Search Results

Search found 17097 results on 684 pages for 'entry level'.

Page 220/684 | < Previous Page | 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227  | Next Page >

  • SQL Server: Is it possible to prevent SQL Agent from failing a step on error?

    - by Kenneth
    I have a stored procedure that runs custom backups for around 60 SQL servers (mixes 2000 through 2008R2). Occasionally, due to issues outside of my control (backup device inaccessible, network error, etc.) an individual backup on one or two databases will fail. This causes this entire step to fail, which means any subsequent backup commands are not executed and half of the databases on a given server may not be backed up. On the 2005+ boxes I am using TRY/CATCH blocks to manage these problems and continue backing up the remaining databases. On a 2000 server however, for example, I have no way to prevent this error from failing the entire step: Msg 3201, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot open backup device 'db-diff(\PATH\DB-DIFF-03-16-2010.DIF)'. Operating system error 5(Access is denied.). Msg 3013, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 BACKUP DATABASE is terminating abnormally. I am simply asking if anything like TRY/CATCH is possible in SQL 2000? I realize there are no built in methods for this, so I guess I am looking for some creativity. Even when wrapping each backup (or any failing statement) via sp_executesql the job fails instantly. Example: DECLARE @x INT, @iReturn INT PRINT 'Executing statement that will fail with 208.' EXEC @iReturn = Sp_executesql N'SELECT * from TABLETHATDOESNTEXIST;' PRINT Cast(@iReturn AS NVARCHAR) --In SSMS this return code prints. Executed as a job it fails and aborts before this statement.

    Read the article

  • Ruby page loading very very slowly - how should I speed it up?

    - by Elliot
    Hey guys, I'm going to try and describe the code in my view, without actually posting all the garbage: It has a standard shell (header, footer etc. in the layout) this is also where the sub navigation exists which is based on a loop (to find the amount of options) - on this page, we have 6 subnav links. Then in the index view, we have a 3rd level nav - with 3 links that use javascript to link/hide divs on the page. This means each of those original 6 options, all have their own 3'rd level nav, with each of their own 3 div pages. These three pages/divs have the input form for creating a record in rails, and then the other 2 pages show the records in different assortments. ALL of this code lives on one page (aside from the shell). The original sub nav uses a javascript tab solution, to browse through all of it... (this means its about 6 divs, which all contain 4 divs of function - so about 24 heavy divs). Loading it seems to take forever, although after loaded its extremely fast (obviously). My big question, is how should I attack this? I don't know ajax - although I imagine it'd be a good solution for loading the tabs when clicked. Thanks! Elliot

    Read the article

  • Algorithm to determine which points should be visible on a map based on zoom

    - by lgratian
    Hi! I'm making a Google Maps-like application for a course at my Uni (not something complex, it should load the map of a city for example, not the whole world). The map can have many layers, including markers (restaurants, hospitals, etc.) The problem is that when you have many points and you zoom out the map it doesn't look right. At this zoom level only some points need to be visible (and at the maximum map size, all points). The question is: how can you determine which points should be visible for a specified zoom level? Because I have implemented a PR Quadtree to speed up rendering I thought that I could define some "high-priority" markers (that are always visible, defined in the map editor) and put them in a queue. At each step a marker is removed from the queue and all it's neighbors that are at least D units away (D depends on the zoom levels) are chosen and inserted in the queue, and so on. Is there any better way than the algorithm I thought of? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Struggling with a data modeling problem

