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• Git repository gets corrupted when I do a large commit: "Possible repository corruption on the remot

  - by mindthief

  Hi All, A friend of mine and I have been trying to use git for a project. It is hosted on his server, and I git clone it as: git clone [email protected]:/path/to/git/repos.git Pretty standard stuff, and it works great for a while. But every time one of us has added a large commit (which git supposedly handles very well), of the order of 100MB or so, the git repository gets kind of broken. Basically, at this point I will be able to push new changes and pull other changes (I think), but when I try to clone the repository in a fresh location using that command above, I get an error message that says: $git clone [email protected]:/path/to/git/repos.git Initialized empty Git repository in /local/path/to/repos/.git/ remote: Counting objects: 1455, done. remote: Compressing objects: 100% (1235/1235), done. error: git upload-pack: git-pack-objects died with error.s fatal: git upload-pack: aborting due to possible repository corruption on the remote side. remote: aborting due to possible repository corruption on the remote side. fatal: early EOF fatal: index-pack failed This has happened 3 or 4 times now, and it's always when I add a large commit. Any idea why this is happening? How can we fix it? We're both using Mac OSX Snow Leopard. Thanks! -M

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• Postback not working with ASP.NET Routing (Validation of viewstate MAC failed)

  - by Robert

  Hi. I'm using the ASP.NET 3.5 SP1 System.Web.Routing with classic WebForms, as described in http://chriscavanagh.wordpress.com/2008/04/25/systemwebrouting-with-webforms-sample/ All works fine, I have custom SEO urls and even the postback works. But there is a case where the postback always fails and I get a: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. Here is the scenario to reproduce the error: Create a standard webform mypage.aspx with a button Create a Route that maps "a/b/{id}" to "~/mypage.aspx" When you execute the site, you can navigate http://localhost:XXXX/a/b/something the page works. But when you press the button you get the error. The error doen't happen when the Route is just "a/{id}". It seems to be related to the number of sub-paths in the url. If there are at least 2 sub-paths the viewstate validation fails. You get the error even with EnableViewStateMac="false". Any ideas? Is it a bug? Thanks

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• Adding web reference on client when using Net.TCP

  - by Marko

  Hi everyone... I am trying to using Net.TCP in my WCF Service, which is self hosted, when i try to add this service reference through web reference to my client, i am not able access the classes and methods of that service, can any have any idea to achieve this... How I can add web references in this case. My Service has one method (GetNumber) that returns int. WebService: public class WebService : IWebService { public int GetNumber(int num) { return num + 1; } } Service Contract code: [ServiceContract] public interface IWebService { [OperationContract] int GetNumber(int num); } WCF Service code: ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(WebService)); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IWebService), new NetTcpBinding(), new Uri("net.tcp://" + Dns.GetHostName() + ":1255/WebService")); NetTcpBinding binding = new NetTcpBinding(); binding.TransferMode = TransferMode.Streamed; binding.ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.MaxValue; binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = long.MaxValue; Console.WriteLine("{0}", Dns.GetHostName().ToString()); Console.WriteLine("Opening Web Service..."); host.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Web Service is running on port {0}",1255); Console.WriteLine("Press <ENTER> to EXIT"); Console.ReadLine(); This works fine. Only problem is how to add references of this service in my client application. I just want to send number and to receive an answer. Can anyone help me?

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• jQuery AJAX with two domains

  - by Andrew Burns

  OK here is the situation: I have an externally hosted CMS which works great for 99% of our needs. However on the more advanced things I inject my own CSS+JS and do magic. The problem I am running into is loading a simple HTML page from jQuery.ajax() calls. It appears to work in the sense that no warnings or errors are thrown; however in my success handler (which IS ran), the response is blank! I have been scratching my head for the whole morning trying to figure this out and the only thing I can think of is that is has something to do with the cross domain issue (even though it appears to work). Injected JavaScript: $(document).ready(function() { doui(); }); function doui() { $.ajax({ url: 'http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/feecalc/ui.htm', cache: false, success: ajax_createUI, charset: "utf-8", error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); } function ajax_createUI(data, textStatus) { alert(data); $("#ajax-content").html(data); } My ajax_createUI() success handler is called and textStatus is "success"; however data is empty. This JS file resides @ http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/js/feecalc.js however the CMS website (which gets the JS injected into it) resides @ http://www.natronacounty-wy.gov/ Am I just being stupid or is it a bug that it looks like it should be working but isn't?

