Search Results

Search found 7513 results on 301 pages for 'actual'.

Page 231/301 | < Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >

• Flex DataGridColumn with array of objects as data provider

  - by rforte

  I have a datagrid that uses an array of objects as the data provider. The objects are essentially key/value pairs: { foo:"something"} { bar:"hello"} { caca:"lorem"} The datagrid has 2 columns. The first column is the key and the second column is the value. Right now my grid looks like: My dataFormatter function makes sure that depending on the column (i.e. the dataField value) the correct key or value gets printed out. This works fine for displaying. However, as soon as I try and edit the value field it essentially adds a new value into the object with a key of '1'. For example, if I edit the {caca:"lorem"} object it will then contain the value {caca:"lorem",1:"new value"}. Is there any possible way I can set the DataGridColumn so that when I edit a value it will update the value associated with the key rather than inserting a new value? I've tried using a custom item editor but it still does the insert. It seems like I need to be able to update the 'dataField' with the actual key value but I'm not sure how to do that.

  Read the article

• Problem in getting Http Response in chrome

  - by Bhaskasr

  Am trying to get http response from php web service in javascript, but getting null in firefox and chrome. plz tell me where am doing mistake here is my code, function fetch_details() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xhttp=new XMLHttpRequest() alert("first"); } else { xhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP") alert("sec"); } xhttp.open("GET","url.com",false); xhttp.send(""); xmlDoc=xhttp.responseXML; alert(xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("Inbox")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); } I have tried with ajax also but am not getting http response here is my code, please guide me var xmlhttp = null; var url = "url.com"; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); alert(xmlhttp); //make sure that Browser supports overrideMimeType if ( typeof xmlhttp.overrideMimeType != 'undefined') { xmlhttp.overrideMimeType('text/xml'); } } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } else { alert('Perhaps your browser does not support xmlhttprequests?'); } xmlhttp.open('GET', url, true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4) { alert(xmlhttp.responseXML); } }; } // Make the actual request xmlhttp.send(null); I am getting xmlhttp.readyState = 4 xmlhttp.status = 0 xmlhttp.responseText = "" plz tell me where am doing mistake

  Read the article

• Developing ASP.Net User Control to be imported to SharePoint MOSS 2007

  - by Don Kirkham

  Apologies if this has been answered, but I could not find a similar question: I am developing a webpart for MOSS 2007. I am using WSPBuilder to built a visual webpart (ascx) and everything works fine, but the development/debug cycle is just painfully slow, so I'd like to know if it is possible (without being too painful) to develop the user control faster using an .Net Web Application project with all of the nice F5 debugging, then import the final product into my SharePoint visual webpart. The user control interacts with a LOB system (SQL) and does not reference the SharePoint API at all. (The reason I am building this as a webpart is because I don't need another web app to run this one page, so putting it into a webpart on a new webpart page on my existing site is the best solution IMO.) I would obviously need to import (reference?) my data access classes into my "temp" web app, but think that would not be too much trouble. I realize this will be extra effort to get this set up, but am thinking the payoff will be reduced development time of the actual user control using a little web application vs having to use the compile/build WSP/deploy WSP/reset ISS/test/make a change/repeat cycle that MOSS requires. (I guess SP2010/VS2010 has spoiled me with the native SharePoint tools available.)

  Read the article

• Get index of nth occurrence of char in a string

  - by StickFigs

  I'm trying to make a function that returns the index of the Nth occurrence of a given char in a string. Here is my attempt: private int IndexOfNth(string str, char c, int n) { int index = str.IndexOf(c) + 1; if (index >= 0) { string temp = str.Substring(index, str.Length - index); for (int j = 1; j < n; j++) { index = temp.IndexOf(c) + 1; if (index < 0) { return -1; } temp = temp.Substring(index, temp.Length - index); } index = index + (str.Length); } return index; } This should find the first occurrence, chop off that front part of the string, find the first occurrence from the new substring, and on and on until it gets the index of the nth occurrence. However I failed to consider how the index of the final substring is going to be offset from the original actual index in the original string. How do I make this work? Also as a side question, if I want the char to be the tab character do I pass this function '\t' or what?