    - by rpat
    I am struggling with a data model (I use MySQL for the database). I am uneasy about what I have come up with. If someone could suggest a better approach, or point me to some reference matter I would appreciate it. The data would have organizations of many types. I am trying to do a 3 level classification (Class, Category, Type). Say if I have 'Italian Restaurant', it will have the following classification Food Services Restaurants Italian However, an organization may belong to multiple groups. A restaurant may also serve Chinese and Italian. So it will fit into 2 classifications Food Services Restaurants Italian Food Services Restaurants Chinese The classification reference tables would be like the following: ORG_CLASS (RowId, ClassCode, ClassName) 1, FOOD, Food Services ORG_CATEGORY(RowId, ClassCode, CategoryCode, CategoryName) 1, FOOD, REST, Restaurants ORG_TYPE (RowId, ClassCode, CategoryCode, TypeCode, TypeName) 100, FOOD, REST, ITAL, Italian 101, FOOD, REST, CHIN, Chinese 102, FOOD, REST, SPAN, Spanish 103, FOOD, REST, MEXI, Mexican 104, FOOD, REST, FREN, French 105, FOOD, REST, MIDL, Middle Eastern The actual data tables would be like the following: I will allow an organization a max of 3 classifications. I will have 3 GroupIds each pointing to a row in ORG_TYPE. So I have my ORGANIZATION_TABLE ORGANIZATION_TABLE (OrgGroupId1, OrgGroupId2, OrgGroupId3, OrgName, OrgAddres) 100,103,NULL,MyRestaurant1, MyAddr1 100,102,NULL,MyRestaurant2, MyAddr2 100,104,105, MyRestaurant3, MyAddr3 During data add, a dialog could let the user choose the clssa, category, type and the corresponding GroupId could be populated with the rowid from the ORG_TYPE table. During Search, If all three classification are chosen, It will be more specific. For example, if Food Services Restaurants Italian is the criteria, the where clause would be 'where OrgGroupId1 = 100' If only 2 levels are chosen Food Services Restaurants I have to do 'where OrgGroupId1 in (100,101,102,103,104,105, .....)' - There could be a hundred in that list I will disallow class level search. That is I will force selection of a class and category The Ids would be integers. I am trying to see performance issues and other issues. Overall, would this work? or I need to throw this out and start from scratch.

    Read the article

  • Is there any way to combine transparency and "ajax usability" with HTML templates

    - by Sam
    I'm using HTML_Template_Flexy in PHP but the question should apply to any language or template library. I am outputting a list of relatively complex objects. In the beginning I just iterated over a list of the objects and called a toHtml method on them. When I was about to have my layout designer look over the template I noticed that it was too opaque and that he would have ended up looking through and/or editing many additional php source files to see what really gets generated by the toHtml method. So I extracted most of the HTML strings in the php classes up to the template which made for one clear file where you can see the whole page structure at once. However this causes problems when you want to add an object to the list using javascript. Then I have to keep the old toHtml method and maintain both the main template and the html strings at the same time, so I can output just the HTML for a new object that should be added to the page. So I'm back to the idea of using smaller templates for the objects that make up the page, but I was wondering if there was some easy way of having my cake and eating it too by having one template that shows the whole page but also the mini-templates for smaller objects on the page. Edit: Yes, updating the page is not a problem at all. My concern is with having both maintainability and transparency of the template files. If I have one single template for the whole page, then I must maintain mini-templates of the objects that are shown on the page. If I just have the mini-templates and include them from the higher-level template it becomes more difficult to look at the top-level html and imagine what the end result will look like.

    Read the article

  • Accessing Static Methods on a Generic class in c#

    - by mrlane
    Hello, I have the following situation in code, which I suspect may be a bit dodgey: I have a class: abstract class DataAccessBase<T> : IDataAccess where T : AnotherAbstractClass This class DataAccessBase also has a static factory method which creates instances of derived classes of itself using an enum value in a which statement to decide which derived type to create: static IDataAccess CreateInstance(TypeToCreateEnum) Now, the types derived from DataAccessBase<T> are themselves NOT generic, they specify a type for T: class PoLcZoneData : DataAccessBase<PoLcZone> // PoLcZone is derived from AnotherAbstractClass So far I am not sure if this is pushing the limits of good use of generics, but what I am really concerned about is how to access the static CreateInstance() method in the first place: The way I am doing this at the moment is to simply pass any type T where T : AnotherAbstractClass. In particular I am passing AnotherAbstractClass itself. This allows compilation just fine, but it does seem to me that passing any type to a generic class just to get at the statics is a bit dodgey. I have actually simplified the situation somewhat as DataAccessBase<T> is the lower level in the inheritance chain, but the static factory methods exists in a middle tier with classes such as PoLcZoneData being the most derived on the only level that is not generic. What are peoples thoughts on this arrangement?

