFrame application with XFBML and the new Javascript API. I'd like to have a facebook application with multiple entry points. These will most likely represent different links coming from a fan page tab. I can do this quite easily if the pages don't require authentication - for instance I can create several pages under the app and if a new user comes I can send them to any page: http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/offers http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/game http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/products The problem is that if I need to have authentication then once the user is authenticated they get redirected to my default post-authorization url. Is there a way for a user that comes to /game to stay on /game after they are authenticated without redirecting. I thought I could do it with the AJAX login form - but I cannot find out how to do that in a Facebook IFrame application. I think the example using requirelogin only works for FBML. <a href="http://apps.facebook.com/mysmiley" requirelogin=1> Welcome to my app</a>. Is there a way to accomplish this with Facebook APIs - or will I have to do some kind of clever cookie handling?

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• How best to deal with warning c4305 when type could change?

  - by identitycrisisuk

  I'm using both Ogre and NxOgre, which both have a Real typedef that is either float or double depending on a compiler flag. This has resulted in most of our compiler warnings now being: warning C4305: 'argument' : truncation from 'double' to 'Ogre::Real' When initialising variables with 0.1 for example. Normally I would use 0.1f but then if you change the compiler flag to double precision then you would get the reverse warning. I guess it's probably best to pick one and stick with it but I'd like to write these in a way that would work for either configuration if possible. One fix would be to use #pragma warning (disable : 4305) in files where it occurs, I don't know if there are any other more complex problems that can be hidden by not having this warning. I understand I would push and pop these in header files too so that they don't end up spreading across code. Another is to create some macro based on the accuracy compiler flag like: #if OGRE_DOUBLE_PRECISION #define INIT_REAL(x) (x) #else #define INIT_REAL(x) static_cast<float>( x ) #endif which would require changing all the variable initialisation done so far but at least it would be future proof. Any preferences or something I haven't thought of?

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• Designing small comparable objects

  - by Thomas Ahle

  Intro Consider you have a list of key/value pairs: (0,a) (1,b) (2,c) You have a function, that inserts a new value between two current pairs, and you need to give it a key that keeps the order: (0,a) (0.5,z) (1,b) (2,c) Here the new key was chosen as the average between the average of keys of the bounding pairs. The problem is, that you list may have milions of inserts. If these inserts are all put close to each other, you may end up with keys such to 2^(-1000000), which are not easily storagable in any standard nor special number class. The problem How can you design a system for generating keys that: Gives the correct result (larger/smaller than) when compared to all the rest of the keys. Takes up only O(logn) memory (where n is the number of items in the list). My tries First I tried different number classes. Like fractions and even polynomium, but I could always find examples where the key size would grow linear with the number of inserts. Then I thought about saving pointers to a number of other keys, and saving the lower/greater than relationship, but that would always require at least O(sqrt) memory and time for comparison. Extra info: Ideally the algorithm shouldn't break when pairs are deleted from the list.

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• Which fieldtype is best for storing PRICE values?

  - by BerggreenDK

  Hi there I am wondering whats the best "price field" in MSSQL for a shoplike structure? Looking at this overview: http://www.teratrax.com/sql_guide/data_types/sql_server_data_types.html We have datatypes called money, smallmoney, then we have decimal/numeric and lastly float and real Name, memory/disk-usage and value ranges: Money: 8 bytes (values: -922,337,203,685,477.5808 to +922,337,203,685,477.5807) Smallmoney: 4 bytes (values: -214,748.3648 to +214,748.3647) Decimal: 9 [default, min. 5] bytes (values: -10^38 +1 to 10^38 -1 ) Float: 8 bytes (values: -1.79E+308 to 1.79E+308 ) Real: 4 bytes (values: -3.40E+38 to 3.40E+38 ) My question is: is it really wise to store pricevalues in those types? what about eg. INT? Int: 4 bytes (values: -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647) Lets say a shop uses dollars, they have cents, but I dont see prices being $49.2142342 so the use of a lot of decimals showing cents seems waste of SQL bandwidth. Secondly, most shops wouldn't show any prices near 200.000.000 (not in normal webshops at least... unless someone is trying to sell me a famous tower in Paris) So why not go for an int? An int is fast, its only 4 bytes and you can easily make decimals, by saving values in cents instead of dollars and then divide when you present the values. The other approach would be to use smallmoney which is 4 bytes too, but this will require the math part of the CPU to do the calc, where as Int is integer power... on the downside you will need to divide every single outcome. Are there any "currency" related problems with regionalsettings when using smallmoney/money fields? what will these transfer too in C#/.NET ? Any pros/cons? Go for integer prices or smallmoney or some other? Whats does your experience tell?

