Search Results

Search found 6942 results on 278 pages for 'enabled'.

Page 228/278 | < Previous Page | 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235  | Next Page >

  • cURL/PHP Request Executes 50% of the Time

    - by makavelli
    After searching all over, I can't understand why cURL requests issued to a remote SSL-enabled host are successful only 50% or so of the time in my case. Here's the situation: I have a sequence of cURL requests, all of them issued to a HTTPS remote host, within a single PHP script that I run using the PHP CLI. Occasionally when I run the script the requests execute successfully, but for some reason most of the times I run it I get the following error from cURL: * About to connect() to www.virginia.edu port 443 (#0) * Trying 128.143.22.36... * connected * Connected to www.virginia.edu (128.143.22.36) port 443 (#0) * successfully set certificate verify locations: * CAfile: none CApath: /etc/ssl/certs * error:140943FC:SSL routines:SSL3_READ_BYTES:sslv3 alert bad record mac * Closing connection #0 If I try again a few times I get the same result, but then after a few tries the requests will go through successfully. Running the script after that again results in an error, and the pattern continues. Researching the error 'alert bad record mac' didn't give me anything helpful, and I hesitate to blame it on an SSL issue since the script still runs occasionally. I'm on Ubuntu Server 10.04, with php5 and php5-curl installed, as well as the latest version of openssl. In terms of cURL specific options, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER is set to false, and both CURLOPT_TIMEOUT and CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT are set to 4 seconds. Further illustrating this problem is the fact that the same exact situation occurs on my Mac OS X dev machine - the requests only go through ~50% of the time.

    Read the article

  • How do I prevent my table cell's textview from being editable after editing is done?

    - by Gorgando
    So this is an interesting problem. I have custom tableviewcells that include a text field. When In my cellForRowAtIndexPath I have an if statement that determines whether or not the cell's text field should be editable- it looks like this: (self.isEditing) ? [infoCell.textField setEnabled:YES] : [infoCell.textField setEnabled:NO]; This actually works well - except for the issue I'm having. It makes it so that when the tableview is displayed, the rows' text field cannot be edited. When the user clicks "Edit" to put it into editing mode, then the text fields are enabled for editing. The Problem: When I am editing a field, and click "Done", it goes back to the regular tableview but the keyboard stays visible and the last cell's text field I was editing continues to be editable. What Should happen: The keyboard should go away and all the cells' text fields should no longer be editable. Any ideas about what could be going wrong? Things to look for? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • iPhone rotation woes

    - by skooter500
    I have been spending many frustrating hours trying to get rotations working on the iPhone version of Tunepal. Firstly, I have a tab bar controller, with a navigation controller controlling each of the views. I actually only want one of my views to be able to rotate and that is the TuneDisplay. I have a subclassed the UITabBarController and overridden theshouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation: (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation) interfaceOrientation { if (self.selectedViewController != nil) { return [self.selectedViewController shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:interfaceOrientation]; } else { return (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait); } } In each of the view controllers for each of the tabs I have overridden the method and returned YES for each orientation I want to support. All well and good and everything works as it should. If I try and do a rotation on a tab that doesn’t support the rotation, nothing happens. The problem occurs if I move from a tab thats rotated to a tab that isnt supposed to support that rotation. The new tab is displayed rotated too! Screenshots for all this are included here: http://tunepal.wordpress.com/2010/04/20/rotation-woes/ Is there any way I can make it rotate back to portrait on tapping the tab? I have tried the unsupported setOrientation trick, but firstly it doesnt work correctly and secondly I received a warning from Apple for including it in my last build. If (as I suspect) there is no way to limit this behavior: How do I make the microphone image scale when I rotate the device? How do I make the buttons and the progress bar expand to fit the witdh of the toolbar? Also, one of the tabs that rotates ok has a table, with a search bar. The first time I rotate to the right or to the left, I get a black bar to the right of the search bar. If I subsequently rotate back and rotate again, the bar disappears! I have enabled the struts and springs things on the search bar in the interface builder and it looks like it should behave correctly. Any ideas about how to fix this? Ideas, feedback much appreciated Bryan

    Read the article

  • Opening up process and grabbing window title. Where did I go wrong?

    - by user1632018
    In my application I allow for the users to add a program from a open file dialog, and it then adds the item to a listview and saves the items location into the tag. So what I am trying to do is when the program in the listview is selected and the button is pressed, it starts a timer and this timer checks to see if the process is running, and if it isn't launches the process, and once the process is launched it gets the window title of the process and sends it to a textbox on another form. EDIT: The question is if anyone can see why it is not working, by this I mean starting the process, then when it's started closing the form and adding the process window title to a textbox on another form. I have tried to get it working but I can't. I know that the process name it is getting is right I think my problem is to do with my for loop. Basically it isn't doing anything visible right now. I feel like I am very close with my code and im hoping it just needs a couple minor tweaks. Any help would be appreciated. Sorry if my coding practices aren't that great, im pretty new to this. EDIT:I thought I found a solution but it only works now if the process has been started already. It won't start it up. Private Sub Timer1_Tick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Timer1.Tick Dim s As String = ListView1.SelectedItems(0).Tag Dim myFile As String = Path.GetFileName(s) Dim mu As String = myFile.Replace(".exe", "").Trim() Dim f As Process Dim p As Process() = Process.GetProcessesByName(mu) For Each f In p If p.Length > 0 Then For i As Integer = 0 To p.Length - 1 ProcessID = (p(i).Id) AutoMain.Name.Text = f.MainWindowTitle Timer1.Enabled = False Me.Close() Next Else ProcessID = 0 End If If ProcessID = 0 Then Process.Start(myFile) End If Next End Sub