  Read the article

• Programming exercises in Java inheritance for intern

  - by Tenner

  I work for a small software development team, working primarily in Java, for a very large company. Our new intern showed up sight-unseen (not uncommon in my company). He has some C++ experience but no Java. Worse, he's never worked with inheritance in C++. Our code has a great deal of abstraction and a heavy reliance on inheritance. We need to get him up to speed as quickly as possible. Of course the rest of the team is busy, and so we can't take the time out of our day to teach a one-student 200-level CS course. Instead, I'd like to give him an actual programming project to work on which highlights how classes, interfaces, method overrides, etc. work. I've had him look at Project Euler, but most of the solutions end up being procedural, and not object-oriented programs. Do any of you have any somewhat-straightforward (and relatively quick) projects which you would give to an intern in this situation? Or, any recent (or current) students have a school project they'd be willing to share? Anyone else had this experience?

  Read the article

• Integer array or struct array - which is better?

  - by MusiGenesis

  In my app, I'm storing Bitmap data in a two-dimensional integer array (int[,]). To access the R, G and B values I use something like this: // read: int i = _data[x, y]; byte B = (byte)(i >> 0); byte G = (byte)(i >> 8); byte R = (byte)(i >> 16); // write: _data[x, y] = BitConverter.ToInt32(new byte[] { B, G, R, 0 }, 0); I'm using integer arrays instead of an actual System.Drawing.Bitmap because my app runs on Windows Mobile devices where the memory available for creating bitmaps is severely limited. I'm wondering, though, if it would make more sense to declare a structure like this: public struct RGB { public byte R; public byte G; public byte B; } ... and then use an array of RGB instead of an array of int. This way I could easily read and write the separate R, G and B values without having to do bit-shifting and BitConverter-ing. I vaguely remember something from days of yore about byte variables being block-aligned on 32-bit systems, so that a byte actually takes up 4 bytes of memory instead of just 1 (but maybe this was just a Visual Basic thing). Would using an array of structs (like the RGB example` above) be faster than using an array of ints, and would it use 3/4 the memory or 3 times the memory of ints?

  Read the article

• How to Update with LINQ?

  - by DaveDev

  currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

  Read the article

• How do I make a serialization class for this?

  - by chobo2

  I have something like this (sorry for the bad names) <root xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd> <product></product> <SomeHighLevelElement> <anotherElment> <lowestElement> </lowestElement> </anotherElment> </SomeHighLevelElement> </root> I have something like this for my class public class MyClass { public MyClass() { ListWrapper= new List<UserInfo>(); } public string product{ get; set; } public List<SomeHighLevelElement> ListWrapper{ get; set; } } public class SomeHighLevelElement { public string lowestElement{ get; set; } } But I don't know how to write the code for the "anotherElement" not sure if I have to make another wrapper around it. Edit I know get a error in my actual xml file. I have this in my tag xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd Throws an exception on the root line saying there was a error with this stuff. So I don't know if it is mad at the schemaLocation since I am using local host right now or what.

  Read the article

• LINQ-SQL Updating Multiple Rows in a single transaction

  - by RPM1984

  Hi guys, I need help re-factoring this legacy LINQ-SQL code which is generating around 100 update statements. I'll keep playing around with the best solution, but would appreciate some ideas/past experience with this issue. Here's my code: List<Foo> foos; int userId = 123; using (DataClassesDataContext db = new FooDatabase()) { foos = (from f in db.FooBars where f.UserId = userId select f).ToList(); foreach (FooBar fooBar in foos) { fooBar.IsFoo = false; } db.SubmitChanges() } Essentially i want to update the IsFoo field to false for all records that have a particular UserId value. Whats happening is the .ToList() is firing off a query to get all the FooBars for a particular user, then for each Foo object, its executing an UPDATE statement updating the IsFoo property. Can the above code be re-factored to one single UPDATE statement? Ideally, the only SQL i want fired is the below: UPDATE FooBars SET IsFoo = FALSE WHERE UserId = 123 EDIT Ok so looks like it cant be done without using db.ExecuteCommand. Grr...! What i'll probably end up doing is creating another extension method for the DLINQ namespace. Still require some hardcoding (ie writing "WHERE" and "UPDATE"), but at least it hides most of the implementation details away from the actual LINQ query syntax.