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• Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

  - by Ola Tuvesson

  I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

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• What are the elegant ways to do MixIns in Python?

  - by Slava Vishnyakov

  I need to find an elegant way to do 2 kinds of MixIns. First: class A(object): def method1(self): do_something() Now, a MixInClass should make method1 do this: do_other() - A.method1() - do_smth_else() - i.e. basically "wrap" the older function. I'm pretty sure there must exist a good solution to this. Second: class B(object): def method1(self): do_something() do_more() In this case, I want MixInClass2 to be able to inject itself between do_something() and do_more(), i.e.: do_something() - MixIn.method1 - do_more(). I understand that probably this would require modifying class B - that's ok, just looking for simplest ways to achieve this. These are pretty trivial problems and I actually solved them, but my solution is tainted. Fisrt one by using self._old_method1 = self.method1(); self.method1() = self._new_method1(); and writing _new_method1() that calls to _old_method1(). Problem: multiple MixIns will all rename to _old_method1 and it is inelegant. Second MixIn one was solved by creating a dummy method call_mixin(self): pass and injecting it between calls and defining self.call_mixin(). Again inelegant and will break on multiple MixIns.. Any ideas?

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• Is it possible for two VS2008 C# class library projects to share a single namespace?

  - by jeah

  I am trying to share a common namespace between two projects in a single solution. The projects are "Blueprint" and "Repositories". Blueprint contains Interfaces for the entire application and serves as a reference for the application structure. In the Blueprint project, I have an interface with the following declaration: namespace Application.Repositories{ public interface IRepository{ IEntity Get(Guid id); } } In the Repositories project I have a class the following class: namespace Application.Repositories{ public class STDRepository: IRepository { STD Get(Guid id){ return new SkankyExGirlfriendDataContext() .FirstOrDefault<STD>(x=>x.DiseaseId == id); } } } However, this does not work. The Repositories project has a reference to the Blueprint project. I receive a VS error: "The type or namespace name 'IRepository' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) - Normally, this is easy to fix but adding a using statement doesn't make sense since they have the same namespace. I tried it anyway and it didn't work. The reference has been added, and without the line of code referencing that interface, both projects compile successfully. I am lost here. I have searched all over and have found nothing, so I am assuming that there is something fundamentally wrong with what I'm doing ... but I don't know what it is. So, I would appreciate some explanation or guidance as to how to fix this problem. I hope you guys can help. Note: The reason I want to do it this way and keep the interfaces under the same namespace is because I want a solid project to keep all the interfaces in, in order to have a reference for the full architecture of the application. I have considered work arounds, such as putting all of the interfaces in the Blueprint.Application namespace instead of the application namespace. However, that would require me to write the using statement on virtually every page in the application...and my fingers get tired. Thanks again guys...

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• maximum memory which malloc can allocate!

  - by Vikas

  I was trying to figure out how much memory I can malloc to maximum extent on my machine (1 Gb RAM 160 Gb HD Windows platform). I read that maximum memory malloc can allocate is limited to physical memory.(on heap) Also when a program exceeds consumption of memory to a certain level, the computer stops working because other applications do not get enough memory that they require. So to confirm,I wrote a small program in C, int main(){ int *p; while(1){ p=(int *)malloc(4); if(!p)break; } } Hoping that there would be a time when memory allocation will fail and loop will be breaked. But my computer hanged as It was an infinite loop. I waited for about an hour and finally I had to forcely shut down my computer. Some questions: Does malloc allocate memory from HD also? What was the reason for above behaviour? Why didn't loop breaked at any point of time.? Why wasn't there any allocation failure?

