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  • getting service from wsdd via xpath not wroking

    - by subes
    Hi, I am trying to get the XPath "/deployment/service". Tested on this site: http://www.xmlme.com/XpathTool.aspx <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <deployment xmlns="http://xml.apache.org/axis/wsdd/" xmlns:java="http://xml.apache.org /axis/wsdd/providers/java"> <service name="kontowebservice" provider="java:RPC" style="rpc" use="literal"> <parameter name="wsdlTargetNamespace" value="http://strategies.spine"/> <parameter name="wsdlServiceElement" value="ExposerService"/> <parameter name="wsdlServicePort" value="kontowebservice"/> <parameter name="className" value="dmd4biz.container.webservice.konto.internal.KontoWebServiceImpl_WS"/> <parameter name="wsdlPortType" value="Exposer"/> <parameter name="typeMappingVersion" value="1.2"/> <operation xmlns:operNS="http://strategies.spine" xmlns:rtns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" name="expose" qname="operNS:expose" returnQName="exposeReturn" returnType="rtns:anyType" soapAction=""> <parameter xmlns:tns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" qname="in0" type="tns:anyType"/> </operation> <parameter name="allowedMethods" value="expose"/> <parameter name="scope" value="Request"/> </service> </deployment> I absolutely can't find out why it always tells me that my xpath does not match... This may be stupid, but am I missing something?

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  • jQuery.ajax() + empty JSON object = parse error

    - by roosteronacid
    I get a parse error when using jQuery to load some JSON data. Here's a snippet of my code: jQuery.ajax({ dataType: "json", success: function (json) { jQuery.each(json, function () { alert(this["columnName"]); }); } }); I get no errors when parsing a non-empty JSON object. So my guess is that the problem is with my serializer. Question is: how do I format an empty JSON object which jQuery won't consider malformed? This is what I've tried so far, with no success: {[]} {[null]} {} {null} {"rows": []} {"rows": null} {"rows": {}} UPDATE: I can understand that I've been somewhat vague--let me try and clarify: Parsing of the JSON object is not the issue here--JQuery is - I think. jQuery throws a parse-error (invokes the error function). It seems like jQuery's internal JSON validation is not accepting any of the before mentioned objects. Not even the valid ones. Output of the error function is: XMLHttpRequest: XMLHttpRequest readyState=4 status=200 textStatus: parsererror errorThrown: undefined This goes for all of the before mentioned objects.

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  • How to catch YouTube embed code and turn into URL

    - by Jonathan Vanasco
    I need to strip YouTube embed codes down to their URL only. This is the exact opposite of all but one question on StackOverflow. Most people want to turn the URL into an embed code. This question addresses the usage patttern I want, but is tied to a specific embed code's regex ( Strip YouTube Embed Code Down to URL Only ) I'm not familiar with how YouTube has offered embeds over the years - or how the sizes differ. According to their current site, there are 2 possible embed templates and a variety of options. If that's it, I can handle a regex myself -- but I was hoping someone had more knowledge they could share, so I could write a proper regex pattern that matches them all and not run into endless edge-cases. The full use case scenario : user enters content in web based wysiwig editor backend cleans out youtube & other embed codes; reformats approved embeds into an internal format as the text is all converted to markdown. on display, appropriate current template/code display for youtube or other 3rd party site is generated At a previous company, our tech-team devised a plan where YouTube videos were embedded by listing the URL only. That worked great , but it was in a CMS where everyone was trained. I'm trying to create a similar storage, but for user-generated-content.

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  • How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

    - by Frerich Raabe
    I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

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  • How does the CheckBox obtain it's respective drawables?

