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  • Passing data to a non-static listBox, by calling function from another class

    - by Andrew A
    I have a simple forms program that I have been fighting with for a while now. I simply want to be able to call a method from a different class file (when a certain step is triggered in the code in that class file) in order to insert a string in the listBox. Here is my main method, pretty standard: class Program { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } Here is the function which resides in my MainForm.cs file, which I can call just fine from that class file (via 'TextToBox(myString);'): public partial class MainForm : Form { ... // Function to output results to main Listbox window public void TextToBox(string aString) { // Place messages in Main Display list box window this.listBox1.Items.Insert(0, aString); } ... } But my problem is when I am in another class and I want to call 'TextToBox(myString);'. If I create another object reference of the MainForm, the code compiles fine but nothing will show up in the listBox. How do I do this? I cannot simply make TextToBox() static. I know I must create the object reference but I can't figure out how to reference the ORIGINAL MainForm, the one that was created in the Main method. Thanks in advance...

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  • Adding custom methods to a subclassed NSManagedObject

    - by CJ
    I have a Core Data model where I have an entity A, which is an abstract. Entities B, C, and D inherit from entity A. There are several properties defined in entity A which are used by B, C, and D. I would like to leverage this inheritance in my model code. In addition to properties, I am wondering if I can add methods to entity A, which are implemented in it's sub-entities. For example: I add a method to the interface for entity A which returns a value and takes one argument I add implementations of this method to A, B, C, D Then, I call executeFetchRequest: to retrieve all instances of B I call the method on the objects retrieved, which should call the implementation of the method contained in B's implementation I have tried this, but when calling the method, I receive: [NSManagedObject methodName:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance I presume this is because the objects returned by executeFetchRequest: are proxy objects of some sort. Is there any way to leverage inheritance using subclassed NSManagedObjects? I would really like to be able to do this, otherwise my model code would be responsible for determining what type of NSManagedObject it's dealing with and perform special logic according to the type, which is undesirable. Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance.

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  • Writing language converter in ANTLR

    - by Stefan
    I'm writing a converter between some dialects of the same programming language. I've found a grammar on the net - it's complex and handles all the cases. Now I'm trying to write the appropriate actions. Most of the input is just going to be rewritten to output. What I need to do is parse function calls, do my magic (rename function, reorder arguments, etc) and write it. I'm using AST as output. When I come across a function call, I build a custom object structure (from classes defined in my target language), call the appropriate function and I have a string that represents the transformed function that I want to get. The problem is, what I'm supposed to do with that string? I'd like to replace the .text attribute of the enclosing rule, but setText() is only available on lexer rules and the rule's .text attribute is read-only. How to solve this problem? program : statement_list { output = $statement_list.text; } ; //... statement : expression_statement // ... ; expression_statement : function_call // ... ; function_call : ID '(' { /* build the object, assign name */ Function function = new Function(); //... } ( arg1 = expression { /* add first parameter */ } ( ',' arg2 = expression { /* add the rest of parameters */ } )* )? ')' { /* convert the function call */ string converted = Tools.Convert(function); // $setText(converted); // doesn't work // $functionCall.text = converted; // doesn't work } ;

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  • Overload Resolution and Optional Arguments in C# 4

    - by Dale McCoy
    I am working with some code that has seven overloads of a function TraceWrite: void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, bool LogToFileOnly, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string PieceID, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, bool UserMessage, int UserMessagePercent, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string PieceID, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, bool UserMessage, int UserMessagePercent, string Data = ""); (All public static, namespacing noise elided above and throughout.) So, with that background: 1) Elsewhere, I call TraceWrite with four arguments: string, LogLevelENUM, string, bool, and I get the following errors: error CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'TraceWrite(string, LogLevelENUM, string, string)' has some invalid arguments error CS1503: Argument '4': cannot convert from 'bool' to 'string' Why doesn't this call resolve to the second overload? (TraceWrite(string, LogLevelENUM, string, bool, string = "")) 2) If I were to call TraceWrite with string, LogLevelENUM, string, string, which overload would be called? The first or the third? And why?