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• How do I DRY up business logic between sever-side Ruby and client-side Javascript?

  - by James A. Rosen

  I have a Widget model with inheritance (I'm using Single-Table Inheritance, but it's equally valid for Class-per-Table). Some of the subclasses require a particular field; others do not. class Widget < ActiveRecord ALL_WIDGET_TYPES = [FooWidget, BarWidget, BazWidget] end class FooWidget < Widget validates_presence_of :color end class BarWidget < Widget # no color field end class BazWidget < Widget validates_presence_of :color end I'm building a "New Widget" form (app/views/widgets/new.html.erb) and would like to dynamically show/hide the color field based on a <select> for widget_type. <% form_for @widget do |f| %> <%= f.select :type, Widget::ALL_WIDGET_TYPES %> <div class='hiddenUnlessWidgetTypeIsFooOrBaz'> <%= f.label :color %> <%= f.text_field :color %> </div> <% end %> I can easily write some jQuery to watch for onChange events on widget_type, but that would mean putting some sort of WidgetTypesThatRequireColor constant in my Javascript. Easy enough to do manually, but it is likely to get disconnected from the Widget model classes. I would prefer not to output Javascript directly in my view, though I have considered using content_for(:js) and have a yield :js in my template footer. Any better ideas?

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• Adjust width of td to make make row widths even

  - by user1729886

  I am trying to produce a table with a different number of cells in each row. The first row is a header row (every other row contains cells). This header is the width of the table. The second row has 2 cells in it... the third has 1 cell... the fourth has 4 cells... the fifth and final row has 3 cells. I want the table set up so that the rows span the full width of the table. If the table is 1000px... The header would be 1000px wide the cells in the 2nd row would be 500px EACH the cell in the 3rd row would be 1000px the cells in the 4th row would be 250px EACH and the cells in the 5th row would be 333px, 334px, and 333px each (left-to-right) I figured out I could use colspan for the first 4 rows, but the 5th (with 3 cells) would require a non-integer value. The cells in the 5th row won't expand beyond their column without colspan that I can tell... trying the width:## CSS code inside a div tag for each cell inside the td tag creating a class or classes that define the cell widths id-ing each cell, with or without a div tag, and defining widths individually and adjuting the table-layout: option After several days, I'm now at my rope's end. The only thing I can come up with is deliberately tripling the number of cells in each row so that colspan would be all integer values. That sounds inconvenient and unreasonably difficult to format the table the way I'd like. It's a table of Batman movies for a website -- a practice website I'm building, in order to learn HTML/CSS. I've been working on-and-off with HTML for several months, and CSS for a few weeks. PS: It is not being used for layout, I am simply trying to adjust the layout of the table itself.

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• MongoDB C# - Hide property from serializer

  - by ehftwelve

  This is what my user model looks like: namespace Api.Models { public class User { [BsonId(IdGenerator = typeof(StringObjectIdGenerator))] [BsonRequired] public string Id { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Username is required.")] [StringLength(20, MinimumLength=3, ErrorMessage="Username must be between 3 and 20 characters.")] [BsonRequired] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Email is required.")] [EmailAddress(ErrorMessage="Valid email required.")] [BsonRequired] public string Email { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is required.")] [StringLength(50, MinimumLength=8, ErrorMessage="Password must be between 8 and 50 characters.")] [BsonRequired] public string Password { get; set; } [BsonRequired] public string Salt { get; set; } } } I want to write, and require, all of the properties into the MongoDB Database. What I don't want to do, is expose the Password and Salt properties when I send this through the request. Is there any sort of data attribute that I can set that will write it, but not expose it when displayed to any API user?