    Read the article

  • are there code signing certificates cheaper than US $99 per year? [closed]

    - by gerryLowry
    ksoftware discounts Commodo code signing certificates to US $99 per year. in the past, I've seen Commodo code signing certificates for US $80. I'm excluding CAcert which AFAIK are FREE but are not covered by browsers like IE AFAIK. QUESTION: What is the best price per year for a code signing certificate? Thank you ~~ gerry (lowry) Edit: **THIS SHOULD NOT HAVE BEEN CLOSED** from the FAQ: http://stackoverflow.com/faq ---------------------------- What kind of questions can I ask here? Programming questions, of course! As long as your question is: * detailed and specific <====== YES! * written clearly and simply <====== YES! * of interest to other programmers <====== YES! I've been programming for over 40 years. http://gerrylowryprogrammer.com/ I've taught computer programming at the community college level. I'm a Star level contributer to forums.asp.net. http://forums.asp.net/members/gerrylowry.aspx imo, I've a very good idea what is of interest to other programmers. MORE INFORMATION Ensuring the integrity of code and executables that one distributes is just as much about programming as is knowing how to flip bits in assembler, use delegates in c#, and use the BDD context/specification still of "test first testing".

    Read the article

  • Testing fault tolerant code

    - by Robert
    I’m currently working on a server application were we have agreed to try and maintain a certain level of service. The level of service we want to guaranty is: if a request is accepted by the server and the server sends on an acknowledgement to the client we want to guaranty that the request will happen, even if the server crashes. As requests can be long running and the acknowledgement time needs be short we implement this by persisting the request, then sending an acknowledgement to the client, then carrying out the various actions to fulfill the request. As actions are carried out they too are persisted, so the server knows the state of a request on start up, and there’s also various reconciliation mechanisms with external systems to check the accuracy of our logs. This all seems to work fairly well, but we have difficult saying this with any conviction as we find it very difficult to test our fault tolerant code. So far we’ve come up with two strategies but neither is entirely satisfactory: Have an external process watch the server code and then try and kill it off at what the external process thinks is an appropriate point in the test Add code the application that will cause it to crash a certain know critical points My problem with the first strategy is the external process cannot know the exact state of the application, so we cannot be sure we’re hitting the most problematic points in the code. My problem with the second strategy, although it gives more control over were the fault takes, is I do not like have code to inject faults within my application, even with optional compilation etc. I fear it would be too easy to over look a fault injection point and have it slip into a production environment.

    Read the article

  • Mathematics for Computer Science Students

    - by Ender
    To cut a long story short, I am a CS student that has received no formal Post-16 Maths education for years. Right now even my Algebra is extremely rusty and I have a couple of months to shape up my skills. I've got a couple of video lectures in my bookmarks, consisting of: Pre-Calculus Algebra Calculus Probability Introduction to Statistics Differential Equations Linear Algebra My aim as of today is to be able to read the CLRS book Introduction to Algorithms and be able to follow the Mathematical notation in that, as well as being able to confidently read and back-up any arguments written in Mathematical notation. Aside from these video lectures, can anyone recommend any good books to help teach someone wishing to go from a low-foundation level to a more advanced level of Mathematics? Just as a note, I've taken a first-year module in Analytical Modelling, so I understand some of the basic concepts of Discrete Mathematics. EDIT: Just a note to those that are looking to learn Linear Algebra using the Video Lectures I have posted up. Peteris Krumins' Blog contains a run-through of these lecture notes as well as his own commentary and lecture notes, an invaluable resource for those looking to follow the lectures too.

