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  • IO completion port key confusion

    - by Richard Tew
    I'm writing an IO completion port based server (source code here) using the Windows DLL API in Python using the ctypes module. But this is a pretty direct usage of the API and this question is directed at those who have a knowledge of IOCP, not Python. As I understand the documentation for CreateIoCompletionPort, you specify your "user defined" completion key when you call this function with a file handle (in my case a socket) you are associating with the created IOCP. When you get around to calling GetQueuedCompletionStatus, you get a completion key value along with a pointer to an overlapped object. The completion key should identify what overlapped object and request has completed. However, let's say I pass in 100 as the completion key in my CreateIoCompletionPort call with an overlapped object. When the same overlapped object has its IO completed and it arrives back through GetQueuedCompletionStatus, the completion key that accompanies it is much larger and bares no resemblance to the original value of 100. Am I misunderstanding how the completion key works, or must I be doing it wrong in the source code I linked above?

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  • Mysql SET NAMES UTF8 - how to get rid of?

    - by Nir
    In a very busy PHP script we have a call at the beginning to "Set names utf8" which is setting the character set in which mysql should interpret and send the data back from the server to the client. http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/charset-applications.html I want to get rid of it so I set default-character-set=utf8 In our server ini file. (see link above) The setting seems to be working since the relevant server parameters are : 'character_set_client', 'utf8' 'character_set_connection', 'utf8' 'character_set_database', 'latin1' 'character_set_filesystem', 'binary' 'character_set_results', 'utf8' 'character_set_server', 'latin1' 'character_set_system', 'utf8' But after this change and commenting out set names utf8 call still the data starts to come out garbled. Please advise....

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  • How a servlet can get the absolute path to a file outside of the servlet?

    - by WolfmanDragon
    We have been using System.getProperties("user.dir") to get the location of a properties file. Now that it has been deployed on Tomcat(via servlet), the System call is giving the location as tomcat and not at the location at where the properties file exist. How can we call the the properties file dynamically? Given: Tomcat is not the only way the app will be deployed We have no control on where the app may be placed. Relative paths will not work as that Vista is being used and Vista breaks relative paths. This must work on all OS, including(but not limited to) Linux, XP and Vista. EDIT I implied this, but in case I was not clear enough, I have no way of knowing the path String.

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  • Solr Facet Search spring-data-solr

    - by sv1
    I am new to Solr and we are using Spring-data for Solr I have a question may be its too simple but I am unable to comprehend. Basically I need to search on any field but I have a "zip" field as one of the facet fields. I have a Solr repository . (Am not sure if the annotations on the Repository are correct.) public interface MyRepository extends SolrCrudRepository<MyPOJO, String> { @Query(value = "*:*") @Facet(fields={"zip"}) public FacetPage<MyPOJO> findByQueryandAnno(String searchTerm,Pageable page); } In my Service class I am trying to call this methods by Injecting MyRepository like below public class MyService { @Inject MyRepository solrRepo; @Inject SolrTemplate solrTemplate; public FacetPage<MyPOJO> tryFacets(String searchString){ //Here is where I am struggling SimpleFacetQuery query = new SimpleQuery(new SimpleStringCriteria(searchString)); query.setFacetOptions(new FacetOptions("zip")); //Not sure how to get the Pageable object. //But the repository doesnt accept without it. return solrTemplate.queryForPage(query,{Pageable Instance to be passed here}) } From my jUnit I am loading context files needed for Solr and Spring //In jUnit the test method looks like this service.tryFacets("some value"); and it fails with - method not found in the service class at the call to the repository method. *********EDIT**************** As per ChristophStrobl's advice created a copyfield called multivaluedCopyField and the searchString argument works good. But the facet still isnt working...Now my code looks like this. I get the MyPOJO object as response but the facetcount and the faceted values are missing. public interface MyRepository extends SolrCrudRepository<MyPOJO, String> { @Query(value = "*:*") @Facet(fields={"zip"}) public FacetPage<MyPOJO> findByQueryandAnno(String searchTerm,Pageable page); } My service class looks like public class MyService { @Inject MyRepository solrRepo; public FacetPage<MyPOJO> tryFacets(String searchString){ //Here is where I am struggling SimpleFacetQuery query = new SimpleQuery(new SimpleStringCriteria(searchString)).setPageRequest new PageRequest(0,5)); query.setFacetOptions(new FacetOptions("zip")); FacetPage<MyPOJO> facetedPOJO= solrRepo.findByQueryandAnno(searchString,query.getPageRequest()); return facetedPOJO; } My jUnit method call is like service.tryFacets("some value");

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  • Accessing functions in a parent controller

    - by meridimus
    I have made a ViewController in XCode for an iPhone project I'm working on, but I have a question about nested ViewControllers and what the best way to access a parents ViewController functions? Essentially, at the moment I have a SwitchViewController with MenuViewController (nested) and GameViewController (nested, which renders OpenGL ES). At the moment, I have animated view switching controlled in the SwitchViewController which works. But I want to call it after a player has selected the level from the MenuViewController and run the appropriate level in GameViewController. Not rocket science, I know. What's the best way to call parent functions?