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• Automatically hyper-link URL's and Email's using C#, whilst leaving bespoke tags in place

  - by marcusstarnes

  I have a site that enables users to post messages to a forum. At present, if a user types a web address or email address and posts it, it's treated the same as any other piece of text. There are tools that enable the user to supply hyper-linked web and email addresses (via some bespoke tags/markup) - these are sometimes used, but not always. In addition, a bespoke 'Image' tag can also be used to reference images that are hosted on the web. My objective is to both cater for those that use these existing tools to generate hyper-linked addresses, but to also cater for those that simply type a web or email address in, and to then automatically convert this to a hyper-linked address for them (as soon as they submit their post). I've found one or two regular expressions that convert a plain string web or email address, however, I obviously don't want to perform any manipulation on addresses that are already being handled via the sites bespoke tagging, and that's where I'm stuck - how to EXCLUDE any web or email addresses that are already catered for via the bespoke tagging - I wan't to leave them as is. Here are some examples of bespoke tagging for the variations that I need to be left alone: [URL=www.msn.com]www.msn.com[/URL] [URL=http://www.msn.com]http://www.msn.com[/URL] [[email protected]][email protected][/EMAIL] [IMG]www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] [IMG]http://www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] The following examples would however ideally need to be automatically converted into web & email links respectively: www.msn.com http://www.msn.com [email protected] Ideally, the 'converted' links would just have the appropriate bespoke tags applied to them as per the initial examples earlier in this post, so rather than: <a href="..." etc. they'd become: [URL=http://www.. etc.) Unfortunately, we have a LOT of historic data stored with this bespoke tagging throughout, so for now, we'd like to retain that rather than implementing an entirely new way of storing our users posts. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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• Why does a simple ApplicationSetting PropertyBinding for a Form does not work in C#?

  - by Mike Rosenblum

  My question involves this simple walkthrough shown in the article Preserve Size and Location of Windows Forms – Part I by Dennis Wallentin. This approach works 100% fine when using VB.NET. When using the same steps in C#, however, the settings within the Settings tab of the application's properties looks correct, and the app.config file looks right, but the values are not saved when you run it. The app.config file winds up looking like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="userSettings" type="System.Configuration.UserSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" > <section name="WindowsAppCs.Properties.Settings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <userSettings> <WindowsAppCs.Properties.Settings> <setting name="Location" serializeAs="String"> <value>0, 0</value> </setting> <setting name="Size" serializeAs="String"> <value>284, 262</value> </setting> </WindowsAppCs.Properties.Settings> </userSettings> </configuration> It looks right to me, but the values do not update when running hosted within Visual Studio or when running the compiled EXE. I am sure that something very simple needs to be added or done, but I don't know what. Does anyone have any ideas here? Much thanks in advance...

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• mod_rewrite if file exists

  - by Mathieu Parent

  Hi everyone, I already have two rewrite rules that work correctly for now but some more code has to be added to work perfectly. I have a website hosted at mydomain.com and all subdom.mydomain.com are rewrited to mydomain.com/subs/subdom . My CMS has to handle the request if the file being reached does not exist, the rewrite is done like so: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/index.php?page=$1 [L] My CMS handles the next part of the parsing as usual. The problem is if a file really exists, I need to link to it without passing through my CMS, I managed to do it like this: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/$1 [L] So far it seems to work like a charm. Now I am being picky and I need to have default files that are stored in subs/default/. If the file exists in the subdomain folder, we should grab this one but if not, we need to get the file from the default subdomain. And if the file does not exist anywhere, we should be using the 404 page from the current subdomain unless there is none. I hope it describes well enough. Thank you for your time!