    - by alex2k8
    The CheckBox class extends the CompoundButton, but add nothing to it. But some how it obtains it's respective look. I found some declarations in Android sources, but wonder how they are mapped to CheckBox class? public class CheckBox extends CompoundButton { public CheckBox(Context context) { this(context, null); } public CheckBox(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { this(context, attrs, com.android.internal.R.attr.checkboxStyle); } public CheckBox(Context context, AttributeSet attrs, int defStyle) { super(context, attrs, defStyle); } } Styles <style name="Theme"> <item name="checkboxStyle">@android:style/Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox</item> </style> <style name="Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox"> <item name="android:background">@android:drawable/btn_check_label_background</item> <item name="android:button">@android:drawable/btn_check</item> </style> EDIT: Probably I was not clear... I understand how the drawable assigned to Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox style, but how this style assigned to CheckBox class? I see the ".CheckBox" in the style name, but is this naming convention really what makes the trick? If so, what are the rules? If I derive MyCheckBox from CompoundButton, can I just define the Widget.CompoundButton.MyCheckBox style and it will work?

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  • Cannot connect to SQL Server from ASP.NET MVC app

    - by Dan Fergus
    I have an ASP.NET MVC app that has on a hosted server for over a year, connecting to SQL Server. I've had to change hosting services, the new one supports MVC 1.0. I've also moved a non MVC ASP app to the same hosting service. Now, MY MVC based app retturnes this error when I try to validate a user login. A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) Now, the non-MVC app can access the exact same database and authenticate users just fine. The MVC app, when run from my dev box connects fine. It also run/connects/authenticates without problem when I install and run the site from an internal SQL 2008 server running IIS 7. I, along with the hosting support techs, am at a loss how the exact same connect string works every where except on the hosted server, and only when run from inside an ASP.NET MVC web app. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

    - by devoured elysium
    When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

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  • Returning XML natively in a .NET (C#) webservice?

    - by James McMahon
    I realize that SOAP webservices in .NET return XML representation of whatever object the web method returns, but if I want to return data formatting in XML what is the best object to store it in? I am using the answer to this question to write my XML, here is the code: XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(pathToOutput); writer.WriteStartDocument(); writer.WriteStartElement("People"); writer.WriteStartElement("Person"); writer.WriteAttributeString("Name", "Nick"); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteStartElement("Person"); writer.WriteStartAttribute("Name"); writer.WriteValue("Nick"); writer.WriteEndAttribute(); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteEndDocument(); writer.Flush(); Now I can return this output as a String to my calling webmethod, but it shows up as <string> XML HERE </string>, is there anyway to just return the full xml? Please in your answer, give an example of how to use said object with either XmlWriter or another internal object (if you consider XmlWriter to be a poor choice). The System.Xml package (namespace) has many objects, but I haven't been able to uncover decent documentation on how to use the objects together, or what to use for what situations.

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  • trouble setting up anonymous login in ejabberd

    - by sofia
    Hi, In ejabberd.cfg I have the following {host_config, "thisislove-MacBook-2.local", [{auth_method, [internal, anonymous]}, {allow_multiple_connections, false}, {anonymous_protocol, both}]}. but when using speeqe javascript client (speeqe.com) to connect, I see it sends <body rid='1366284187' xmlns='http://jabber.org/protocol/httpbind' to='thisislove-macbook-2.local' xml:lang='en' wait='60' hold='1' window='5' content='text/xml; charset=utf-8' ver='1.6' xmpp:version='1.0' xmlns:xmpp='urn:xmpp:xbosh'/> and the server responds with <body xmlns='http://jabber.org/protocol/httpbind' sid='f89bf034b02fa6b884bb0c55be3f1f69e45e3866' wait='60' requests='2' inactivity='30' maxpause='120' polling='2' ver='1.8' from='thisislove-macbook-2.local' secure='true' authid='353072658' xmlns:xmpp='urn:xmpp:xbosh' xmlns:stream='http://etherx.jabber.org/streams' xmpp:version='1.0'><stream:features xmlns:stream='http://etherx.jabber.org/streams'><mechanisms xmlns='urn:ietf:params:xml:ns:xmpp-sasl'><mechanism>DIGEST-MD5</mechanism><mechanism>PLAIN</mechanism></mechanisms><register xmlns='http://jabber.org/features/iq-register'/></stream:features></body> Notice the mechanisms, DIGEST-MD5 & PLAIN. If I'm not mistaken it should have ANONYMOUS as a mechanism as well. So what happens is that speeqe simply terminates the connection. As such I'm thinking i must be missing something in the anonymous configuration or the muc config. In the mod_muc configg, I have {mod_muc, [ %%{host, "conference.@HOST@"}, {access, muc}, {access_create, muc}, {access_persistent, muc}, {access_admin, muc_admin}, {max_room_name, 190}, {max_room_desc, 190}, {max_users, 500} ]} So what am I missing? Thanks