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  • Help calling class from a class above.

    - by wtzolt
    Hello, How to call from class oneThread: back to class fun:? As in, address a class written below. Is it possible? class oneThread(threading.Thread): def __init__(self): threading.Thread.__init__(self) self.start() def run(self): print "1" time.sleep(1) print "2" time.sleep(1) print "3" self.wTree.get_widget("entryResult").set_text("Done with One.") # How to call from here back to class fun, which of course is below...? class fun: wTree = None def __init__( self ): self.wTree = gtk.glade.XML( "main.glade" ) self.wTree.signal_autoconnect( {"on_buttonOne" : self.one} ) gtk.main() def one(self, widget): oneThread(); gtk.gdk.threads_init() do=fun()

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  • Is eclipse's Garbage Collector different than the default?

    - by Savvas Dalkitsis
    From questions posted here and an old one of mine I have created the impression that you cannot explicitly run the Java Garbage Collector whenever you please. If you call it, you simply instruct the system to call it whenever it can or thinks is appropriate. But in eclipse, if you press the "Run Garbage Collector" button you see an immediate reduction in memory usage. How is that possible? Is eclipse using a different Garbage Collector, does it have access to some secret API that we don't or is my conception of how the GC works wrong?

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  • External class-calling

    - by anonymous
    Hi guys i have a bit of a problem with a few classes, and i would be very grateful if someone can help me out. So i have: Already compiled executable (for whom i don't have the source) A class in that program that i want to call The program doesn't have export for the class, and that's my problem i don't have definition for this class, so is there a way to get a callback to this class? Example: In the compiled executable: foo::bar (example) { printf(example); } My app: CALLBACK(foo::bar, "this text must be passed as argument") Or in other words i want to call a class in other executable (without having its source) and pass arguments to its function.

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  • jQuery if checkbox is checked to toggle classes

    - by Lynx
    I am needed to change my jQuery code up. Instead of the label toggling the class and showing the icon I need it to where if the checkbox is checked to show to toggle those classes. I have tried prop and is but I couldn't get them to work properly. The reason for the change is I want to preload data into the form and if it's going to be checked those toggles need to reflect that change. http://jsfiddle.net/70fbLooL/2/ EDIT Seems to be confusion as to exactly what I am trying to do. The fiddle I provided works perfectly fine. The problem is if I want to call the form from server-side and pre-populate the form the checkbox toggles will not show that they are checked because it's based on the clicked function. I need it to be based on if the checkbox equal true or checked. That way if the value equals true from the server-side call it will toggle those classes and look like it's checked.

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  • How to limit the number of the same Activity on the stack for an Android application

    - by johnrock
    Is this possible in an Android app? I want to make it so that no matter how many times a user starts activityA, when they hit the back button they will never get more than one occurence of activityA. What I am finding in my current code is that I have only two options: 1. I can call finish() in activityA which will prevent it from being accessible via the back button completely, or 2. I do not call finish(), and then if the user starts activityA (n) times during their usage, there will be (n) instances when hitting the back button. Again, I want to have activityA accessible by hitting the back button, but there is no reason to keep multiple instances of the same activity on the stack. Is there a way to limit the number of instances of an activity in the queue to only 1?

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  • Assigning a MVC Controller property from Asp.Net page

    - by JasonMHirst
    I don't know if I've understanding MVC correctly if my question makes no sense, but I'm trying to understand the following: I have some code on a controller that returns JSON data. The JSON data is populated based on a choice from a dropdown box on an Asp.Net page. I thought (incorrectly) that Session variables would be shared between the Asp.Net project and the MVC Project. What I'd like to do therefore (if this is possible), is to call a Sub on the MVC that sets a variable before the JSON query is run. I have the following: Sub SetCountryID(ByVal CountryID As Integer) Me.pCountrySelectedID = CountryID End Sub Which I can call by the following: Response.Write("http://localhost:7970/Home/SetCountryID/?CountryID=44") But this then results in a blank page - again obviouslly totally incorrect! Am I going about MVC the wrong way or do I still have a hell of a lot more learning to do? Is this even possible to do?

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  • Should I use custom exceptions to control the flow of application?