    Read the article

  • ASP.net dynamic controls issue when trying to reverse them

    - by Mattias Sandsäter
    I add some DropDownList dynamically to my form. It seems to work as it should when I use ...Controls.Add(dropdownlist), but in an attempt to turn them around and show them in reversed order I have tried to use ....Controls.AddAt(0, dropdownlist) However, this causes some strange behaviour. Before we dig in to the code, is there something I should know about dynamic adding, and more specific the AddAt()-method that usually causes trouble? Short description about what I do I start with a DropDownList (level1), when I choose something there, a new list should be added (level2) and so on. You can say you go your way down in a menu structure. Whenever you want you can change your choice at whatever level you want (of course not on later levels that you dont see yet). So lets say you are down to level 4 (You then have four boxes) and change your choice at level1, when the page reloads you are back to two boxes. http://forums.asp.net/p/885886/927411.aspx It seems that my problem was discussed here, but I didn´t see any solution about how I can acheive my intended behaviour.

    Read the article

  • Spring and hibernate.cfg.xml

    - by Steve Kuo
    How do I get Spring to load Hibernate's properties from hibernate.cfg.xml? We're using Spring and JPA (with Hibernate as the implementation). Spring's applicationContext.xml specifies the JPA dialect and Hibernate properties: <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="jpaDialect"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaDialect" /> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLInnoDBDialect</prop> </props> </property> </bean> In this configuration, Spring is reading all the Hibernate properties via applicationContext.xml . When I create a hibernate.cfg.xml (located at the root of my classpath, the same level as META-INF), Hibernate doesn't read it at all (it's completely ignored). What I'm trying to do is configure Hibernate second level cache by inserting the cache properties in hibernate.cfg.xml: <cache usage="transactional|read-write|nonstrict-read-write|read-only" region="RegionName" include="all|non-lazy" />

    Read the article

  • Updating extra attributes in a has_many, :through relationship using Rails

    - by Robbie
    I've managed to set up a many-to-many relationship between the following models Characters Skills PlayerSkills PlayerSkills, right now, has an attribute that Skills don't normally have: a level. The models look something like this (edited for conciseness): class PlayerSkill < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :character belongs_to :skill end class Skill < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :player_skills has_many :characters, :through => :player_skills attr_accessible :name, :description end class Character < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_many :player_skills has_many :skills, :through => :player_skills end So nothing too fancy in the models... The controller is also very basic at this point... it's pretty much a stock update action. The form I'm looking to modify is characters#edit. Right now it renders a series of checkboxes which add/remove skills from the characters. This is great, but the whole point of using has_many :through was to track a "level" as well. Here is what I have so far: - form_for @character do |f| = f.error_messages %p = f.label :name %br = f.text_field :name %p = f.label :race %br = f.text_field :race %p = f.label :char_class %br = f.text_field :char_class %p - @skills.each do |skill| = check_box_tag "character[skill_ids][]", skill.id, @character.skills.include?(skill) =h skill.name %br %p = f.submit After it renders "skill.name", I need it to print a text_field that updates player_skill. The problem, of course, is that player_skill may or may not exist! (Depending on if the box was already ticked when you loaded the form!) From everything I've read, has_many :through is great because it allows you to treat the relationship itself as an entity... but I'm completely at a loss as to how to handle the entity in this form. As always, thanks in advance for any and all help you can give me!