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  • 503 server response for Googlebot

    - by Hallik
    I put an .htaccess file in my webroot with the following contents RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} ^.*(Googlebot|Googlebot|Mediapartners|Adsbot|Feedfetcher)-?(Google|Image)? [NC] RewriteRule .* /var/www/503.html This website is in maintenance mode, and I don't want anything indexed yet. I tested the code with a firefox User-Agent switcher plugin, and looking at the access log it shows this at the end of each log entry, but watching in TamperData or Firebug, it still returns a 200 server response instead of a 503. What am I doing wrong? "Mozilla/5.0 (compatible; Googlebot/2.1; +http://www.google.com/bot.html)" contents of /var/www/503.html <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 3.2//EN"> <html> <head> <title>503 - Service temporary unavailable</title> </head> <body> <h1>503 - Service temporary unavailable</h1> <p>Sorry, this website is currently down for maintainance please retry later</p> </body> </html> I get this in my error log. LogLevel debug, would that go into the vhost in a specific place? Every answer I see on google is something different. Request exceeded the limit of 10 internal redirects due to probable configuration error. Use 'LimitInternalRecursion' to increase the limit if necessary. Use 'LogLevel debug' to get a backtrace.

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  • How to inherit the current path when invoking Maven's exec-maven-plugin?

    - by wishihadabettername
    I have an <exec-maven-plugin> which calls an external command (in this case, svnversion). The command is in the path for the current user. However, when a separate shell is spawned by the plugin, the path is not initialized. I don't want to hardcode or define a variable for each external command (there would be too much to maintain, especially that there are both Windows and *nix users). My pom.xml contains the following: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.1</version> <executions> <execution> <id>svnversion-exec</id> <phase>process-resources</phase> <goals> <goal>exec</goal> </goals> <configuration> <executable>svnversion</executable> <arguments> <argument><![CDATA[ >version.txt ]]></argument> </arguments> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin> Currently I get the following output: [INFO] [exec:exec {execution: svnversion-exec}] 'svnversion' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. [ERROR] BUILD ERROR: Result of cmd.exe /X /C "svnversion >version.txt" execution is: '1'. Thank you!

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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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  • Apache + Passenger not passing on custom status codes

    - by harm
    I'm currently building an API. This API communicates with the client via status codes. I created several custom status codes (as per http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec6.html#sec6) in order to inform the client on certain things. For example I introduced the 481 status code to signify a specific client error. The Rails app I wrote works like a charm. But when Apache and Passenger are serving it things run aground. When I provoke a 481 error the response header looks like this: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Date: Wed, 19 May 2010 06:37:05 GMT Server: Apache/2.2.9 (Debian) Phusion_Passenger/2.2.5 mod_ssl/2.2.9 OpenSSL/0.9.8g X-Powered-By: Phusion Passenger (mod_rails/mod_rack) 2.2.5 Cache-Control: no-cache X-Runtime: 1938 Set-Cookie: _session_id=32bc259dc763193ad57ae7dc19d5f57e; path=/; HttpOnly Content-Length: 62 Status: 481 Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 As you can see the original Status header is still there almost a the end. But the 'true' status header (the very first line) is quiet different. It seems that Apache doesn't like Status headers it has no knowledge of and thus assumes an error. Is there anyway to fix this? Maybe via the mod_headers ( http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.2/mod/mod_headers.html) module? I don't know enough of Apache to figure this out on my own. Thanks,