    - by bonefisher
    Is it a good practise to use custom business exceptions (e.g. BusinessRuleViolationException) to control the flow of user-errors/user-incorrect-inputs??? The classic approach: I have a web service, where I have 2 methods, one is the 'checker' (UsernameAlreadyExists()) and the other one is 'creator' (CreateUsername())... So if I want to create a username, I have to do 2 roundtrips to webservice, 1.check, 2.if check is OK, create. What about using UsernameAlreadyExistsException? So I call only the 2. web service method (CrateUsername()), which contains the check and if not successfull, it throws the UsernameAlreadyExistsException. So the end goal is to have only one round trip to web service and the checking can be contained also in other web service methods (so I avoid calling the UsernameAlreadyExists() all the times..). Furthermore I can use this kind of business error handling with other web service calls completely avoiding the checking prior the call.

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  • Jquery Delay Function Calls

    - by fizgig07
    I'm trying to find a way to delay all code that takes place after I make a service call. The reason for this delay is that my service returns code necesarry for the following functions and the result I pass is to these following functions is undefined. I have tried attaching the setTimeout() to the function that is called directly after the service call, but then it just skips the function I set the timeout on and jumps to the next function...My web method that I am calling is not that big and is not doing anything that is too intensive public bool GetSpreadsheetStatusForAdmin(string cacId) { SpreadSheetStatus result = new SpreadSheetStatus(); List<Data.Spreadsheet> spreadsheets = SpreadsheetManager.GetUserSpreadsheets(GetCurrent.Identity); if (spreadsheets.Count != 0) { foreach (Data.Spreadsheet spreadsheet in spreadsheets) { if (spreadsheet.Status == SpreadsheetStatus.Pending) { return true; } } } return false; } I had found the delay() and thought that might work, but I don't have jquery 1.4 and can't use it as of yet. is there anything that can help..?

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  • Clojure vars and Java static methods

    - by j-g-faustus
    I'm a few days into learning Clojure and are having some teething problems, so I'm asking for advice. I'm trying to store a Java class in a Clojure var and call its static methods, but it doesn't work. Example: user=> (. java.lang.reflect.Modifier isPrivate 1) false user=> (def jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) #'user/jmod user=> (. jmod isPrivate 1) java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: No matching method found: isPrivate for class java.lang.Class (NO_SOURCE_FILE:0) at clojure.lang.Compiler.eval(Compiler.java:4543) From the exception it looks like the runtime expects a var to hold an object, so it calls .getClass() to get the class and looks up the method using reflection. In this case the var already holds a class, so .getClass() returns java.lang.Class and the method lookup obviously fails. Is there some way around this, other than writing my own macro? In the general case I'd like to have either an object or a class in a varible and call the appropriate methods on it - duck typing for static methods as well as for instance methods. In this specific case I'd just like a shorter name for java.lang.reflect.Modifier, an alias if you wish. I know about import, but looking for something more general, like the Clojure namespace alias but for Java classes. Are there other mechanisms for doing this? Edit: Maybe I'm just confused about the calling conventions here. I thought the Lisp (and by extension Clojure) model was to evaluate all arguments and call the first element in the list as a function. In this case (= jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) returns true, and (.getName jmod) and (.getName java.lang.reflect.Modifier) both return the same string. So the variable and the class name clearly evaluate to the same thing, but they still cannot be called in the same fashion. What's going on here? Edit 2 Answering my second question (what is happening here), the Clojure doc says that If the first operand is a symbol that resolves to a class name, the access is considered to be to a static member of the named class... Otherwise it is presumed to be an instance member http://clojure.org/java_interop under "The Dot special form" "Resolving to a class name" is apparently not the same as "evaluating to something that resolves to a class name", so what I am trying to do here is something the dot special form does not support.

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  • Contextual bindings with Ninject 2.0

    - by Przemaas
    In Ninject 1.0 I had following binding definitions: Bind<ITarget>().To<Target1>().Only(When.Context.Variable("variable").EqualTo(true)); Bind<ITarget>().To<Target2>(); Given such bindings I had calls: ITarget target = kernel.Get<ITarget>(With.Parameters.ContextVariable("variable", true)); ITarget target = kernel.Get<ITarget>(With.Parameters.ContextVariable("variable", false)); First call was resolved to instance of Target1, second call was resolved to instance of Target2. How to translate this into Ninject 2.0?

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  • Websphere Java application startup

    - by Tom Barnett
    I have two Java applications running on a Websphere application server. The first application is COTS software (Plateau) I will call App1 and includes an API which can be used in custom applications to interact with App1. This app takes a couple minutes to start in Websphere. The second application is custom software I will call App2 and is deployed as a web service which utilizes the App1 API to interact with App1; so it is dependent on App1. This app takes just seconds to start in Websphere. I run into a problem in certain App1 functionality when we bounce Websphere and the App2 web service is called by a client before the App1 application has fully started. Is there a way I can delay App2 from starting until App1 is fully started in Websphere? Is there a way to design App2 to programmatically check that App1 is available before it attempts to use the API?