  Read the article

• Jetty 7 will not allow me to customize a session cookie path

  - by Bob Obringer

  Using Jetty 7.0.2, I am unable to set a custom session cookie path. I am hosting multiple sites on the same server using apache to proxy requests to the proper context. (replaced http as htp as stackoverflow thinks my multiple links might be spam) <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName context.domain.com ProxyRequests On ProxyPreserveHost Off <Proxy *:80> Order deny,allow Allow from 127.0.0.1 </Proxy> ProxyPass / htp://localhost:8080/context/ ProxyPassReverse / htp://localhost:8080/context/ <Location /> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Location> </VirtualHost> Jetty is running on the same server on port 8080 and my context is available @ /context The user accesses the application @ htp://context.domain.com but jetty is setting the path for the session cookie @ /context. This prevents the browser from accessing the cookie since the the actual path to the context is not being used. I need to override Jetty's default setting to set the cookie for the context, and set the path at the root ( / ). In my Jetty's webdefault.xml I have the following, which is partially working: <context-param> <param-name>org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.SessionCookie</param-name> <param-value>CustomCookieName</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.SessionPath</param-name> <param-value>/</param-value> </context-param> The cookie is properly set with a custom name, but it is NOT setting the SessionPath. No matter what I set the value to... it refuses to set a cookie at any path but /context. This has been driving me crazy so any help would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

  - by Evgeny

  I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

  Read the article

• What is the space character for the browser?

  - by Hiro Protagonist

  echo "\n\s\s\s\s\s\s" . "<div id='data-load' data-load='" . $load . "'></div>"; \n works for adding a return in...I tried \s logically for space but this does not work. Keep mind, I don't want this rendered in the browser view...but in the source view ( when you click view-source )...I'm trying to put my html in to a readable form. echo "&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp&nbsp\n" . "<div id='data-path' data-path='" . $path . "'></div>"; This does not work either. I am composing HTML from PHP... echo " \n" . "<div id='data-load' data-load='" . $load . "'></div>"; This does not work either. Actual Code: public static function setUniversals() { $shared_object = new Shared(); if ( $shared_object->getLoadOn() == 1 ) { $load = 'server'; } else { $load = 'client'; } if( getcwd() === '/home/foo/public_html/develop' ) { $path = 'development'; } else { $path = 'production'; } $shared_object = new Shared(); echo "\n"; echo "\n " . "<div id='data-path' data-path='" . $path . "'></div>"; echo "\n " . "<div id='data-load' data-load='" . $load . "'></div>"; }

  Read the article

• Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

  - by Andrzej Doyle

  Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

  Read the article

• Intermittent Issue Writing to Google Appengine Datastore

  - by user242153

  Hi, I have a functioning app and recently have had intermittent problems writing to the datastore. I did not make any relevant code changes, however in the last few days my attempts to write to the datastore sometimes work and sometimes don't. I am trying to save an object that is in a many to one relationship with an existing persisted parent. So, the logic works like this: 1) Parent pulled from the datastore 2) Child created / instantiated using constructor 3) Parent.addSingleChild(child); // the "addSingleChild" method just adds the object argument to the collection of children 4) child.setParent(Parent); // sets the Parent object to the parent field I am using transactions as explained in the documentation ending with "finally {if (tx.isActive()) {tx.rollback(); } }" When the servlet is called, the parent is called from the datastore and the child object is created and added to the many to one mapping to the pre-existing parent. The child should automatically be persisted, since the parent is already persistent, and the child is added to the collection of children that map to the parent. And it worked this way in the past. However, to be sure, i did add a pm.makePersistent(child). Doesn't seem to help, still have the intermittent problem. Any suggestions would be appreciated, and if you need to see the actual code I can post. Thanks

  Read the article

• ExecutorSerrvice memory leak on exception

  - by TofuBeer

  I am having a hard time tracking this down since the profiler keeps crashing (hotspot error). Before I go too deep into figuring it out I'd like to know if I really have a problem or not :-) I have a few thread pools created via: Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); The threads connect to different web sites and, on occasion, I get connection refused and wind up throwing an exception. When I later on call Future.get() to get the result it will then catch the ExecutionException that wraps the exception that was thrown when the connection could not be made. The program uses a fairly constant amount of memory up until the point in time that the exceptions get thrown (they tend to happen in batches when a particular site is overloaded). After that point the memory again remains constant but at a higher level. So my question is along the lines of is the memory behaviour (reported by "top" on Unix) expected because the exceptions just triggered something or do I probably have an actual leak that I'll need to track down? Additionally when Future.get() throws an exception is there anything else I need to do besides catch the exception (such as call Future.cancel() on it)?