    Read the article

  • sp_addlinkedserver on sql server 2005 giving problem

    - by Jit
    I am trying to create a link server of a remote database(both the servers are SQL serve2005). I am able to connect that remote server from my SQL Server management studio. I used the following syntax to create it. EXEC sp_addlinkedserver @server = N'LINKSQL2005', @srvproduct = N'', @provider = N'SQLNCLI', @provstr = N'SERVER=IP Address of remote server ;User ID=XXXXXX;Password=***' I have provided the IP addressntax. and user name and password in the above syntax. The link server is getting created. But when I try to execute a query on it I get the error below. Query Used. select * from LINKSQL2005.<DBName>.dbo.<TableName> OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "LINKSQL2005" returned message "Communication link failure". Msg 10054, Level 16, State 1, Line 0 TCP Provider: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host. Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 0 Login failed for user 'sa'. OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "LINKSQL2005" returned message "Invalid connection string attribute". Pls help me, where am I making mistake.

    Read the article

  • What are some programming techniques for converting SD images to HD images

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm taking programming class and instructor loves to work with images so most of our assignments involve manipulating raw RGB image data. One of our assignments is to implement a standard image converter that converts SD images to HD images and vice versa. I always take advantage of these types of assignments to go a little beyond what we were asked to do, so I added a basic anti-aliasing process that uses the average pixel color of the 3x3 surrounding pixels to improve the converted image. While it helps a bit, the resulting image still doesn't look good, which is ok because it's not expected to for the assignment. I've learned that converting an SD to HD images has shown to be much harder than down sampling to SD from HD just because SD to HD effectively involves increasing resolution when it is not there. Obviously, it is hard to create pixels from nothing, but I'd like enhance my anti-aliasing to something that provides better results when upscaling an image. Most of the techniques I find and read on the internet are far beyond my level of image processing and programming. Can anybody suggest any better methods or processes to create good HD content from SD content that may be within my programming skill level? I know that's a difficult thing to gauge since you don't know me, but perhaps knowing that I can write c++ code to read in raw RGB data and upscale/downscale it with simple average-anti-aliasing will give you an idea. Thanks in advance for all your help!

    Read the article

  • Using Zend Framework and Doctrine with independend modular structures

    - by stefax
    I've seen a lot of articles about integrating ZF and Doctrine. There is also a proposal for ZF here but they have always two possible structures. Either they put all models into one top level model directory or they put it into a module related model directory. application |-- Bootstrap.php |-- configs |-- controllers |-- models - EITHER HERE |-- modules | -- examplemodule | |-- controllers | |-- models - OR HERE | |-- views |-- views For our projects I see problems for either of the two options: 1. One directory: application/models - in a complex system after a short time there will be hundreds of files, over all when you have the table classes two (e.g. User.php and UserTable.php). 2. Module based model directories: application/modules/examplemodule/models - in many cases we use models in multiple modules at the same time. So the "User" is required e.g. in the modules "game", "administration", ... Is there a way to use some kind of sub directories under the top level directory "models" to get some grouping. It should be completely independent of the module structure. application |-- Bootstrap.php ... |-- models | -- user | |-- User.php | |-- Friend.php | |-- other user related models | -- game | |-- Game.php | |-- Score.php | |-- ... ... Any solution should support autoloading and the class generation from yaml files. Any ideas, links or solutions? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Approach for replacing forms authentication in .NET application

    - by Ash Machine
    My question is about an approach, and I am looking for tips or links to help me develop a solution. I have an .NET 4.0 web forms application that works with Forms authentication using the aspnetdb SQL database of users and passwords. A new feature for the application is a new authentication mechanism using single sign on to allow access for thousands of new users. Essentially, when the user logs in through the new single-sign-on method, I will be able to identify them as legitimate users with a role. So I will have something like HttpContext.Current.Session["email_of_authenticated_user"] (their identity) and HttpContext.Current.Session["role_of_authenticated_user"] (their role). Importantly, I don't necessarily want to maintain these users and roles redundantly in the aspnetdb database which will be retired, but I do want to use the session objects above to allow the user to pass through the application as if they were in passing through with forms authentication. I don't think CustomRoleProviders or CustomMemberProviders are helpful since they do not allow for creating session-level users. So my question is how to use the session level user and role that I do have to "mimic" all the forms authentication goodness like enforcing: [System.Security.Permissions.PrincipalPermission(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Role = "Student")] or <authorization> <allow users="wilma, barney" /> </authorization> Thanks for any pointers.