    Read the article

  • Redirect after refreshing update panel

    - by teebot.be
    Hello, Do you think it's possible to refresh an update panel and immediately after redirecting the response (for instance a download) ? I tried this: an invisible button - as an asyncpostbacktrigger a download button - when it is clicked the onclientclick clicks the invisible button the click event on the invisible button refreshes the update panel then the download button click event launches the download (normal postback which launches the download) However for some reason when the invisible button is clicked by the download button client script, it doesn't refresh the update panel.. Do you have an idea why it doesn't work? Or do you have other and cleaner techniques? Here's how the elements are declared: <asp:Button runat="server" ID="ButtonInvisible" Text="" Click="RefreshDisplay" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="ButtonDownload" Text="Download" OnClientClick="clickInvisible(this.id)" Click="Download" /><Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="ButtonInvisible" /></Triggers> //the javascript <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function clickInvisible(idButton) { document.getElementById('ButtonInvisible').click(); }</script> ' //the methods Download(object source, EventArgs e){Response.Redirect("test.txt")} RefreshDisplay(object source, EventArgs e){ ButtonCancel.Enabled = false;}

    Read the article

  • Zend_Dojo_Form not rendering in layout

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi, I have a quick question about adding Zend_Dojo_Form into Zend_layouts. I have a Zend_Dojo_Form that I want to display in the layout that is used for a particular controller. I can add the form to the layout without any issue however the dojo elements fail to render, as they would do if I added the form to a standard view. Is there any reason why this would be the case? Do I need to do something to the layout so that it will enable the components for this embedded form in the layout. Any other dojo enabled forms that are added in the view using this layout work fine. My form is created in the usual way: class QuickAddJobForm extends Zend_Dojo_Form{ public function init(){ $this->setName('quickaddjobfrm') ->setMethod('post') ->setAction('/addjob/start/); /*We now create the elements*/ $jobTitle = new Zend_Dojo_Form_Element_TextBox('jobtitle', array( 'trim' => true ) ); $jobTitle->setAttrib('style', 'width:200px;') ->addFilter('StripTags') ->removeDecorator('DtDdWrapper') ->removeDecorator('HtmlTag') ->removeDecorator('Label'); .... $this->addElements(array($jobTitle, ....)); In the controller I declare the layout and the form in the init function: public function init(){ $this->_helper->layout->setLayout('add-layout'); $form = new QuickAddJobForm(); $form->setDecorators(array(array('ViewScript', array('viewScript' => 'quickAddJobFormDecorator.phtml')))); $this->_helper->layout()->quickaddjob = $form; In my layout Where I want the form I have: echo $this->layout()->quickaddjob; Why would adding this form in the layout fail to render/add the Dojo elements? All that is currently being displayed are text boxes, rather than some of the other components such as ComboBoxes/FilteringSelects etc... Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Developers: How does BitLocker affect performance?

    - by Chris
    I'm an ASP.NET / C# developer. I use VS2010 all the time. I am thinking of enabling BitLocker on my laptop to protect the contents, but I am concerned about performance degradation. Developers who use IDEs like Visual Studio are working on lots and lots of files at once. More than the usual office worker, I would think. So I was curious if there are other developers out there who develop with BitLocker enabled. How has the performance been? Is it noticeable? If so, is it bad? My laptop is a 2.53GHz Core 2 Duo with 4GB RAM and an Intel X25-M G2 SSD. It's pretty snappy but I want it to stay that way. If I hear some bad stories about BitLocker, I'll keep doing what I am doing now, which is keeping stuff RAR'ed with a password when I am not actively working on it, and then SDeleting it when I am done (but it's such a pain).

    Read the article

  • How to use the Zend_Log instance that was created using the Zend_Application_Resource_Log in a model

    - by Alex
    Our Zend_Log is initialized by only adding the following lines to application.ini resources.log.stream.writerName = "Stream" resources.log.stream.writerParams.mode = "a" So Zend_Application_Resource_Log will create the instance for us. We are already able to access this instance in controllers via the following: public function getLog() { $bootstrap = $this->getInvokeArg('bootstrap'); //if (is_null($bootstrap)) return false; if (!$bootstrap->hasPluginResource('Log')) { return false; } $log = $bootstrap->getResource('Log'); return $log; } So far, so good. Now we want to use the same log instance in model classes, where we can not access the bootstrap. Our first idea was to register the very same Log instance in Zend_Registry to be able to use Zend_Registry::get('Zend_Log') everywhere we want: in our Bootstrap class: protected function _initLog() { if (!$this->hasPluginResource('Log')) { throw new Zend_Exception('Log not enabled'); } $log = $this->getResource('Log'); assert( $log != null); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Log', $log); } Unfortunately this assertion fails == $log IS NULL --- but why?? It is clear that we could just initialize the Zend_Log manually during bootstrapping without using the automatism of Zend_Application_Resource_Log, so this kind of answers will not be accepted.