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  • Java Play Mustache NPE Error

    - by zanedev
    We are getting a mustache play error in production (amazon linux EC2 AMI) but not in development (MACs) and we have tried upgrading the jvm, using the jdk instead, and changing from a tomcat deploy model to match our development environments as much as possible but nothing is working. Please any help would be greatly appreciated. We have lots of shared code in java and javascript using mustache and it would be a big deal to rewrite everything if we had to ditch mustache on the java side. 20:48:52,403 ERROR ~ @6al2dd0po Internal Server Error (500) for request GET /mystuff/people Execution exception (In {module:mustache-0.2}/app/play/modules/mustache/MustacheTags.java around line 32) NullPointerException occured : null play.exceptions.JavaExecutionException at play.templates.BaseTemplate.throwException(BaseTemplate.java:90) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.internalRender(GroovyTemplate.java:257) at play.templates.Template.render(Template.java:26) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.render(GroovyTemplate.java:187) at play.mvc.results.RenderTemplate.<init>(RenderTemplate.java:24) at play.mvc.Controller.renderTemplate(Controller.java:660) at play.mvc.Controller.renderTemplate(Controller.java:640) at play.mvc.Controller.render(Controller.java:695) at controllers.MyStuff.people(MyStuff.java:183) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeWithContinuation(ActionInvoker.java:548) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invoke(ActionInvoker.java:502) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeControllerMethod(ActionInvoker.java:478) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeControllerMethod(ActionInvoker.java:473) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invoke(ActionInvoker.java:161) at Invocation.HTTP Request(Play!) Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at play.modules.mustache.MustacheTags._template(MustacheTags.java:32) at play.modules.mustache.MustacheTags$_template.call(Unknown Source) at /app/views/User/people.html.(line:22) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.internalRender(GroovyTemplate.java:232) ... 13 more

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  • How should I configure grub for booting linux kernel from a USB hard drive?

    - by skolima
    I have a laptop hard drive in an external enclosure which I use as a large pendrive. For an added twist, I have installed Linux on it, so I can boot any machine with my distribution of choice (e.g. for data recovery or repairing a b0rked system or just using a borrowed laptop without destroying the preinstalled Windows). The problem is that, depending on the hardware configuration, the USB hard drive may be visible under different paths. For grub configuration I just use (hda0,0) as it is relative to the device the grub was launched from. I have UUID entries in /etc/fstab. I also specify rootwait in the kernel parameters so that it waits for the USB subsystem to settle down before trying to mount the device. What should I pass to the kernel as root= ? Currently boot from the pendrive once, check the debug messages to see what /dev/sdX device has been assigned to the USB drive by the kernel, then reboot and edit the grub configuration. I can't change anything on the PC besides enabling Boot from USB hard drive in BIOS and setting it to higher priority than internal hard drives. There are various initrd generating scripts which include support for UUID in root device path, unfortunately the Gentoo native one (genkernel) does not support rootwait and I had no luck trying to use others. The boot process goes like this (it is quite similar in Windows): The BIOS chooses the boot device and loads whatever is its MBR (which happens to be grub stage-1). Grub loads it's configuration and stage-2 files from device it has set as root, using (hd0) for the device it was loaded from by BIOS. Grub loads and starts a kernel (still the same numbering, so I can use (hd0,0) again ). Kernel initializes all built-in devices (rootwait does it's magic now). Kernel mounts the partition it was passed as root (this is a kernel parameter, not grub parameter). init.d starts the userland booting process, including mounting things from /etc/fstab. Part 5 is the one giving me problems.

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  • Can not open ports in iptables on CentOS 5??