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• Have to click twice to submit the form

  - by phil

  Intended function: require user to select an option from the drop down menu. After user clicks submit button, validate if an option is selected. Display error message and not submit the form if user fails to select. Otherwise submit the form. Problem: After select an option, button has to be clicked twice to submit the form. I have no clue at all.. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <style> p{display: none;} </style> </head> <script> $(function(){ // language as an array var language=['Arabic','Cantonese','Chinese','English','French','German','Greek','Hebrew','Hindi','Italian','Japanese','Korean','Malay','Polish','Portuguese','Russian','Spanish','Thai','Turkish','Urdu','Vietnamese']; $('#muyu').append('<option value=0>Select</option>'); //loop through array for (i in language) //js unique statement for iterate array { $('#muyu').append($('<option>',{id:'muyu'+i,val:language[i], html:language[i]})) } $('form').submit(function(){ alert('I am being called!'); // check if submit event is triggered if ( $('#muyu').val()==0 ) {$('#muyu_error').show(); } else {$('#muyu_error').hide(); return true;} return false; }) }) </script> <form method="post" action="match.php"> I am fluent in <select name='muyu' id='muyu'></select> <p id='muyu_error'>Tell us your native language</p> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

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• Are there good reasons not to use an ORM?

  - by hangy

  During my apprenticeship, I have used NHibernate for some smaller projects which I mostly coded and designed on my own. Now, before starting some bigger project, the discussion arose how to design data access and whether or not to use an ORM layer. As I am still in my apprenticeship and still consider myself a beginner in enterprise programming, I did not really try to push in my opinion, which is that using an object relational mapper to the database can ease development quite a lot. The other coders in the development team are much more experienced than me, so I think I will just do what they say. :-) However, I do not completely understand two of the main reasons for not using NHibernate or a similar project: One can just build one’s own data access objects with SQL queries and copy those queries out of Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio. Debugging an ORM can be hard. So, of course I could just build my data access layer with a lot of SELECTs etc, but here I miss the advantage of automatic joins, lazy-loading proxy classes and a lower maintenance effort if a table gets a new column or a column gets renamed. (Updating numerous SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE queries vs. updating the mapping config and possibly refactoring the business classes and DTOs.) Also, using NHibernate you can run into unforeseen problems if you do not know the framework very well. That could be, for example, trusting the Table.hbm.xml where you set a string’s length to be automatically validated. However, I can also imagine similar bugs in a “simple” SqlConnection query based data access layer. Finally, are those arguments mentioned above really a good reason not to utilise an ORM for a non-trivial database based enterprise application? Are there probably other arguments they/I might have missed? (I should probably add that I think this is like the first “big” .NET/C# based application which will require teamwork. Good practices, which are seen as pretty normal on Stack Overflow, such as unit testing or continuous integration, are non-existing here up to now.)

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• Unity: Replace registered type with another type at runtime

  - by gehho

  We have a scenario where the user can choose between different hardware at runtime. In the background we have several different hardware classes which all implement an IHardware interface. We would like to use Unity to register the currently selected hardware instance for this interface. However, when the user selects another hardware, this would require us to replace this registration at runtime. The following example might make this clearer: public interface IHardware { // some methods... } public class HardwareA : IHardware { // ... } public class HardwareB : IHardware { // ... } container.RegisterInstance<IHardware>(new HardwareA()); // user selects new hardware somewhere in the configuration... // the following is invalid code, but can it be achieved another way? container.ReplaceInstance<IHardware>(new HardwareB()); Can this behavior be achieved somehow? BTW: I am completely aware that instances which have already been resolved from the container will not be replaced with the new instances, of course. We would take care of that ourselves by forcing them to resolve the instance once again.