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  • NHibernate: how to handle entity-based validation using session-per-request pattern, without control

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    What is the best way to do entity-based validation (each entity class has an IsValid() method that validates its internal members) in ASP.NET MVC, with a "session-per-request" model, where the controller has zero (or limited) knowledge of the ISession? Here's the pattern I'm using: Get an entity by ID, using an IFooRepository that wraps the current NH session. This returns a connected entity instance. Load the entity with potentially invalid data, coming from the form post. Validate the entity by callings its IsValid() method. If valid, call IFooRepository.Save(entity). Otherwise, display error message. The session is currently opened when the request begins and flushed when the request ends. Since my entity is connected to a session, flushing the session attempts to save the changes even if the object is invalid. What's the best way to keep validation logic in the entity class, limit controller knowledge of NH, and avoid saving invalid changes at the end of a request? Option 1: Explicitly evict on validation failure, implicitly flush: if the validation fails, I could manually evict the invalid object in the action method. If successful, I do nothing and the session is automatically flushed. Con: error prone and counter-intuitive ("I didn't call .Save(), why are my invalid changes being saved anyways?") Option 2: Explicitly flush, do nothing by default: By default I can dispose of the session on request end, only flushing if the controller indicates success. I'd probably create a SaveChanges() method in my base controller that sets a flag indicating success, and then query this flag when closing the session at request end. Pro: More intuitive to troubleshoot if dev forgets this step [relative to option 1] Con: I have to call IRepository.Save(entity)' and SaveChanges(). Option 3: Always work with disconnected objects: I could modify my repositories to return disconnected/transient objects, and modify the Repo.Save() method to re-attach them. Pro: Most intuitive, given that controllers don't know about NH. Con: Does this defeat many of the benefits I'd get from NH?

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  • PHP/Java Bridge - Access Java objects in PHP

    - by Omer Hassan
    I have a Red5 application which defines some public Java methods. When I start the server, an object of the application class gets created. I am trying to call the public methods of the application class from PHP using the existing instance of the Java application class. So here's my Java application: public class App extends org.red5.server.adapter.ApplicationAdapter { public boolean appStart(IScope app) { // This method gets called when the application starts // and an object of this App class is created. return true; } // This is the method I would like to call from PHP. public void f() { } } From PHP, I would like to get access to the App object that is created and call the method f() on it. I have tried playing around with this thing called "context". So in the Java method App.appStart(), I did this: // Save a reference to this App object to be retrieved later in PHP. new PhpScriptContextFactory().getContext().put("x", this); And in PHP, I tried to access the saved object like this: require_once("http://localhost:5080/JavaBridge/java/Java.inc"); var_dump(java_is_null(java_context()->get("x"))); Unfortunately, the java_is_null() function in PHP returns true. I also tried saving the App object in a static variable of App class but when I access that variable in PHP, its value is null.

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  • multiple redirect??

    - by Ryan Pitts
    Ok, i won't go into the full details (too much to explain) but here is what i am trying to do. I have a button on a webpage (we'll call page-1) that links to a page (we'll call it page-2). This page opens in the same window. However, i need the page (page-2) that opens to open up a new window with another page (we'll call this one page-3) when it loads. So virtually when you click the initial button (on page-1) it will go to a new page (page-2) AND a window will open as well with a different page (page-3). This is where it gets tricky. I need page-2 to automatically redirect back to page-1 after it launches page-3. Is this possible and if so, how?? Could it be a JQuery thing? Please just give some answers...i know this is way crazy and a huge workaround - but this is my last resort for this particular website. I have to do it this way because of the lack of control over some of the code.

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  • How do I get LongVarchar out param from SPROC in ADO.NET 2.0 with SQLAnywhere 10?