    Read the article

  • Validation errors prevent the property setter being called

    - by HA
    Hi, I am looking for a simple solution to the following problem: I am using a simple TextBox control with the Text property bound to a property in the code behind. Additionally I am using a validation rule to notify the user of malformed input. ... error display style here ... Now after entering valid data into the TextBox the user can hit a button to send the data. When clicking the button the data from the bound property UserName in the code behind is evaluated and sent. The problem is that a user can enter valid data into the TextBox and this will be set in the property UserName. If the user then decides to change the text in the TextBox and the data becomes invalid, the setter of the property UserName is not called after the failed validation. This means that the last valid data remains in the property UserName, while the TextBox display the invalid data with the error indicator. If the user then clicks on the button to send the data, the last valid data will be sent instead of the current TextBox content. I know I could deactivate the button if the data is invalid and in fact I do, but the method is called in the setter of UserName. And if that is not called after a failed validation the button stays enabled. So the question is: How do I enable calling of the property setter after a failed validation?

    Read the article

  • Strange mod_rewrite problem; Website works partially

    - by Camran
    I have Ubuntu 9.10 Server... I need to get mod_rewrite working... the mod_rewrite module IS LOADED. On my server, the httpd.conf is empty, instead everything (almost) is in a file called apache2.conf. Anyways, I have also read I have to change the AllowOverride None to AllowOverride All in some file... My httpd.conf is empty as you know, but I have a folder called sites-enabled which contains a 000-default file. This is where I have set: AllowOverride All Now my goal as I stated in the last Q is to turn this link: http://mydomain.com/ad.php?ad_id=Bmw_nice_M3_497379462 into this: http://mydomain.com/Bmw_nice_M3_497379462 So as I got an answer in the last Q i inserted this into the htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks Options +Indexes RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/ad\.php RewriteRule ^(.*)$ ad.php?ad_id=$1 [L] Now, this works (no fully) when entering the url manually in the adress bar, but my website isn't working now for some reason. It is like the website is locked down or something, and unless I change AllowOverride to None it will act like that. Any ideas why? Also another note, the links inside the rewritten url doesn't work properly (images are not shown, while some are shown)...

    Read the article

  • Redirecting http to https for a directory, via .htaccess, using mod_alias only

    - by Belinda
    I have the common problem of wanting to redirect requests for a certain restricted access directory from http to https, so that users' login credentials are sent in a secure way. However, I do not have mod_rewrite enabled on my server. I only have mod_alias. This means I have to use the RedirectMatch command. I can't use the usual solutions that use RewriteCond and RewriteRule. (A note on the politics: I am a small-fry subsite maintainer in a very large organisation, so the server admins are unlikely to be willing to change the server config for me!) The following line works, but forms an infinite loop (because the rewritten URL is still caught by the initial regular expression): RedirectMatch permanent ^/intranet(.*)$ https://example.com/intranet$1 One of my internal IT guys has suggested I avoid the infinite loop by moving the files to a new directory with a new name (eg /intranet2/). That seems pretty ugly to me. And people could still accidentally/deliberately revert to an insecure connection by visiting http://example.com/intranet2/ directly. Then I tried this, but it didn't work: RedirectMatch permanent ^http:(.*)/intranet(.*)$ https://example.com/intranet$1 I suspect it didn't work because the first argument must be a file path from the root directory, so it can't start with "http:". So: any better ideas how to do this?

    Read the article

  • Passing Javascript value to PHP Variable using ajax

    - by shels
    I am trying to use a Flash detection script to assess whether Flash Plugin is enabled in the user browser so that a different page loads. The Flash detection script is as follows, using jquery 1.8.2 and jquery.jqplugin 1.0.2 <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.8.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.jqplugin.1.0.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#withflash").hide(); $("#noflash").hide(); if ($.browser.flash == true) $("#withflash").show (); else $("#noflash").show (); }); </script> <div id="withflash">Flash Supported</div> <div id="noflash">Flash Not Supported</div> I get the display that "Flash Supported" if Flash Plugin is present.. I need to capture the value whether flash plugin value is true in a php variable $hasFlashSupport as below: <?php echo " $hasFlashSupport"; exit; ?> I am aware that PHP is server based and Javascript is client based.. Hence Ajax would be a nice option to capture the javascript variable to my php variable. I am totally ignorant about Ajax syntax and how to achieve it. Request the experts here to help me out with the code on how this can be achieved... Thanking all of you in advance..