    - by abszero
    I am trying to open up ports in CentOS's firewall and am having a terrible go at it. I have followed the "HowTo" here: http://wiki.centos.org/HowTos/Network/IPTables as well as a few other places on the Net but I still can't get the bloody thing to work. Basically I wanted to get two things working: VNC and Apache over the internal network. The problem is that the firewall is blocking all attempts to connect to these services. Now if I issue service iptables stop and then try to access the server via VNC or hit the webserver everything works as expected. However the moment I turn iptables back on all of my access is blocked. Below is a truncated version of my iptables file as it appears in vi -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5801 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5901 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 6001 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5900 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT Really I would just be happy if I could get port 80 opened up for Apache since I can do most stuff via putty but if I could figure out VNC as well that would be cool. As far as VNC goes there is just a single/user desktop that I am trying to connect to via: [ipaddress]:1 Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • How do I use a jQuery not selector to select relative URLs?

    - by Matt
    I'm working on a little jQuery script to add Google Analytics pageTracker onclick data to all relative URLs on my forum, allowing me to track clicks to external sites. I don't want to add the onclick to internal links on forum.sitename or sitename, and I don't want to add them to any hrefs marked # or that start with /. My script below works nicely, but for one minor problem! All of the forum's URLs are relative and don't start with /. I appear to have no way to change that, so need to modify the jQuery below to prevent it adding the onclick to links like as it currently does. What I want to do, is to write a .not() function like .not("[href!^=http") to prevent jQuery from adding the onclick to any hrefs which do not start with http. However, .not() appears not to support this. I'm new to jQuery and can't figure this out. Any pointers would be massively appreciated. $(document).ready(function(){ // Get URL from a href var URL = $("a").attr('href'); // Add pageTracker data for GA tracking $("a") .not("[href^=#]") .not("[href^=http://forum.sitename]") .not("[href^=http://www.sitename]") .attr("onclick","pageTracker._trackEvent('Outgoing_Links', 'Forum', " + URL + ");") ; }); Thanks!

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  • Request size limitation when using MultipartHttpServletRequest of Spring 3.0

    - by Spiderman
    I'd like to know what is the size limitation if I upload list of files in one client's form submition using HTTP multipart content type. On the server side I am using Spring's MultipartHttpServletRequest to handle the request. mM questions: Is there should be different file size limitation and total request size limitation or file size is the only limitation and the request is capable of uploading 100s of files as lonng as they are not too large. Doest the Spring request wrapper read the complete request and store it in the JAVA heap memory or it store temporaray files of it to be able to use big quota. Is the use of reading the httpservlet request in streaming would change the size limitation than using complete http request read at-once by the application server. What is the bottleneck of this process - Java heap size, the quota of the filesystem on which my web-server runs, the maximum allowed BLOB size that the DataBase in which I am gonna save the file alows? or Spring internal limitations? Related threads that still don't have exact answer to this: does-spring-framework-support-streaming-mode-in-mutlipart-requests is-there-a-way-to-get-raw-http-request-stream-from-java-servlet-handler how-to- drop-body-of-a-request-after-checking-headers-in-servlet apache-commons-fileupload-throws-malformedstreamexception

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  • Dealing with array of IntPtr

    - by Padu Merloti
    I think I'm close and I bet the solution is something stupid. I have a C++ native DLL where I define the following function: DllExport bool __stdcall Open(const char* filePath, int *numFrames, void** data); { //creates the list of arrays here... don't worry, lifetime is managed somewhere else //foreach item of the list: { BYTE* pByte = GetArray(i); //here's where my problem lives *(data + i * sizeofarray) = pByte; } *numFrames = total number of items in the list return true; } Basically, given a file path, this function creates a list of byte arrays (BYTE*) and should return a list of pointers via the data param. Each pointing to a different byte array. I want to pass an array of IntPtr from C# and be able to marshal each individual array in order. Here's the code I'm using: [DllImport("mydll.dll",EntryPoint = "Open")] private static extern bool MyOpen( string filePath, out int numFrames, out IntPtr[] ptr); internal static bool Open( string filePath, out int numFrames, out Bitmap[] images) { var ptrList = new IntPtr[512]; MyOpen(filePath, out numFrames, out ptrList); images = new Bitmap[numFrames]; var len = 100; //for sake of simplicity for (int i=0; i<numFrames;i++) { var buffer = new byte[len]; Marshal.Copy(ptrList[i], buffer, 0, len); images[i] = CreateBitmapFromBuffer(buffer, height, width); } return true; } Problem is in my C++ code. When I assign *(data + i * sizeofarray) = pByte; it corrupts the array of pointers... what am I doing wrong?