    Read the article

  • How to rename an existing Grails application

    - by Johan Pelgrim
    Hi there, Does anybody know how to (easily) "rename" an existing grails application? I'm running into this because my PaaS provider does not allow me to delete a subscription... So I want to deploy my application under a different name. Of course, I can do this manually, but I think it might be a useful 'top-level' script (i.e. "grails rename-app newappname") Manual hints: When I do a "grails create-app myappname" I can see the myappname exists in the following files (and filenames)... Of course this is done by the create-app script, which replaces @...@ tokens in the template. I guess once they are replaced, it's not trivial to do a rename. ./.project: <name>myappname</name> ./application.properties:app.name=myappname ./build.xml:<project xmlns:ivy="antlib:org.apache.ivy.ant" name="myappname" default="test"> ./ivy.xml: <info organisation="org.example" module="myappname"/> ./myappname-test.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="/myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry containerPath="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.JRE_CONTAINER" javaProject="myappname" path="1" type="4"/> "/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.VM_ARGUMENTS" value="-Dbase.dir="${project_loc:myappname}" -Dserver.port=8080 -Dgrails.env=development"/> ./myappname.tmproj: <string>myappname.launch</string> And of course... the top-level directory name is "myappname" Any hints, or information about ongoing initiatives in this area are welcome Greetz, Johan

    Read the article

  • How to share data between SSRS Security and Data Processing extension?

    - by user2904681
    I've spent a lot of time trying to solve the issue pointed in title and have no found a solution yet. I use MS SSRS 2012 with custom Security (based on Form Authentication and ClaimsPrincipal) and Data Processing extensions. In Data extension level I need to apply filter programmatically based on one of the claim which I have access in Security extension level only. Here is the problem: I do know how to pass the claim from Security to Data Processing extension code... What I've tried: IAuthenticationExtension.LogonUser(string userName, string password, string authority) { ... ClaimsPrincipal claimsPrincipal = CreateClaimsPrincipal(...); Thread.CurrentPrincipal = claimsPrincipal; HttpContext.Current.User = claimsPrincipal; ... }; But it doesn't work. It seems SSRS overrides it within either GenericPrincipal or FormsIdentity internally. The possible workaround I'm thinking about (but haven't checked it yet): 1. Create HttpModule which will create HttpContext with all required information (minus: will be invoke getting claims each time - huge operation) 2. Write to custom SQL table to store logged users information which is required for Data extension and then read it 3. try somehow to append to cookies due to LogOn and then read each time on IAuthenticationExtension.GetUserInfo and fill HttpContext None of them seems to be a good solution. I would be grateful for any help/advise/comments.

    Read the article

  • Crashing when pushing a XIB based view controller onto navigation controller stack

    - by Michael
    I was attempting to clean up the implementation for a sub-panel on a navigation controller stack, so that the navigation bar could be customized in the XIB instead of doing it manually in the viewDidLoad method. The original (working) setup had the XIB set up with the "File's Owner" class set to the view controller class, and then the view at the top level. This works fine. In the "Interface Builder User Guide", p. 71, it describes the recommended way to build the XIBs for sub-panels ("additional navigation levels"). This approach leaves the "File's Owner" class as NSObject, but adds a UIViewController at the top level, and nests the view (and navigation item) underneath it. The UIViewController's view automatically gets connected to the contained view. When I try to push the controller init'd with this new XIB, the app crashes because of a missing view: SettingsViewController *controller = [[SettingsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SettingsView" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; 2010-04-23 11:17:37.135 xxxx[1173:207] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '-[UIViewController _loadViewFromNibNamed:bundle:] loaded the "SettingsTestView" nib but the view outlet was not set.' I've double checked everything, and tried building a clean XIB from scratch, but get the same result. I looked through a number of the code sample projects, and NONE of them use the documented/recommended approach--they all use the File's Owner class and manually set up the navigation bar in viewDidLoad like I originally had it. Is it possible to get it working the "recommended" way? Thanks! Michael