    Read the article

  • JQuery Control Update Not Happening

    - by Mad Halfling
    Hi, I've got a script that disables a button input control, empties a table body and then (after an AJAX call) re-populates it. It all works fine but sometimes there are a lot of rows in the table so the browser (IE) takes a while to empty and refill it. The strange thing is, while the rows are being emptied, the button still appears to be enabled, however if I put an alert between the button being disabled and the tbody being emptied, the button works properly, disabling visibly before the the alert comes up. Is there any way I can get the button to update before the resource consuming table emptying process/command commences? Thx MH Code sample, as requested (but it's not complex, so I didn't initially include it) $('#Search').attr('disabled', true); $('#StatusSpan').empty(); $('#DisplayTBody').empty(); then I perform my AJAX call, re-enable the button and repopulate the table. As I mentioned, normally this is really quick and isn't a problem, but if there are, say, 1500 rows in the table it takes a while to clear down but the 'Search' button doesn't update on the screen, however if I put an alert after the .attr('disabled' line the button visibly updates when the alert box is up, but without that the button doesn't visibly disable until after the table clears (which is about 3 or 4 seconds with 1500 rows), it just stays in it's down/"mid-press" state. I don't have a problem with the time the browser is taking to render the table changes, that's just life, but I need the users to see visible feedback so they know the search has started

    Read the article

  • how to clear a data in tableviewcell again start reload?

    - by Ios_learner
    i'm developing a bluetooth apps.1) I want to hide a tableview when i start the apps..after i pressed a action button i want to enable a tableview.. 2)if i again press a action button means tableviewcell clear the data and show empty before searching..give me an idea.. some of the code- - (IBAction)connectButtonTouched:(id)sender { [self.deviceTable reloadData]; self.connectButton.enabled = YES; [self.deviceTable reloadData]; peripheralManager = [[PeripheralManager alloc] init]; peripheralManager.delegate = self; [peripheralManager scanForPeripheralsAndConnect]; [self.deviceTable reloadData]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:(float)5.0 target:self selector:@selector (connectionTimer:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; alert=[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Bluetooth" message:@"Scanning" delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" otherButtonTitles:nil]; UIActivityIndicatorView *progress=[[UIActivityIndicatorView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(125, 50, 30, 30)]; [alert addSubview:progress]; [progress startAnimating]; [alert show]; } tableview -(NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } -(NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [device count]; } -(UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier=@"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if(cell==nil) { cell =[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; } cell.textLabel.text=[device objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.accessoryType=UITableViewCellAccessoryDetailDisclosureButton; return cell; } TableView Delegate - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell *cell=[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; [self performSegueWithIdentifier:@"TableDetails" sender:tableView]; }

    Read the article

  • Difference between SET autocommit=1 and START TRANSACTION in mysql (Have I missed something?)

    - by tkolar
    Hey there, I am reading up on transactions in mysql and am not sure whether I have grasped something specific correctly, and I want to be sure I understood that correctly, so here goes. I know what a transaction is supposed to do, I'm just not sure whether I understood the statement semantics or not. So, my question is, is anything wrong, (and, if that is the case, what is wrong) with the following: By default, autocommit mode is enabled in mysql. Now, SET autocommit=0; will begin a transaction, SET autocommit=1; will implicitly commit. It is possible to COMMIT; as well as ROLLBACK;, in both of which cases autocommit is still set to 0 afterwards (and a new transaction is implicitly started). START TRANSACTION; will basically SET autocommit=0; until a COMMIT; or ROLLBACK; takes place. In other words, START TRANSACTION; and SET autocommit=0; are equivalent, except for the fact that START TRANSACTION; does the equivalent of implicitly adding a SET autocommit=0; after COMMIT; or ROLLBACK; If that is the case, I don't understand http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.5/en/set-transaction.html#isolevel_serializable - seeing as having an isolation level implies that there is a transaction, meaning that autocommit should be off anyway? And if there is another difference (other than the one described above) between beginning a transaction and setting autocommit, what is it? Thanks a lot in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • Hide form if javascript disabled

    - by Kero
    I need to check on disabling JavaScript if the user disabled JavaScript from browser or firewall or any other place he will never show the form. I have lots of search and solutions, but unfortunately didn't got the right one. - Using style with no-script tag: This one could be broke with removing style... <noscript> <style type="text/css"> .HideClass { display:none; } </style> </noscript> The past code will work just fine but there is lots of problems in no-script tag as here Beside that i don't want to redirect user with no-script tag too...Beside that i can quickly stop loading the page to broke this meta or disable Meta tag from IE: <meta http-equiv="refresh" content="0; URL=Frm_JavaScriptDisable.aspx" /> Another way to redirect user with JavaScript but this will work let's say for 99% of users and this one isn't lovely way and will slow down the website... window.location="http://www.location.com/page.aspx"; Is there is any other ideas or suggestions to secure working with JavaScript...and prevent user from entering the website or see my form except when JavaScript enabled...

    Read the article

  • How can I provide property-level string formatting?