    - by todthomson
    Hi All, I have sproc 'up_selfassessform_view' which has the following parameters: in ai_eqidentkey SYSKEY in ai_acidentkey SYSKEY out as_eqcomments TEXT_STRING out as_acexplanation TEXT_STRING  -  which are domain objects - SYSKEY is 'integer' and TEXT_STRING is 'long varchar'. I can call the sproc fine from iSQL using the following code: create variable @eqcomments TEXT_STRING; create variable @acexamples TEXT_STRING; call up_selfassessform_view (75000146, 3, @eqcomments, @acexamples); select @eqcomments, @acexamples;  - which returns the correct values from the DB (so I know the SPROC is good). I have configured the out param in ADO.NET like so (which has worked up until now for 'integer', 'timestamp', 'varchar(255)', etc): SAParameter as_acexplanation = cmd.CreateParameter(); as_acexplanation.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; as_acexplanation.ParameterName = "as_acexplanation"; as_acexplanation.SADbType = SADbType.LongVarchar; cmd.Parameters.Add(as_acexplanation); When I run the following code: SADataReader reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); I receive the following error: Parameter[2]: the Size property has an invalid size of 0. Which (I suppose) makes sense... But the thing is, I don't know the size of the field (it's just "long varchar" it doesn't have a predetermined length - unlike varchar(XXX)). Anyhow, just for fun, I add the following: as_acexplanation.Size = 1000; and the above error goes away, but now when I call: as_acexplanation.Value i get back a string of length = 1000 which is just '\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0\0...' (\0 repeated 1000 times). So I'm really really stuck... Any help one this one would be much appreciated. Cheers! ;) Tod T.

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  • Problem in migrating to LAMP from XAMPP.. Memory limit error

    - by Geshan
    I was using XAMPP for my local machine but as I wanted to run applications like mysql work bench and some test frameworks I decided to switch to LAMP self install. I'm using ubuntu and followed the instructions at: https://help.ubuntu.com/community/ApacheMySQLPHP But the problem is LAMP is consuming too much of my memory (RAM) I've allocated 124 MB currently but still it gives me memory exhausted error when I run Drush (Drupal command line). When I do drush cc to clear cache it give me the following: Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 33554432 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 122880 bytes) in /var/www/----/sites/all/modules/ubercart/uc_order/uc_order.order_pane.inc on line 150 Call Stack: 0.0020 185624 1. {main}() /opt/drush/drush.php:0 0.0254 1303672 2. drush_main() /opt/drush/drush.php:37 0.2674 5107784 3. drush_bootstrap() /opt/drush/drush.php:71 0.2676 5109872 4. _drush_bootstrap_drupal_full() /opt/drush/includes/environment.inc:173 0.2676 5151032 5. drupal_bootstrap() /opt/drush/includes/environment.inc:655 0.3030 7739048 6. _drupal_bootstrap() /var/www/missmoti/includes/bootstrap.inc:989 0.3122 8855792 7. _drupal_bootstrap_full() /var/www/missmoti/includes/bootstrap.inc:1078 0.3445 12387320 8. module_load_all() /var/www/missmoti/includes/common.inc:2608 0.5194 32586544 9. drupal_load() /var/www/missmoti/includes/module.inc:14 0.5251 33361112 10. include_once('/var/www/missmoti/sites/all/modules/ubercart/uc_order/uc_order.module') /var/www/-----/includes/bootstrap.inc:617 Drush command could not be completed. In each error it shows me a back trace and I guess this default debugger I'm not aware of in Apache or my PHP config it eating up the memory. If anyone can help I"d be glad. Another error below: Fatal error: Call to undefined function dsm() in /var/www/-----/sites/all/modules/custom/gtpath/gtpath.module on line 180 Call Stack # Time Memory Function Location 1 0.0002 120144 {main}( ) ../index.php:0 2 1.7604 68224112 theme( ) ../index.php:36 3 2.0188 77346112 call_user_func_array ( ) ../theme.inc:658 4 2.0188 77347024 gtpath_preprocess_page( ) ../theme.inc:0 how do I deal with this default debugger? how do I turn it off??

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  • jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

    - by ILMV
    So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

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  • Rails named_scope across multiple tables

    - by wakiki
    I'm trying to tidy up my code by using named_scopes in Rails 2.3.x but where I'm struggling with the has_many :through associations. I'm wondering if I'm putting the scopes in the wrong place... Here's some pseudo code below. The problem is that the :accepted named scope is replicated twice... I could of course call :accepted something different but these are the statuses on the table and it seems wrong to call them something different. Can anyone shed light on whether I'm doing the following correctly or not? I know Rails 3 is out but it's still in beta and it's a big project I'm doing so I can't use it in production yet. class Person < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :connections has_many :contacts, :through => :connections named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["connections.status = ?", Connection::ACCEPTED] # the :accepted named_scope is duplicated named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["memberships.status = ?", Membership::ACCEPTED] end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :members, :through => :memberships end class Connection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :contact, :class_name => "Person", :foreign_key => "contact_id" end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :group end I'm trying to run something like person.contacts.accepted and group.members.accepted which are two different things. Shouldn't the named_scopes be in the Membership and Connection classes? One solution is to just call the two different named scope something different in the Person class or even to create separate associations (ie. has_many :accepted_members and has_many :accepted_contacts) but it seems hackish and in reality I have many more than just accepted (ie. banned members, ignored connections, pending, requested etc etc)