    Read the article

  • Business entity: private instance VS single instance

    - by taoufik
    Suppose my WinForms application has a business entity Order, the entity is used in multiple views, each view handles a different domain or use-case in the application. As an example, one managing orders, the other one digging into one order and displaying additional data. If I'd use nHibernate (or any other ORM) and use one session/dataContext per view (or per db action), I'd end up getting two different instances for the same Order (let's say orderId = 1). Although functionally the same entity, they are technically two different instances. Yes, I could implement Equals/GetHashcode to make them "seem" the same. Why would you go for a single instance per entity vs private instances per view or per use-case? Having single instances has the advantage of sharing INotifyPropertyChanged events, and sharing additional (non-persistent) data. Having a private instance in each view would give you the flexibility of the undo functionality on a view level. In the example above, I'd allow the user to change order details, and give them the flexibility to not save the change. Here, synchronisation between the view/use-case happens on a data persistence level. What would your argument be?

    Read the article

  • Home link on the menu does not highlight

    - by strangeloops
    My menu shows the active links when clicked on it except for the home link (http://www.obsia.com). It is never highlighted. I tried playing around but I can't seem to figure it out. This is the jquery code I used to highlight the links? $(function(){ var path = location.pathname.substring(1); if ( path ) $('.nav a[href$="' + path + '"]').attr('class', 'active'); }); I also have another menu on the products pages where I would like to highlight the parents of the siblings and the our products on the global menu. This is the jquery code for the products menu: $(function() { var pathname = location.pathname; var highlight; //highlight home if(pathname == "") highlight = $('ul#accordion > li:first > a:first'); else { var path = pathname.substring(1); if (path) highlight = $('ul#accordion a[href$="' + path + '"]'); }highlight.attr('class', 'active'); // hide 2nd, 3rd, ... level menus $('ul#accordion ul').hide(); // show child menu on click $('ul#accordion > li > a.product_menu').click(function() { //minor improvement $(this).siblings('ul').toggle("slow"); return false; }); //open to current group (highlighted link) by show all parent ul's $('a.active').parents('ul').show(); $('a.active').parents('h2 a').css({'color':'#ff8833'}); //if you only have a 2 level deep navigation you could //use this instead //$('a.selected').parents("ul").eq(0).show(); }); }); I tried adding this: $(this).parents('ul').addClass('active'); but that does not seem to do the trick? Does anybody have a simple way of accomplishing it? Any help would be appreciated from you guys. Kind Regards, G

    Read the article

  • jquery Append Issue

    - by 3gwebtrain
    I am getting the append issue with this code. In my xml i go 2 no. of "listgroup" and jquery print propelry. but within the earch "listgroup", first group contain 6 points and second group contain 6 point. these 2 section has to print separately to 'ul' element. But my problem is first time while it print itself both 12points in first ul i am getting and it print 6 pint to second ul propelry.. what i want is, first ul has to have 6 points and second has6 point what it has in the xml tree... $(function(){ $.get('career-utility.xml',function(myData){ $(myData).find('listgroup').each(function(index){ var listGroup = $(this); var listGroupTitle = $(this).attr('title'); var shortNote = $(this).attr('shortnote'); var subLink = $(this).find('sublist'); var firstList = $(this).find('list'); $('.grouplist').append('<div class="list-group"><h3>'+listGroupTitle+'</h3><ul class="level">'+index+'</ul></div>'); $(this).children().each(function(num){ var text = $(this).text(); $('<li>'+text+'</li>').appendTo('ul.level'); }) }) }) })

    Read the article

  • Why is there unreachable code here?