    - by jhubsharp
    Not sure if the question wording is accurate, but here's what I want to do: I want to databind a class with some strings in it: class MyClass { public string MyProperty { get; set; } public string MyProperty2 { get; set; } } When databinding, everything behaves normally. On the back end, I'm writing to a file and I want MyProperty2 to always be encrypted using some encryption algorithm. I want my back-end code to write each string without needing to know that encryption is required (I want the class to know it should be encrypted, not the consumer). Can I do this with a type converter, or something similar? EDIT: There are other scenarios as well. Some booleans I want to format as "Y" or "N", other booleans I want formatted as "Enabled" / "Disabled", etc. I can write (and have written) helper methods and let the file writer call the helper methods as appropriate, I'm just wondering if there's a way to do this without the file writer needing to know which objects need which kind of formatting and let the objects tell that to the file writer.

    Read the article

  • Form doesn't resize smoothly with a timer event

    - by BDotA
    I have a grid control at the bottom of my form and it can be shown or hidden if user wants to show/hide it. So one way was to well use AutoSize of the form and change the Visuble property of that grid to true or false,... But I thought let's make it a little cooler! so I wanted the form to resize a little more slowly, like a garage door! So I dropped a Timer on the form and started increasing the height of the form little by little while the timer ticks... so something like this when user says show/hide the grid: timer1.Enabled = true; timer1.Start(); and something like this on the timer_click event: this.Height = this.Height + 5; if(this.Height -10 > ErrorsGrid.Bottom ) timer1.Stop(); It kind of works but still not perfect. For example it lags at the very beginning, stop a like a second and then start moving it...So now with this idea in mind what alterations do you suggest I should do to make this thing look and work better?

    Read the article

  • Manage the scrolling of just one element in a ScrollView

    - by morgan1189
    So, I have a ScrollView which has cards on it. ScrollView must be paging enabled. The goal is that the user must be able to scroll it, even if it has only one card. Since i am having the frame of ScrollView of exactly the same width and height as a picture of a card, i decided to increase the width of a ScrollView.contentSize and add one point to it. It turns out to be working fine, but it glitches a bit - when i drag the card to the left, and then grab it again it moves to right a little bit (i guess, for the value of that one point). If i increase the contentSize, the shift increases too (for example, if the content size is increased by ten, the shift value is ten points too). It really irritates me a lot and I want to get rid of it. Any advice on how to do that? Help is much appreciated. UPD: I tried to manually re-center the card in the scrollViewDidEndDecelerating but that didn't help. My guess for now is that the problem can be solved by setting the content offset to the right value (because now it's (0,0)), but I can't figure out how to do it.

    Read the article

  • Cannot determine why pointer variable will not address elements in a string in this program?

    - by Smith Will Suffice
    I am attempting to utilize a pointer variable to access elements of a string and there are issues with my code generating a compilation error: #include <stdio.h> #define MAX 29 char arrayI[250]; char *ptr; int main(void) { ptr = arrayI; puts("Enter string to arrayI: up to 29 chars:\n"); fgets(arrayI, MAX, stdin); printf("\n Now printing array by pointer:\n"); printf("%s", *ptr); ptr = arrayI[1]; //(I set the pointer to the second array char element) printf("%c", *ptr); //Here is where I was wanting to use my pointer to //point to individual array elements. return 0; } My compiler crieth: [Warning] assignment makes pointer from integer without a cast [enabled by default] I do not see where my pointer was ever assigned to the integer data type? Could someone please explain why my attempt to implement a pointer variable is failing? Thanks all!

    Read the article

  • Oracle Customer Reference Forum – Apex IT – Oracle Sales Cloud

    - by Richard Lefebvre
    Normal 0 false false false EN-US X-NONE X-NONE MicrosoftInternetExplorer4 Apex IT, an Oracle Platinum Partner, wins Nucleus Research's ROI Award with a 724% return. Learn how you can improve your ROI with Oracle Sales and Marketing Cloud. We are pleased to invite you to a discussion with Apex IT on industry trends, why sales automation is important, the decision making process for choosing Oracle Sales Cloud, and benefits achieved since going live. Apex IT works with clients large and small, assisting them at all stages in the process: organizing ideas and developing strategies, selecting the most appropriate package, implementing it for best results, and keeping systems optimized with long-term support. Please plan to register at least three hours prior to the event taking place in order to participate and get the dial-in information associated in due time. Speakers: Bryan Hinz, Vice President of Business Development, Apex IT (Speaker) Chris Haven, Senior Director Product Management, Oracle (Moderator) Organization Profile: Since 1997, Apex IT has helped public sector, corporate and higher education clients use technology to streamline their processes and increase productivity and profitability. Based on products and best practices from Oracle our experts provide a full range of enterprise solutions including CX/CRM and related applications that support marketing, sales, and service; HR and HR Helpdesk; and Business Intelligence. Our project approach is results-driven and our attitude is people-focused. Industry: Professional Services Products/Services: Oracle Sales Cloud Organization Website: http://apexit.com/ Event Description: In this informal reference call, you will have the opportunity to hear Apex IT discuss industry trends, why sales automation is important, the decision making process for choosing Oracle Sales Cloud, and benefits achieved since going live. The call will open with a brief overview, followed by discussion, and an open question and answer session. Please allow one hour for the call. Why Oracle: Apex IT needed a mobile-enabled sales force automation tool that could promote account collaboration and integrate with Microsoft Outlook. Oracle Sales Cloud met these needs and Apex IT’s requirements for: Improved collaborative selling Improved quality of customer engagement and information Improved business development Improved pipeline management Please plan to register at least three hours prior to the event taking place in order to participate and get the dial-in information associated in due time. After you register your information will be forwarded through an Approval Process. Once your registration request has been validated against the invitation database, you will receive an email confirmation with your registration details as long as there is availability. Please be advised that Apex IT will revise the registrants list and may dismiss registrations as they see fit. Note: To access more information at the corporate site you would need an Oracle.com account. If you do not already have an account, getting one is easy and free. Click on the link and you will be prompted to create an account. After you have created your account, you will be automatically returned to the full page description of this event. Register Now! /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Table Normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-priority:99; mso-style-qformat:yes; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0cm 5.4pt 0cm 5.4pt; mso-para-margin-top:0cm; mso-para-margin-right:0cm; mso-para-margin-bottom:10.0pt; mso-para-margin-left:0cm; line-height:115%; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; mso-ascii-font-family:Calibri; mso-ascii-theme-font:minor-latin; mso-hansi-font-family:Calibri; mso-hansi-theme-font:minor-latin; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-bidi-theme-font:minor-bidi;}