  Read the article

• Using Dispose on a Singleton to Cleanup Resources

  - by ImperialLion

  The question I have might be more to do with semantics than with the actual use of IDisposable. I am working on implementing a singleton class that is in charge of managing a database instance that is created during the execution of the application. When the application closes this database should be deleted. Right now I have this delete being handled by a Cleanup() method of the singleton that the application calls when it is closing. As I was writing the documentation for Cleanup() it struck me that I was describing what a Dispose() method should be used for i.e. cleaning up resources. I had originally not implemented IDisposable because it seemed out of place in my singleton, because I didn't want anything to dispose the singleton itself. There isn't currently, but in the future might be a reason that this Cleanup() might be called but the singleton should will need to still exist. I think I can include GC.SuppressFinalize(this); in the Dispose method to make this feasible. My question therefore is multi-parted: 1) Is implementing IDisposable on a singleton fundamentally a bad idea? 2) Am I just mixing semantics here by having a Cleanup() instead of a Dispose() and since I'm disposing resources I really should use a dispose? 3) Will implementing 'Dispose()' with GC.SuppressFinalize(this); make it so my singleton is not actually destroyed in the case I want it to live after a call to clean-up the database.

  Read the article

• Using an SHA1 with Micrsoft CAPI

  - by Erik Jõgi

  Hello, I have an SHA1 hash and I need to sign it. The CryptSignHash() method requires a HCRYPTHASH handle for signing. I create it and as I have the actual hash value already then set it: CryptCreateHash(cryptoProvider, CALG_SHA1, 0, 0, &hash); CryptSetHashParam(hash, HP_HASHVAL, hashBytes, 0); The hashBytes is an array of 20 bytes. However the problem is that the signature produced from this HCRYPTHASH handle is incorrect. I traced the problem down to the fact that CAPI actually doesn't use all 20 bytes from my hashBytes array. For some reason it thinks that SHA1 is only 4 bytes. To verify this I wrote this small program: HCRYPTPROV cryptoProvider; CryptAcquireContext(&cryptoProvider, NULL, NULL, PROV_RSA_FULL, 0); HCRYPTHASH hash; HCRYPTKEY keyForHash; CryptCreateHash(cryptoProvider, CALG_SHA1, keyForHash, 0, &hash); DWORD hashLength; CryptGetHashParam(hash, HP_HASHSIZE, NULL, &hashLength, 0); printf("hashLength: %d\n", hashLength); And this prints out hashLength: 4 ! Can anyone explain what I am doing wrong or why Microsoft CAPI thinks that SHA1 is 4 bytes (32 bits) instead of 20 bytes (160 bits). Thank you.

  Read the article

• Best way to unit test Collection?

  - by limc

  I'm just wondering how folks unit test and assert that the "expected" collection is the same/similar as the "actual" collection (order is not important). To perform this assertion, I wrote my simple assert API:- public void assertCollection(Collection<?> expectedCollection, Collection<?> actualCollection) { assertNotNull(expectedCollection); assertNotNull(actualCollection); assertEquals(expectedCollection.size(), actualCollection.size()); assertTrue(expectedCollection.containsAll(actualCollection)); assertTrue(actualCollection.containsAll(expectedCollection)); } Well, it works. It's pretty simple if I'm asserting just bunch of Integers or Strings. It can also be pretty painful if I'm trying to assert a collection of Hibernate domains, say for example. The collection.containsAll(..) relies on the equals(..) to perform the check, but I always override the equals(..) in my Hibernate domains to check only the business keys (which is the best practice stated in the Hibernate website) and not all the fields of that domain. Sure, it makes sense to check just against the business keys, but there are times I really want to make sure all the fields are correct, not just the business keys (for example, new data entry record). So, in this case, I can't mess around with the domain.equals(..) and it almost seems like I need to implement some comparators for just unit testing purposes instead of relying on collection.containsAll(..). Are there some testing libraries I could leverage here? How do you test your collection? Thanks.