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  • Can someone describe some DI terms to me?

    - by SoBeNoFear
    I'm in the process of writing a DI framework for PHP 5, and I've been trying to find the 'official' definitions of some words in relation to dependency injection. Some of these words are 'context' and 'lifecycle'. And also, what would I call the object that gets created/injected? Finally, what is the difference between components and services, and which term (if either) should I call the objects that can be injected? I've read Martin Fowler's article and looked through other DI frameworks (Phemto, Spring, Google Guice, Xyster, etc.), but I want to know what you think. Thanks!

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  • calling a method on the parent page from a user control

    - by Kyle
    I am using a user control that I created (just a .cs file not an .ascx file), that does some magic and depending on a value generated by the control, I need it to do something on the parent page that is 'hosting' the control. It needs to call a method under certain circumstances (method is on the parent control). the control is placed on the parent page like so: <customtag:MyControl ID="something" runat="server" /> I'm dynamically creating buttons etc on the control itself but when a button is clicked, let's say for example that there's a text box on the control and if the value of the textbox is "bob" it needs to call a method on the page that's housing the control...how can I accomplish this?

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  • Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

    - by Tim
    I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

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  • jquery and codeigniter

    - by rabidmachine9
    Hello people, and sorry if that question is stupid I'm trying to use javascript with codeigniter and I can't get it right what I'm actually doing is placing jQuery inside the views folder and call it from one of my view files like that: <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> I get no response no errors it just doesn't work, I could also display more code but my first assumption is that there something wrong with the way I call it... maybe something with the paths? any workarounds? thanks in advance

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  • Symfony2 : How to make the php_intl extension available for Symfony2?

    - by Miles M.
    I'm trying to follow this documentation on Symfony : http://symfony.com/doc/current/book/forms.html ok so here is my thing, I've externalised my form and created a specific form class for handling the process and being able to reuse it. So what happen when I submit the form, whatever the info are okay or not for my class, I get this fatal Error : Fatal error: Call to a member function setAttribute() on a non-object in C:\Program Files (x86)\wamp\www\QNetworks\vendor\symfony\src\Symfony\Component\Form\Extension\Core\DataTransformer\NumberToLocalizedStringTransformer.php on line 130 Call Stack I'm running with php 5.3.9 and my intl extension is installed and activated BUT when I run the app/check.php command I see : [[WARNING]] Checking that the intl extension is available: FAILED * Install and enable the intl extension (used for validators) * So I don't understand what the problem with this extension. Should I reinstall it ? When I go here : http://php.net/manual/en/intl.requirements.php I see tht i can install the PECL or the ICU library, but i don't know if I should and if there is any relation with my problem .. Thank for your help !!

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  • A controller method that calls a different method on the same controller

    - by justSteve
    I have a controller method: public ActionResult Details(int id) { Order order = OrderFacade.Instance.Load(id); return View(order); } that is used for 95% of possible invocations. For the other 5% i need to manipulate the value of id before passing to the facade. I'd like to create a separate method within this same controller that executes that manipulation and then calls this (Details) method. What would the signature of that method look like? What is the syntax to call the main Details method? public ??? ManipulatorMethod(int id) { [stuff that manipulates id] [syntax to call Details(manipulatedID)] } mny thx

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  • Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

    - by Peter Delahunty
    Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

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  • How to use soap in javascript

    - by fresher
    Hi guys, I am trying to use SOAP in javascript but i am not getting how to start it. Here is the code sample i write in PHP and it works fine. I want to write this code in Javascript. In following code i call one api from a www.example.com and for calling certain api we require to pass some parameters. $soapClient = new SoapClient("https://www.example.com/abc.aspx?WSDL"); // Prepare SoapHeader parameters $param_sh = array( ); $header = new SoapHeader('http://somesite.com/action/', 'user_credential', $param_sh); // Prepare Soap Client $soapClient->__setSoapHeaders(array($header)); // Setup the RemoteFunction parameters $param = array( "pwd" => "password", "id" => "name" ); // Call RemoteFunction () $contents = $soapClient->__call("name_of_api",array($param)); print_r($contents); Thanx in advance!!!

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  • When does a MySQL Query actually execute in PHP?

    - by MJB
    This sounds like a really simple question, but I am new to PHP. If I have a statement like this: $r =& $db->query("insert into table (col1, col2) values (10, 20)"); Do I have to still execute it, or does it get executed when I reference it? I have another case where I have a select query, which seems logically to run only when I call fetchrow, but the code I am presented with (to fix) does not call execute or fetch.I would have expected it to, so I cannot tell if it is just that I don't get it, or that the missing execute statement is the problem. It also does not insert the record, but it does not throw an error I can find. Also, I am a little confused by the =& notation. I looked it up on google, and found a few mentions of it, but I am still not clear on it. Thanks.

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