    Read the article

  • Add Your Gmail Account to Outlook 2010 Using IMAP

    - by Mysticgeek
    If you’re upgrading from Outlook 2003 to 2010, you might want to use IMAP with your Gmail account to synchronize mail across multiple machines. Using our guide, you will be able to start using it in no time. Enable IMAP in Gmail First log into your Gmail account and open the Settings panel. Click on the Forwarding and POP/IMAP tab and verify IMAP is enabled and save changes. Next open Outlook 2010, click on the File tab to access the Backstage view. Click on Account Settings and Add and remove accounts or change existing connection settings. In the Account Settings window click on the New button. Enter in your name, email address, and password twice then click Next. Outlook will configure the email server settings, the amount of time it takes will vary. Provided everything goes correctly, the configuration will be successful and you can begin using your account. Manually Configure IMAP Settings If the above instructions don’t work, then we’ll need to manually configure the settings. Again, go into Auto Account Setup and select Manually configure server settings or additional server types and click Next.   Select Internet E-mail – Connect to POP or IMAP server to send and receive e-mail messages. Now we need to manually enter in our settings similar to the following. Under the Server Information section verify the following. Account Type: IMAP Incoming mail server: imap.gmail.com Outgoing mail server (SMTP): smtp.gmail.com Note: If you have a Google Apps account make sure to put the full email address ([email protected]) in the Your Name and User Name fields. Note: If you live outside of the US you might need to use imap.googlemail.com and smtp.googlemail.com Next, we need to click on the More Settings button… In the Internet E-mail Settings screen that pops up, click on the Outgoing Server tab, and check the box next to My outgoing server (SMTP) requires authentication. Also select the radio button next to Use same settings as my incoming mail server. In the same window click on the Advanced tab and verify the following. Incoming server: 993 Incoming server encrypted connection: SSL Outgoing server encrypted connection TLS Outgoing server: 587 Note: You will need to change the Outgoing server encrypted connection first, otherwise it will default back to port 25. Also, if TLS doesn’t work, we were able to successfully use Auto. Click OK when finished. Now we want to test the settings, before continuing on…it’s just easier that way incase something was entered incorrectly. To make sure the settings are tested, check the box Test Account Settings by clicking the Next button. If you’ve entered everything in correctly, both tasks will be completed successfully and you can close out of the window. and begin using your account via Outlook 2010. You’ll get a final congratulations message you can close out of… And begin using your account via Outlook 2010. Conclusion Using IMAP allows you to synchronize email across multiple machines and devices. The IMAP feature in Gmail is free to use, and this should get you started using it with Outlook 2010. If you’re still using 2007 or just upgraded to it, check out our guide on how to use Gmail IMAP in Outlook 2007. Similar Articles Productive Geek Tips Add Your Gmail To Windows Live MailForce Outlook 2007 to Download Complete IMAP ItemsUse Gmail IMAP in Microsoft Outlook 2007Prevent Outlook with Gmail IMAP from Showing Duplicate Tasks in the To-Do BarSetting up Gmail IMAP Support for Windows Vista Mail TouchFreeze Alternative in AutoHotkey The Icy Undertow Desktop Windows Home Server – Backup to LAN The Clear & Clean Desktop Use This Bookmarklet to Easily Get Albums Use AutoHotkey to Assign a Hotkey to a Specific Window Latest Software Reviews Tinyhacker Random Tips VMware Workstation 7 Acronis Online Backup DVDFab 6 Revo Uninstaller Pro Cool Looking Skins for Windows Media Player 12 Move the Mouse Pointer With Your Face Movement Using eViacam Boot Windows Faster With Boot Performance Diagnostics Create Ringtones For Your Android Phone With RingDroid Enhance Your Laptop’s Battery Life With These Tips Easily Search Food Recipes With Recipe Chimp