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  • Adding an Array inside an array in a PHP function

    - by bateman_ap
    I have created a function in PHP that calls a webservice and parses through the result, assinging values to variables and returning them all as an Array. This all works perfectly, however I have come across a need to have an "array within my array" I am assigning values as below: $productName = $product->Name; $productID = $product->ID; $productArray = array( 'productName' => "$productName", 'productID' => "$productID" ); return $productArray; However I now have a piece of data that comes back with multiple results so I need to have a additional array to store these, I am getting the values from the returned XML using a foreach loop, however I want to be able to add them to the array with a name so I can reference them in the returned data, this is where I have a problem... $bestForLists = $product->BestFors; foreach( $bestForLists as $bestForList ) { $productBestFors = $bestForList->BestFor; foreach( $productBestFors as $productBestFor ) { $productBestForName = $productBestFor->Name; $productBestForID = $productBestFor->ID; } } I tried creating an array for these using the below code: $bestForArray[] = (array( "productBestForID" => "$productBestForID", "productBestForName" => "$productBestForName" )); And then at the end merging these together: $productArray= array_merge($productArray,$bestForArray); If I print out the returned value I get: Array ( [productName] => Test Product [productID] => 14128 [0] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56647 [productBestForName] => Lighting ) [1] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56648 [productBestForName] => Sound ) ) I would like to give the internal Array a name so I can reference it in my code, or is there a better way of doing this, at the moment I am using the following in my PHP page to get values: $productName = $functionReturnedValues['productName']; I would like to use the following to access the array I could then loop through: $bestForArray = $functionReturnedValues['bestForArray']; Hope someone can help

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  • Life Scope of Temporary Variable

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    #include <cstdio> #include <string> void fun(const char* c) { printf("--> %s\n", c); } std::string get() { std::string str = "Hello World"; return str; } int main() { const char *cc = get().c_str(); // cc is not valid at this point. As it is pointing to // temporary string internal buffer, and the temporary string // has already been destroyed at this point. fun(cc); // But I am surprise this call will yield valid result. // It seems that the returned temporary string is valid within // scope (...) // What my understanding is, scope means {...} // Is this valid behavior guarantee by C++ standard? Or it depends // on your compiler vendor implementations? fun(get().c_str()); getchar(); } The output is : --> --> Hello World Hello, may I know the correct behavior is guarantee by C++ standard, or it depends on your compiler vendor implementations? I have tested this under VC2008 and VC6. Works fine for both.

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  • How do I secure a .NET Web Service for use by an iPhone application?

    - by David A Gibson
    Hello, The title says it all, I have a Web Service written in .NET that provides data for an iPhone application. It will also allow the application make a "reservation." Currently it's all internal to the corporate network but obviously when the iPhone application is published I will need ensure the Web Service is available externally. How would I go about securing the Web Service? There are two aspects I'm looking into: Authentication for accessing the web service Protection for the data being transferred I'm no so bothered about the data being passed back and forth as it will be viewable in the application anyway (which will be free). The key issue for me is preventing users from accessing the Web Service and making reservations themselves. At the moment I am considering encrypting any strings in the XML data passed back and forth so only the client can effectively use the web service sidestepping the need for authentication and providing protection for the data. This is the only model I have seen but I think the overheads on the iPhone and even for the web service make for a poor user experience. Any solutions at all would be most welcome? Thanks

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  • using the :sass filter with :css