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• Database schema for Product Properties

  - by Chemosh

  As so many people I'm looking for a Products /Product Properties database schema. I'm using Ruby on Rails and (Thinking) Sphinx for faceted searches. Requirements: Adding new product types and their options should not require a change to the database schema Support faceted searches using Sphinx. Solutions I've come across: (See Bill Karwin's answer) Option 1: Single Table Inheritance Not an option really. The table would contain way to many columns. Option 2: Class Table Inheritance Ruby on Rails caches the database schema on start-up which means a restart whenever a new type of product is introduced. If you have a size able product catalog this could mean hundreds of tables. Option 3: Serialized LOB Kills being able to do faceted searches without heavy application logic. Option 4: Entity-Attribute-Value For testing purposes, EAV worked fine. However it could quickly become a mess and a maintenance hell as you add more and more options (e.g. when an option increase the prices or delivery time). What option should I go with? What other solutions are out there? Is there a silver bullet (ha) I overlooked?

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• Mimic Coldfusion's debug output in PHP?

  - by TekiusFanatikus

  I'm trying to mimic Coldfusion's debug output in PHP. Here's an example of what it looks like (ie. Execution Time section): I've turned to XDebug. Ideally, the exception stack error output would be what I'd be looking for. However, it only shows up when an exception occurs. I also tried something like (in our CMS-ish app) this (original question here): $content.= "<?php xdebug_start_trace('e:/xdebug/trace');?>"; $content.= "<?php require('".$page['file_'.LG]."'); ?>"; $content.= "<?php xdebug_stop_trace();?>"; ... $content.= "<?php echo readfile('e:/xdebug/trace.xt');?>"; However, I get an insane, browser crashing HTML table dropped at the bottom of page. Not very efficient. My php.ini config: xdebug.trace_format = 2 xdebug.collect_vars = 1 xdebug.collect_params = 4 xdebug.dump_globals = 1 xdebug.dump.SERVER = 'REQUEST_URI' xdebug.show_local_vars = 1 xdebug.show_mem_delta = 1 I'm just wondering if someone has already done something similar?

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• Trouble mocking on cucumber + rails

  - by Lucas d. Prim

  I'm having a lot of trouble trying to define a mock for a rails models on cucumber. It seems like the method is creating a bunch of message expectations and i keep getting errors like these: Given I have only a product named "Sushi de Pato" # features/step_definitions/product_ steps.rb:19 unexpected invocation: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.__mock_proxy() unsatisfied expectations: - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.errors(any_pa rameters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.id(any_parame ters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.to_param(any_ parameters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.new_record?(a ny_parameters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.destroyed?(an y_parameters) satisfied expectations: - allowed any number of times, not yet invoked: #<Mock:errors>.count(any_parameters) (Mocha::ExpectationError) I haven't yet implemented the ProductCategory class and I just want it to return an ID and a 'name' attribute. This is my step definition: Given /^I have only a product named "([^\"]*)"$/ do |name| @product = Product.create!(:name => name, :description => 'Foo', :price => 100, :points => 100, :category => mock_model(ProductCategory)) end And this is my env.rb file: $: << File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__),"..") require 'spec\spec_helper I am using RSPec 1.3.0, cucumber 0.6.3 and webrat 0.7.0 I've tried to use stubs as well but got some other errors instead...

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• Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

  - by George Crawford

  Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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• Is there an x86 or x64 emulator that passes system calls back to the Windows API?

  - by Chris Lomont

  I want to emulate windows programs (not VM, true emulation) under windows. This would require the emulator to make calls back to the system APIs, but the program itself would be emulated. The reason is I want to change the opcode formats for research purposes. The process should be: Take existing program. Disassemble and then reassemble with my new opcode formats. Put the new format into the PE with a stub calling the emulator and passing the new code. The emulator would have to pass system calls from the emulated side back to windows API calls. I can do all these steps, except I need an open source emulator with the ability to pass the API calls out. I could try Bochs or QEMU, but I think I'd have to add in the system calls, which I could do if needed. I wonder if there is already something closer to what I need. I know I would have to change the instruction decoding in the emulator to match my new formats, but that is a given. Thanks.

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