    Read the article

  • BizTalk and IBM WebSphere MQ Errors

    - by Christopher House
    The project I'm currently working on is going to make heavy use of IBM WebShere MQ to send messages from BizTalk to the client's iSeries box.  I'd never previously worked with WebSphere MQ, so I didn't really have any idea what it would take to get this to work.  I was pleasantly surprised that it wasn't too difficult to configure a send port and pass messages through it to a queue.  Or so I thought... A couple of weeks ago, the client gave me the name of a host, queue manager and queue that I'd been using for my development.  Everything was going great, I was able to put messages onto the queue, I was happy, the client was happy.  Life was good.  Then the client tells me that the host I've been connecting to is actually a Solaris box and that in prod, we'll actually be sending to an iSeries.  We both agree that it would behoove us to start pointing my dev environment to their dev iSeries box in order to flush out any weirdness there might be.  As it turns out, it was a good thing we made the change.  As soon as I reconfigured my BRE policy that sets endpoint information to point to the iSeries queue, we started seeing failures in the event log.  An example from the event log: Event Type: Error Event Source: BizTalk Server 2009 Event Category: BizTalk Server 2009 Event ID: 5754 Date:  6/9/2010 Time:  10:16:41 AM User:  N/A Computer: WINDOWS2003 Description: A message sent to adapter "MQSC" on send port "<my dynamic sendport name>" with URI "mqsc://client/tcp/<hostname>(1414)/<queue manager name>/<queue name>" is suspended.  Error details: Failure encountered while attempting to open queue. queue = <queue name> queueManager = <queue manager name>, reasonCode = 6124  MessageId:  {76825C7C-611A-4A56-8A6F-35E1124BDB5C}  InstanceID: {BA389103-DF9B-493F-8C61-44574822AAD6} The key piece of information in the event entry is the reasonCode, 6124.  A quick Google search shows that reasonCode 6124 is the code for MQRC_NOT_CONNECTED.  According to IBM's docs, this means that you've tried to send a message without first opening a connection to the queue manager.  Obviously, in the context of BizTalk, this is an unexpected error, since this sort of thing should be managed entirely by the send adapter. Perusing IBM's documentation a bit more, I came across some info on how to turn on tracing for MQ.  With tracing enabled, I tried sending a message again, then went and reviewed the trace files.  The bulk of the information in the trace files didn't mean a thing to me, but at the end of one of the files, I did notice this: 00006257 15:40:20.327795   3500.4      RSESS:000009 ------{  reqReleaseConn 00006258 15:40:20.328714   3500.4      RSESS:000009 ------}  reqReleaseConn (rc=OK) 00006259 15:40:20.328727   3500.4      RSESS:000009 ------{  xcsClearTraceIdent 0000625A 15:40:20.328739   3500.4           :       ------}  xcsClearTraceIdent (rc=OK) 0000625B 15:40:20.328752   3500.4           :       -----}! trmzstMQCONNX (rc=MQRC_NOT_AUTHORIZED) 0000625C 15:40:20.328765   3500.4           :       ----}! MQCONNX (rc=MQRC_NOT_AUTHORIZED) 0000625D 15:40:20.328766   3500.4           :       ---}! ImqQueueManager::connect (rc=MQRC_NOT_AUTHORIZED) 0000625E 15:40:20.328767   3500.4           :       --}! ImqObject::open (rc=MQRC_NOT_CONNECTED) 0000625F 15:40:20.328768   3500.4           :       --{  ImqQueue::lock 00006260 15:40:20.328769   3500.4           :       --}! ImqQueue::lock (rc=Unknown(1)) 00006261 15:40:20.328769   3500.4           :       --{  ImqQueue::unlock 00006262 15:40:20.328769   3500.4           :       --}! ImqQueue::unlock (rc=Unknown(1)) It seemed like the MQRC_NOT_CONNECTED error was being caused by a security related issue (MQRC_NOT_AUTHORIZED).  I did notice something earlier in the log where it appeared that MQ was passing a field named UID with a value equal to the account name that my BizTalk service was running under.  I ended up creating a new local account on the BizTalk server that had the same name as a user which had access to the queue manager on the iSeries.  I then created a new host instance that ran under this new account, created a send handler for the MQSC adapter on this new host instance and reconfigured my orchestration to run on the new host instance.  After bouncing all my host instances, I was now able to send messages to the iSeries. It's still not clear to me why we were able to connect to the Solaris server.  I ended up contacting IBM's support and they did confirm that the process sending to MQ does in fact pass the identity to the queue manager it's connecting to.