  Read the article

• how does Cocoa compare to Microsoft, Qt?

  - by Paperflyer

  I have done a few months of development with Qt (built GUI programatically only) and am now starting to work with Cocoa. I have to say, I love Cocoa. A lot of the things that seemed hard in Qt are easy with Cocoa. Obj-C seems to be far less complex than C++. This is probably just me, so: Ho do you feel about this? How does Cocoa compare to WPF (is that the right framework?) to Qt? How does Obj-C compare to C# to C++? How does XCode/Interface Builder compare to Visual Studio to Qt Creator? How do the Documentations compare? For example, I find Cocoa's Outlets/Actions far more useful than Qt's Signals and Slots because they actually seem to cover most GUI interactions while I had to work around Signals/Slots half the time. (Did I just use them wrong?) Also, the standard templates of XCode give me copy/paste, undo/redo, save/open and a lot of other stuff practically for free while these were rather complex tasks in Qt. Please only answer if you have actual knowledge of at least two of these development environments/frameworks/languages.

  Read the article

• How do you organise multiple git repositories?

  - by dbr

  With SVN, I had a single big repository I kept on a server, and checked-out on a few machines. This was a pretty good backup system, and allowed me easily work on any of the machines. I could checkout a specific project, commit and it updated the 'master' project, or I could checkout the entire thing. Now, I have a bunch of git repositories, for various projects, several of which are on github. I also have the SVN repository I mentioned, imported via the git-svn command.. Basically, I like having all my code (not just projects, but random snippets and scripts, some things like my CV, articles I've written, websites I've made and so on) in one big repository I can easily clone onto remote machines, or memory-sticks/harddrives as backup. The problem is, since it's a private repository, and git doesn't allow checking out of a specific folder (that I could push to github as a separate project, but have the changes appear in both the master-repo, and the sub-repos) I could use the git submodule system, but it doesn't act how I want it too (submodules are pointers to other repositories, and don't really contain the actual code, so it's useless for backup) Currently I have a folder of git-repos (for example, ~/code_projects/proj1/.git/ ~/code_projects/proj2/.git/), and after doing changes to proj1 I do git push github, then I copy the files into ~/Documents/code/python/projects/proj1/ and do a single commit (instead of the numerous ones in the individual repos). Then do git push backupdrive1, git push mymemorystick etc So, the question: How do your personal code and projects with git repositories, and keep them synced and backed-up?

  Read the article

• How can I get type information at runtime from a DMP file in a Windbg extension?

  - by pj4533

  This is related to my previous question, regarding pulling objects from a dmp file. As I mentioned in the previous question, I can successfully pull object out of the dmp file by creating wrapper 'remote' objects. I have implemented several of these so far, and it seems to be working well. However I have run into a snag. In one case, a pointer is stored in a class, say of type 'SomeBaseClass', but that object is actually of the type 'SomeDerivedClass' which derives from 'SomeBaseClass'. For example it would be something like this: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : Ptr32 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass I need someway to find out what the ACTUAL type of 'field1' is. To be more specific, using example addresses: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : 0cae2e24 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass 0:000> dt SomeBaseClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeBaseClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 0:000> dt SomeDerivedClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeDerivedClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 +0x040 derivedfield1 : 357 +0x044 derivedfield2 : timecode_t When I am in WinDbg, I can do this: dt 0x02de89e4 And it will show the type: 0:000> dt 0x02de89e4 SomeDerivedClass::`vftable' Symbol not found. But how do get that inside an extension? Can I use SearchMemory() to look for 'SomeDerivedClass::`vftable'? If you follow my other question, I need this type information so I know what type of wrapper remote classes to create. I figure it might end up being some sort of case-statement, where I have to match a string to a type? I am ok with that, but I still don't know where I can get that string that represents the type of the object in question (ie SomeObject-field1 in the above example).

  Read the article

• Flex profiling - what is [enterFrameEvent] doing?