    - by Richard
    I am writing a c# app and want to output error messages to either the console or a messagebox (Depending on the app type: enum AppTypeChoice { Console, Windows } ), and also control wether the app keeps running or not ( bool StopOnError ). I came up with this method that will check all the criteria, but I'm getting an "unreachable code detected" warning. I can't see why! Here is the whole method (Brace yourselves for some hobbyist code!) public void OutputError(string message) { string standardMessage = "Something went WRONG!. [ But I'm not telling you what! ]"; string defaultMsgBoxTitle = "Aaaaarrrggggggggggg!!!!!"; string dosBoxOutput = "\n\n*** " + defaultMsgBoxTitle + " *** \n\n Message was: '" + message + "'\n\n"; AppTypeChoice appType = DataDefs.AppType; DebugLevelChoice level = DataDefs.DebugLevel; // Decide how much info we should give out here... if (level != DebugLevelChoice.None) { // Give some info.... if (appType == AppTypeChoice.Windows) MessageBox.Show(message, defaultMsgBoxTitle, MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); else Console.WriteLine(dosBoxOutput); } else { // Be very secretive... if (appType == AppTypeChoice.Windows) MessageBox.Show(standardMessage, defaultMsgBoxTitle, MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); else Console.WriteLine(standardMessage); } // Decide if app falls over or not.. if (DataDefs.StopOnError == true) Environment.Exit(0); // UNREACHABLE CODE HERE } Also, while I have your attention, to get the app type, I'm just using a constant at the top of the file (ie. AppTypeChoice.Console in a Console app etc) - is there a better way of doing this (i mean finding out in code if it is a DOS or Windows app)? Also, I noticed that I can use a messagebox with a fully-qualified path in a Console app...How bad is is to do that ( I mean, will I get tarred and feathered when other developers see it?!) Thanks for your help

    Read the article

  • Writing catch block with cleanup operations in Java ...

    - by kedarmhaswade
    I was not able to find any advise on catch blocks in Java that involve some cleanup operations which themselves could throw exceptions. The classic example is that of stream.close() which we usually call in the finally clause and if that throws an exception, we either ignore it by calling it in a try-catch block or declare it to be rethrown. But in general, how do I handle cases like: public void doIt() throws ApiException { //ApiException is my "higher level" exception try { doLower(); } catch(Exception le) { doCleanup(); //this throws exception too which I can't communicate to caller throw new ApiException(le); } } I could do: catch(Exception le) { try { doCleanup(); } catch(Exception e) { //ignore? //log? } throw new ApiException(le); //I must throw le } But that means I will have to do some log analysis to understand why cleanup failed. If I did: catch(Exception le) { try { doCleanup(); } catch(Exception e) { throw new ApiException(e); } It results in losing the le that got me here in the catch block in the fist place. What are some of the idioms people use here? Declare the lower level exceptions in throws clause? Ignore the exceptions during cleanup operation?

    Read the article

  • TSQL to insert an ascending value

    - by David Neale
    I am running some SQL that identifies records which need to be marked for deletion and to insert a value into those records. This value must be changed to render the record useless and each record must be changed to a unique value because of a database constraint. UPDATE Users SET Username = 'Deleted' + (ISNULL( Cast(SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%') AS INT) ,0) + 1 FROM Users a LEFT OUTER JOIN #ADUSERS b ON a.Username = 'AVSOMPOL\' + b.sAMAccountName WHERE (b.sAMAccountName is NULL AND a.Username LIKE 'AVSOMPOL%') OR b.userAccountControl = 514 This is the important bit: SET Username = 'Deleted' + (ISNULL( Cast(SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%') AS INT) ,0) + 1 What I've tried to do is have deleted records have their Username field set to 'Deletedxxx'. The ISNULL is needed because there may be no records matching the SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%' statement and this will return NULL. I get a syntax error when trying to parse this (Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'SELECT'. Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near ')'. I'm sure there must be a better way to go about this, any ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227  | Next Page >