    Read the article

  • Control to Control Binding in WPF/Silverlight

    - by psheriff
    In the past if you had two controls that you needed to work together, you would have to write code. For example, if you want a label control to display any text a user typed into a text box you would write code to do that. If you want turn off a set of controls when a user checks a check box, you would also have to write code. However, with XAML, these operations become very easy to do. Bind Text Box to Text Block As a basic example of this functionality, let’s bind a TextBlock control to a TextBox. When the user types into a TextBox the value typed in will show up in the TextBlock control as well. To try this out, create a new Silverlight or WPF application in Visual Studio. On the main window or user control type in the following XAML. <StackPanel>  <TextBox Margin="10" x:Name="txtData" />  <TextBlock Margin="10"              Text="{Binding ElementName=txtData,                             Path=Text}" /></StackPanel> Now run the application and type into the TextBox control. As you type you will see the data you type also appear in the TextBlock control. The {Binding} markup extension is responsible for this behavior. You set the ElementName attribute of the Binding markup to the name of the control that you wish to bind to. You then set the Path attribute to the name of the property of that control you wish to bind to. That’s all there is to it! Bind the IsEnabled Property Now let’s apply this concept to something that you might use in a business application. Consider the following two screen shots. The idea is that if the Add Benefits check box is un-checked, then the IsEnabled property of the three “Benefits” check boxes will be set to false (Figure 1). If the Add Benefits check box is checked, then the IsEnabled property of the “Benefits” check boxes will be set to true (Figure 2). Figure 1: Uncheck Add Benefits and the Benefits will be disabled. Figure 2: Check Add Benefits and the Benefits will be enabled. To accomplish this, you would write XAML to bind to each of the check boxes in the “Benefits To Add” section to the check box named chkBenefits. Below is a fragment of the XAML code that would be used. <CheckBox x:Name="chkBenefits" /> <CheckBox Content="401k"           IsEnabled="{Binding ElementName=chkBenefits,                               Path=IsChecked}" /> Since the IsEnabled property is a boolean type and the IsChecked property is also a boolean type, you can bind these two together. If they were different types, or if you needed them to set the IsEnabled property to the inverse of the IsChecked property then you would need to use a ValueConverter class. SummaryOnce you understand the basics of data binding in XAML, you can eliminate a lot code. Connecting controls together is as easy as just setting the ElementName and Path properties of the Binding markup extension. NOTE: You can download the complete sample code at my website. http://www.pdsa.com/downloads. Choose Tips & Tricks, then "SL – Basic Control Binding" from the drop-down. Good Luck with your Coding,Paul Sheriff ** SPECIAL OFFER FOR MY BLOG READERS **Visit http://www.pdsa.com/Event/Blog for a free eBook on "Fundamentals of N-Tier".

    Read the article

  • How to Manage AutoArchive in Outlook 2010

    - by Mysticgeek
    If you want to keep Outlook 2010 clean and run faster, one method is to set up the AutoArchive feature. Today we show you how to configure and manage the feature in Outlook 2010. Using AutoArchive allows you to manage space in your mailbox or on the email server by moving older items to another location on your hard drive. Enable and Configure Auto Archive In Outlook 2010 Auto Archive is not enabled by default. To turn it on, click on the File tab to access Backstage View, then click on Options. The Outlook Options window opens then click on Advanced then the AutoArchive Settings button. The AutoArchive window opens and you’ll notice everything is grayed out. Check the box next to Run AutoArchive every… Note: If you select the Permanently delete old items option, mails will not be archived. Now you can choose the settings for how you want to manage the AutoArchive feature. Select how often you want it to run, prompt before the feature runs, where to move items, and other actions you want to happen during the process. After you’ve made your selections click OK. Manually Configure Individual Folders For more control over individual folders that are archived, right-click on the folder and click on Properties. Click on the AutoArchive tab and choose the settings you want to change for that folder. For instance you might not want to archive a certain folder or move archived data to a specific folder. If you want to manually archive and backup an item, click on the File tab, Cleanup Tools, then Archive. Click the radio button next to Archive this folder and all subfolders. Select the folder you want to archive. In this example we want to archive this folder to a specific location of its own. The .pst files are saved in your documents folder and if you need to access them at a later time you can. After you’ve setup AutoArchive you can find items in the archived files. In the Navigation Pane expand the Archives folder in the list. You can then view and access your messages. You can also access them by clicking the File tab \ Open then Open Outlook Data File. Then you can browse to the archived file you want to open. Archiving old emails is a good way to help keep a nice clean mailbox, help speed up your Outlook experience, and save space on the email server. The other nice thing is you can configure your email archives and specific folders to meet your email needs. Similar Articles Productive Geek Tips Configure AutoArchive In Outlook 2007Quickly Clean Your Inbox in Outlook 2003/2007Open Different Outlook Features in Separate Windows to Improve ProductivityMake Outlook Faster by Disabling Unnecessary Add-InsCreate an Email Template in Outlook 2003 TouchFreeze Alternative in AutoHotkey The Icy Undertow Desktop Windows Home Server – Backup to LAN The Clear & Clean Desktop Use This Bookmarklet to Easily Get Albums Use AutoHotkey to Assign a Hotkey to a Specific Window Latest Software Reviews Tinyhacker Random Tips CloudBerry Online Backup 1.5 for Windows Home Server Snagit 10 VMware Workstation 7 Acronis Online Backup AceStock, a Tiny Desktop Quote Monitor Gmail Button Addon (Firefox) Hyperwords addon (Firefox) Backup Outlook 2010 Daily Motivator (Firefox) FetchMp3 Can Download Videos & Convert Them to Mp3

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235  | Next Page >