    - by corroded
    We are currently making a widget that requires some default declared styles along with it(widget html is included by javasacript, along with the default css in style tags) but the problem is i can't "chain" haml filters. What I'm trying to do is to add an internal stylesheet along with the widget like so: <style type="text/css"> p {color: #f00;} </style> <div id="widget-goes-here"> <p>etc</p> </div> We are using haml so I tried doing it with the sass filter: :sass p :color #f00 #widget-goes-here %p etc sadly, it just generated a div with a p plus the generated css code literally on top: p {color: #f00;} paragraph here I then tried using the :css filter of haml to enclose the thing in style tags(theoretically it should then turn the paragraph text color to red): :css :sass p :color #f00 #widget-goes-here %p etc But this also failed, it did generated style tags but then it just enclosed the words :sass p :color #f00 in it(it didn't parse the sass code) We did change it to :css p {color: #f00} and it worked out fine, but I still plan on doing the styling in sass(instead of plain old css) is there a way to do this?

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  • Why is PLINQ slower than LINQ for this code?

    - by Rob Packwood
    First off, I am running this on a dual core 2.66Ghz processor machine. I am not sure if I have the .AsParallel() call in the correct spot. I tried it directly on the range variable too and that was still slower. I don't understand why... Here are my results: Process non-parallel 1000 took 146 milliseconds Process parallel 1000 took 156 milliseconds Process non-parallel 5000 took 5187 milliseconds Process parallel 5000 took 5300 milliseconds using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Diagnostics; using System.Linq; namespace DemoConsoleApp { internal class Program { private static void Main() { ReportOnTimedProcess( () => GetIntegerCombinations(), "non-parallel 1000"); ReportOnTimedProcess( () => GetIntegerCombinations(runAsParallel: true), "parallel 1000"); ReportOnTimedProcess( () => GetIntegerCombinations(5000), "non-parallel 5000"); ReportOnTimedProcess( () => GetIntegerCombinations(5000, true), "parallel 5000"); Console.Read(); } private static List<Tuple<int, int>> GetIntegerCombinations( int iterationCount = 1000, bool runAsParallel = false) { IEnumerable<int> range = Enumerable.Range(1, iterationCount); IEnumerable<Tuple<int, int>> integerCombinations = from x in range from y in range select new Tuple<int, int>(x, y); return runAsParallel ? integerCombinations.AsParallel().ToList() : integerCombinations.ToList(); } private static void ReportOnTimedProcess( Action process, string processName) { var stopwatch = new Stopwatch(); stopwatch.Start(); process(); stopwatch.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("Process {0} took {1} milliseconds", processName, stopwatch.ElapsedMilliseconds); } } }

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  • Should I invest in GraniteDS for Flex + Java development?

    - by Boden
    I'm new to Flex development, and RIAs in general. I've got a CRUD-style Java + Spring + Hibernate service on top of which I'm writing a Flex UI. Currently I'm using BlazeDS. This is an internal application running on a local network. It's become apparent to me that the way RIAs work is more similar to a desktop application than a web application in that we load up the entire model and work with it directly on the client (or at least the portion that we're interested in). This doesn't really jive well with BlazeDS because really it only supports remoting and not data management, thus it can become a lot of extra work to make sure that clients are in sync and to avoid reloading the model which can be large (especially since lazy loading is not possible). So it feels like what I'm left with is a situation where I have to treat my Flex application more like a regular old web application where I do a lot of fine grained loading of data. LiveCycle is too expensive. The free version of WebOrb for Java really only does remoting. Enter GraniteDS. As far as I can determine, it's the only free solution out there that has many of the data management features of LiveCycle. I've started to go through its documentation a bit and suddenly feel like it's yet another quagmire of framework that I'll have to learn just to get an application running. So my question(s) to the StackOverflow audience is: 1) do you recommend GraniteDS, especially if my current Java stack is Spring + Hibernate? 2) at what point do you feel like it starts to pay off? That is, at what level of application complexity do you feel that using GraniteDS really starts to make development that much better? In what ways?

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