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  • Multiple WCF calls for a single ASP.NET page load

    - by Rodney Burton
    I have an existing asp.net web application I am redesigning to use a service architecture. I have the beginnings of an WCF service which I am able to call and perform functions with no problems. As far as updating data, it all makes sense. For example, I have a button that says Submit Order, it sends the data to the service, which does the processing. Here's my concern: If I have an ASP.NET page that shows me a list of orders (View Orders page), and at the top I have a bunch of drop down lists for order types, and other search criteria which is populated by querying different tables from the database (lookup tables, etc). I am hoping to eventually completely decouple the web application from the DB, and use data contracts to pass information between the BLL, the SOA, and the web app. With that said, how can I reduce the # of WCF calls needed to load my "View Orders" page? I would need to make 1 call get the list of orders, and 1 call for each drop down list, etc because those are populated by individual functions in my BLL. Is it good architecture to create a web service method that returns back a specialized data contract that consists of everything you would need to display a View Orders page, in 1 shot? Something like this pseudocode: public class ViewOrderPageDTO { public OrderDTO[] Orders { get; set; } public OrderTypesDTO[] OrderTypes { get; set; } public OrderStatusesDTO[] OrderStatuses { get; set; } public CustomerListDTO[] CustomerList { get; set; } } Or is it better practice in the page_load event to make 5 or 6 or even 15 individual calls to the SOA to get the data needed to load the page? Therefore, bypassing the need for specialized wcf methods or DTO's that conglomerate other DTO? Thanks for your input and suggestions.

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  • Calling Java classes from IzPack

    - by bguiz
    I am trying to write an IzPack installer which is able to detect a previously installed version of the application. After finding out that it doesn't really support this feature, I think the only way to do this is through writing a Java class and calling it from IzPack. Tim Williscroft has previously suggested this method: <condition type="java" id="jbossEnv"> <java> <class>au.com.codarra.ela.installer.JBossChecker</class <field>hasJBossEnv</field> </java> <returnvalue type="boolean">true</returnvalue> </condition> However, is it possible to call <java> from somewhere other than a <condition> tag? I want to be able to call it from a <variable> tag. Also, is it possible to call a method from a Java class instead of reading a value of a field? I want to be able to pass parameters to my class. Thank you!

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  • Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

    - by user30997
    I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

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  • Rhino Mocks and ordered test with unordered calls

    - by Shaddix
    I'm using Rhino.Mocks for testing the system. I'm going to check the order of calling .LoadConfig and .Backup methods. I need .LoadConfig to be the first. Currently the code is like this: var module1 = mocks.Stub<IBackupModule>(); var module2 = mocks.Stub<IBackupModule>(); module1.Expect(x => x.Name).Return("test"); module2.Expect(x => x.Name).Return("test2"); using (mocks.Ordered()) { module1.Expect(x => x.LoadConfig(null)); module2.Expect(x => x.LoadConfig(null)); module1.Expect(x => x.Backup()); module2.Expect(x => x.Backup()); } mocks.ReplayAll(); The problem is, that there's also a call to .Name property, and i'm not interesting when it'll be called: before .LoadConfig or after the .Backup - it just doesn't matter. And when I run this I'm getting Exception: Unordered method call! The expected call is: 'Ordered: { IConfigLoader.LoadConfig(null); }' but was: 'IIdentification.get_Name();' Is there a way to deal with this? Thanks

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  • Count rows against to SQL server (2005) table?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I have a simple question with two options to get count of rows in a SQL server (2005). I am using VS 2005. There are two options to get the count: SELECT id FROM Table1 WHERE dt >= startDt AND dt < endDt;; I get a list of ids from above call in cache and then I get count by List.Count. Another option is SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Table1 WHERE dt >= startDt AND dt < endDt; The above call will get the count directly. The issue is that I had several cases of exceptions with the second method: timeout. What I found is that the table1 is too big with millions of data. When I used the first option, it seems OK. I am confused by the fact that Count() takes more time than getting all the rows(is that true?). Not sure if the aggregation call with Count() would cause SQL server to create temporary table or cache on server side and it would result in slow performance when table is too big? I am not sure what is the best way to get the count?