  - by Herms

  I've been tasked with finding (and potentially fixing) some serious performance problems with a Flex application that was delivered to us. The application will consistently take up 50 to 100% of the CPU at times when it is simply idling and shouldn't be doing anything. My first step was to run the profiler that comes with FlexBuilder. I expected to find some method that was taking up most of the time, showing me where the bottleneck was. However, I got something unexpected. The top 4 methods were: [enterFrameEvent] - 84% cumulative, 32% self time [reap] - 20% cumulative and self time [tincan] - 8% cumulative and self time global.isNaN - 4% cumulative and self time All other methods had less than 1% for both cumulative and self time. From what I've found online, the [bracketed methods] are what the profiler lists when it doesn't have an actual Flex method to show. I saw someone claim that [tincan] is the processing of RTMP requests, and I assume [reap] is the garbage collector. Does anyone know what [enterFrameEvent] is actually doing? I assume it's essentially the "main" function for the event loop, so the high cumulative time is expected. But why is the self time so high? What's actually going on? I didn't expect the player internals to be taking up so much time, especially since nothing is actually happening in the app (and there are no UI updates going on). Is there any good way to find dig into what's happening? I know something is going on that shouldn't be (it looks like there must be some kind of busy wait or other runaway loop), but the profiler isn't giving me any results that I was expecting. My next step is going to be to start adding debug trace statements in various places to try and track down what's actually happening, but I feel like there has to be a better way.

  Read the article

• Concurrent Programming:Should I write a sequential program first, then add thread safety?

  - by evthim

  I'm working on a project where we have to create a number of threads(actual number will be inputted in by testers (TA's)). I'm having trouble not only with the programming but also with the design, I can't wrap my head around all of the threads that will be invoked and where I might cause errors. The project is due soon so I don't want to waste time on this if it'll actually set me back, but I was wondering if I should write the program like only one thread will be running and everything should be sequential and then later go back and try to add the thread safety parts of the code? Would that take twice the original amount of time? Project Description: Note:I'm going to be as vague as possible so I don't violate any honor codes, sorry :( your program should accept n number of objectA threads, m number of objectB threads, and r number of objectC objectB threads interact with code in objectA. objectA threads interact with code in objectB and objectC objectB and objectC don't directly interact, but do so indirectly through objectA -ex: objectB needs something from objectA. objectA gets the result for that something by calling objectC my confusion stems mostly from the fact that all of this interactions will be done by m+n threads and there are various restrictions throughout the descriptions, like objectB can request something from objectA, and objectA has to wait for objectC to finish that something before returning it to objectB. Also each objectA thread can only work on one instruction from objectB at a time, etc. etc. I just want to know if I write the code so that there is only 1 objectA, 1 objectB and 1 object C, can I go back and easily modify it so that those 1's can be changed to m, n and r? Sorry again, if my description is a little bit confusing.

  Read the article

• Do variable references (alias) incure runtime costs in c++?

  - by cheshirekow

  Maybe this is a compiler specific thing. If so, how about for gcc (g++)? If you use a variable reference/alias like this: int x = 5; int& y = x; y += 10; Does it actually require more cycles than if we didn't use the reference. int x = 5; x += 10; In other words, does the machine code change, or does the "alias" happen only at the compiler level? This may seem like a dumb question, but I am curious. Especially in the case where maybe it would be convenient to temporarily rename some member variables just so that the math code is a little easier to read. Sure, we're not exactly talking about a bottleneck here... but it's something that I'm doing and so I'm just wondering if there is any 'actual' difference... or if it's only cosmetic.

  Read the article

• Entity Framework 5 Enum Naming

  - by Tyrel Van Niekerk

  I am using EF 5 with migrations and code first. It all works rather nicely, but there are some issues/questions I would like to resolve. Let's start with a simple example. Lets say I have a User table and a user type table. The user type table is an enum/lookup table in my app. So the user table has a UserTypeId column and a foreign key ref etc to UserType. In my poco, I have a property called UserType which has the enum type. To add the initial values to the UserType table (or add/change values later) and to create the table in the initial migrator etc. I need a UserType table poco to represent the actual table in the database and to use in the map files. I mapped the UserType property in the User poco to UserTypeId in the UserType poco. So now I have a poco for code first/migrations/context mapping etc and I have an enum. Can't have the same name for both, so do I have a poco called UserType and something else for the enum or have the poco for UserType be UserTypeTable or something? More importantly however, am I missing some key element in how code first works? I tried the example above, ran Add-Migration and it does not add the lookup table for the enum.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238  | Next Page >