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  • AdressBook Crash, only with some contacts!

    - by Zebs
    My app crashes, it is a problem that arises from the AddressBook API, it only happens with some contacts. Here is the log: Exception Type: EXC_BREAKPOINT (SIGTRAP) Exception Codes: 0x00000102, 0x316ebd38 Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 Crashed: 0 CoreFoundation 0x00001cfe CFRetain + 90 1 AddressBook 0x00004b2c ABCMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex + 28 2 AddressBook 0x0001066a ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex + 2 3 Call Monitor 0x00003824 -[CallAppDelegate peoplePickerNavigationController:shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:property:identifier:] (AppDelegate.m:408) 4 AddressBookUI 0x00032cfc -[ABPeoplePickerNavigationController personViewController:shouldPerformDefaultActionForPerson:property:identifier:withMemberCell:] + 152 5 AddressBookUI 0x0003b8ce -[ABPersonViewControllerHelper personTableViewDataSource:selectedPropertyAtIndex:inPropertyGroup:withMemberCell:forEditing:] + 222 6 AddressBookUI 0x0004a17c -[ABPersonTableViewDataSource valueAtIndex:selectedForPropertyGroup:withMemberCell:forEditing:] + 40 7 AddressBookUI 0x00048c00 -[ABPersonTableViewDataSource tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath:] + 316 8 UIKit 0x00091f40 -[UITableView _selectRowAtIndexPath:animated:scrollPosition:notifyDelegate:] + 656 9 UIKit 0x0009db40 -[UITableView _userSelectRowAtIndexPath:] + 124 10 Foundation 0x00086c86 __NSFireDelayedPerform + 362 11 CoreFoundation 0x00071a54 __CFRUNLOOP_IS_CALLING_OUT_TO_A_TIMER_CALLBACK_FUNCTION__ + 8 12 CoreFoundation 0x00073ede __CFRunLoopDoTimer + 854 13 CoreFoundation 0x0007485e __CFRunLoopRun + 1082 14 CoreFoundation 0x0001d8e4 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 224 15 CoreFoundation 0x0001d7ec CFRunLoopRunInMode + 52 16 GraphicsServices 0x000036e8 GSEventRunModal + 108 17 GraphicsServices 0x00003794 GSEventRun + 56 18 UIKit 0x000062a0 -[UIApplication _run] + 396 19 UIKit 0x00004e10 UIApplicationMain + 664 20 Call Monitor 0x000028e8 main (main.m:14) 21 Call Monitor 0x000028b8 start + 32 This is driving me crazy, as it only happens with an isolated number of contacts. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code that was requested, thank you very very much for your help: (It is an extract from the method where I think the error happens) The weird thing is that it only happens with certain contacts, and deleting the contact, then creating a new one solves the problem... - (BOOL)peoplePickerNavigationController:(ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:(ABRecordRef)person property:(ABPropertyID)property identifier:(ABMultiValueIdentifier)identifier NSString* firstName = (NSString *)ABRecordCopyValue(person, kABPersonFirstNameProperty); NSString* lastName = (NSString *)ABRecordCopyValue(person, kABPersonLastNameProperty); NSNumber* record = [NSNumber numberWithInt:ABRecordGetRecordID(person)]; if(lastName!=nil){ name=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ %@",firstName,lastName]; } else { name=firstName; } ABMultiValueRef phone = ABRecordCopyValue(person, property); NSString *value =(NSString *)ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(phone, identifier); NSString *label =(NSString *)ABMultiValueCopyLabelAtIndex(phone, identifier); NSMutableArray *tempArray=[[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:[[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"MainArray"]]; NSDictionary *stringDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:name, kLabelKey, value, kNumberKey,label, kNumberLabelKey,record, kReferenceKey, nil]; [tempArray addObject:stringDictionary]; NSArray *mainArray = [NSArray arrayWithArray:tempArray]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] setObject:mainArray forKey:@"MainArray"];

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  • Can I get a reference to a pending transaction from a SqlConnection object?

    - by Rune
    Hey, Suppose someone (other than me) writes the following code and compiles it into an assembly: using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connString)) { conn.Open(); using (var transaction = conn.BeginTransaction()) { /* Update something in the database */ /* Then call any registered OnUpdate handlers */ InvokeOnUpdate(conn); transaction.Commit(); } } The call to InvokeOnUpdate(IDbConnection conn) calls out to an event handler that I can implement and register. Thus, in this handler I will have a reference to the IDbConnection object, but I won't have a reference to the pending transaction. Is there any way in which I can get a hold of the transaction? In my OnUpdate handler I want to execute something similar to the following: private void MyOnUpdateHandler(IDbConnection conn) { var cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = someSQLString; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } However, the call to cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() throws an InvalidOperationException complaining that "ExecuteNonQuery requires the command to have a transaction when the connection assigned to the command is in a pending local transaction. The Transaction property of the command has not been initialized". Can I in any way enlist my SqlCommand cmd with the pending transaction? Can I retrieve a reference to the pending transaction from the IDbConnection object (I'd be happy to use reflection if necessary)?

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  • i386 assembly question: why do I need to meddle with the stack pointer?

    - by zneak
    Hello everyone, I decided it would be fun to learn x86 assembly during the summer break. So I started with a very simple hello world program, borrowing on free examples gcc -S could give me. I ended up with this: HELLO: .ascii "Hello, world!\12\0" .text .globl _main _main: pushl %ebp # 1. puts the base stack address on the stack movl %esp, %ebp # 2. puts the base stack address in the stack address register subl $20, %esp # 3. ??? pushl $HELLO # 4. push HELLO's address on the stack call _puts # 5. call puts xorl %eax, %eax # 6. zero %eax, probably not necessary since we didn't do anything with it leave # 7. clean up ret # 8. return # PROFIT! It compiles and even works! And I think I understand most of it. Though, magic happens at step 3. Would I remove this line, my program would die between the call to puts and the xor from a misaligned stack error. And would I change $20 to another value, it'd crash too. So I came to the conclusion that this value is very important. Problem is, I don't know what it does and why it's needed. Can anyone explain me? (I'm on Mac OS, would it ever matter.)

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  • How to tell axis2 to use an existing object as a service?

    - by Christian Hausknecht
    I am trying to expose some methods of a running application as a webservice. The core idea is to use an embedded web-server and send the soap messages to the apache axis2 framework in order to invoke the services. The problem is, that axis2's createService methods only accept Classes as parameter, not existing objects. So I believe that axis2 itself creates an object of the service class and then uses it to call methods when an external service call arrives. But I need to pass an existing object for being used as a service, because I need to call methods of other objects of the running application within the service methods. So the "standard" way that axis2 creates a new instance of the service class and calls then its methods is obviously no sulution for me. So is there a way to realize this? Or is there another solution? Perhaps you can pass objects later on to the allready created service object by axis2? If there is another solution without axis2 I might consider that one. Basically I am only interested in exposing some functionality of a runnning application as a webservice.

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  • Odd DOM Problem with Firefox

    - by Bob
    Hello. I'm experiencing an odd problem when trying to navigate through a table's rows and cells in a while loop using javascript. I'm using Firefox 3.5.7 on Win7 with Firebug enabled. I have this markup: <table> <tbody> <tr id='firstRow'><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> </tbody> </table> And this javascript: var row = document.getElementById('firstRow'); console.log(row); // Row call 1 while (row) { console.log(row); // Row call 2 row = row.nextSibling; } The problem I'm having is that on the line commented "Row call 1", Firebug is outputting <tr id='firstRow'> as expected. However, in the while loop, Firebug is giving me <tr id='firstRow'> <TextNode textContent="\n"> It is giving me different output for the exact same row, even immediately after the while loop begins executing and nothing else touched the row. For subsequent rows, it of course does not have id='firstRow' as an attribute. The bigger problem this is giving me is that if I'm in the while loop, and I want to access a particular cell of the current row using row.cells[0], Firebug will give me an error that row.cells is undefined. I want to know if someone could shed some light on this situation I am experiencing.

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  • Problems with "global" exception handlers for unhandled exceptions in multithreaded WPF

    - by JustABill
    I have a program that, among other things, needs to be able to refresh the contents of a directory when the user tells it to. The actual task doesn't really matter, but this is the simplest way of causing this problem to occur that I know of. If I tell it to open a directory that doesn't exist, I get the "unhandled exception" dialog in VS with a stack trace of, from outer to inner: [External code] Textbox PreviewKeyUp event [External code] ClassA's path property being set ClassA's internal path update function being called A call to the INotifyPropertyChanged event [External code] A call to the getter for ClassB's list of children A call to ClassB's internal directory list function And then it fails inside this internal function. I have the following in my App.xaml.cs: private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); Application.Current.Dispatcher.UnhandledException += new System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherUnhandledExceptionEventHandler(Dispatcher_UnhandledException); } But neither of their exception handlers are being called. If I run this program from outside VS, I don't get notified of an exception at all, it just breaks because of the invalid input. And yes, the Application_Startup event is being called. How can I properly "trap" this exception so I can provide a friendly error message and kill the program?

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  • Efficient method of getting all plist arrays into one array?

    - by cannyboy
    If I have a plist which is structured like this: Root Array Item 0 Dictionary City String New York People Array Item 0 String Steve Item 1 String Paul Item 2 String Fabio Item 3 String David Item 4 String Penny Item 1 Dictionary City String London People Array Item 0 String Linda Item 1 String Rachel Item 2 String Jessica Item 3 String Lou Item 2 Dictionary City String Barcelona People Array Item 0 String Edward Item 1 String Juan Item 2 String Maria Then what is the most efficient way of getting all the names of the people into one big NSArray?

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  • Why does the Java Collections Framework offer two different ways to sort?

    - by dvanaria
    If I have a list of elements I would like to sort, Java offers two ways to go about this. For example, lets say I have a list of Movie objects and I’d like to sort them by title. One way I could do this is by calling the one-argument version of the static java.util.Collections.sort( ) method with my movie list as the single argument. So I would call Collections.sort(myMovieList). In order for this to work, the Movie class would have to be declared to implement the java.lang.Comparable interface, and the required method compareTo( ) would have to be implemented inside this class. Another way to sort is by calling the two-argument version of the static java.util.Collections.sort( ) method with the movie list and a java.util.Comparator object as it’s arguments. I would call Collections.sort(myMovieList, titleComparator). In this case, the Movie class wouldn’t implement the Comparable interface. Instead, inside the main class that builds and maintains the movie list itself, I would create an inner class that implements the java.util.Comparator interface, and implement the one required method compare( ). Then I'd create an instance of this class and call the two-argument version of sort( ). The benefit of this second method is you can create an unlimited number of these inner class Comparators, so you can sort a list of objects in different ways. In the example above, you could have another Comparator to sort by the year a movie was made, for example. My question is, why bother to learn both ways to sort in Java, when the two-argument version of Collections.sort( ) does everything the first one-argument version does, but with the added benefit of being able to sort the list’s elements based on several different criteria? It would be one less thing to have to keep in your mind while coding. You’d have one basic mechanism of sorting lists in Java to know.

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  • vb.net documentation and exception question

    - by dcp
    Let's say I have this sub in vb.net: ''' <summary> ''' Validates that <paramref name="value"/> is not <c>null</c>. ''' </summary> ''' ''' <param name="value">The object to validate.</param> ''' ''' <param name="name">The variable name of the object.</param> ''' ''' <exception cref="ArgumentNullException">If <paramref name="value"/> is <c>null</c>.</exception> Sub ValidateNotNull(ByVal value As Object, ByVal name As String) If value Is Nothing Then Throw New ArgumentNullException(name, String.Format("{0} cannot be null.", name)) End If End Sub My question is, is it proper to call this ValidateNotNull (which is what I would call it in C#) or should I stick with VB terminology and call it ValidateNotNothing instead? Also, in my exception, is it proper to say "cannot be null", or would it be better to say "cannot be Nothing"? I sort of like the way I have it, but since this is VB, maybe I should use Nothing. But since the exception itself is called ArgumentNullException, it feels weird to make the message say "cannot be Nothing". Anyway, I guess it's pretty nitkpicky, just wondered what you folks thought.

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