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• Oracle ODBC x64 - getting 0 when selecting a number(9) column

  - by MatsL

  I'm having a really weird problem with a third party web service that uses an ODBC connection to Oracle 10.2.0.3.0. I've written a .NET client that generates the same SQL as the web service so I can find out what's going on. The web service is hosted by IIS 6 that's in x64 mode so we use Oracle x64 client. The oracle client version is 10.2.0.1.0. I have a table that looks like this (I've removed some columns and names): SQL> describe tablename; Name Null? Type ----------------------------------------- -------- ---------------------------- KOD VARCHAR2(30) ORDNING NUMBER(5) AVGIFT NUMBER(9) I then in SQL*Plus issue the following statement: SELECT KOD as kod, AVGIFT as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING And I get the following result: KOD RISKPOANG ------------------------------ ---------- Hög risk 55 Mellan risk 35 Låg risk 15 Mycket låg risk 5 But when I execute the exact same SQL using the same DSN on the same machine I get this: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 If I first cast the number to varchar and then back again to number, like this: SELECT KOD as kod, to_number(to_char(AVGIFT, '99'), '9999999999') as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING I get the correct result: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 55 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 35 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 15 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 5 Has anyone else experiences this? It's incredibly annoying and I'm completely stuck and not sure what to do next. We have a third party web service that use these tables so I must get the original SQL-statement to work since I can't modify its code. And pointers are greatly appreciated! :-) Best regards, Mats

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• Debugging a Google Web Toolkit application that has an error when deployed on Google App Engine

  - by gerdemb

  I have a Google Web Toolkit application that I am deploying to Google App Engine. In the deployed application, I am getting a JavaScript error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'f' of null. This sounds like the JavaScript equivalent of a Java NullPointerException. The problem is that the GWT JavaScript is obfuscated, so it's impossible to debug in the browser and I can't reproduce the same problem in hosted mode where I could use the Java debugger. I think the reason I'm only seeing the error on the deployed application is that the database I'm using on the GAE server is triggering something differently than the test database I'm using during testing and development. So, any ideas about the best way to proceed? I've thought of the following things: Deploy a non-obsfucated version of my application. Despite a lot of Googling, I can't figure out how to do this using the automatic deploy script provided with the Google Eclipse Plugin. Does anyone know? Download and copy my GAE data to the local server Somehow point my development code to use the GAE server for data instead of the local test database. This seems like the best idea... Can anyone suggest how to proceed here? Finally, is there a way to catch these JavaScript errors on the production server and log them somewhere? Without logging, I won't have anyway to know if my users are having errors that don't occur on the server. The GWT.log() function is automatically stripped out of the production code...

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• Identify server that made call to web service

  - by sleepybobos

  I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

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• Using SetParent to steal the main window of another process but keeping the message loops separate

  - by insta

  Background: My coworker and I are maintaining a million-line legacy application we inherited. Its frontend is written in VB6, and as we're devoting almost all of our resources to converting it to C#, we are looking for quick & dirty solutions to our specific problem. The application behaves in a plugin-ish manner. There are up to 20ish separate ActiveX controls that can be loaded at once in a grid-style layout. The problem is that the ActiveX controls do all of their processing on their own UI thread, and as a lot of it is blocking waiting on network access, the UI gets very soupy. When our hosting C# app loads these controls, it becomes unresponsive because of how many controls are chewing up UI resources doing nothing. To top it off, the controls are fragile and will crash at the slightest provocation. When they are hosted in the main C# app, it creates serious instability. The best my coworker and I have come up with so far is starting a process per ActiveX control. This process, which we call the proxy, is another winforms app. It uses named pipes to communicate with the hosting process. The hosting process creates a window, loads an ActiveX control of our choice (via some reflections & AxHost magic), and tells the main process what its window handle is via the named pipe. The main process uses a combination of SetParent, and SetWindowPos to move the proxy application into itself to emulate a plugin. Size updates are sent via the named pipe. This works well enough until the ActiveX application does some sort of lengthy process and we click around on the main window while it's working. For awhile the main window is responsive, but eventually it becomes unresponsive as the child window waits for its UI thread. How can we keep the child windows on their own complete thread while still getting the benefits of SetParent? (please let me know if anything isn't clear!)

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• Deep Zoom in Ajax - Possible? Any examples out there?

  - by Phil

  I have an idea to implement a deep zoom type interface hosted in a browser for sports training data (speed, distance, heart rate etc.) However, rather than images I actually want to zoom into a hierarchy of information. For example, the initial display would contain a grid of years - hover over 2008, for example, and spin the mouse wheel (or click) will zoom into that year but during the zoom I want 2008 to fade out and be replaced with a calendar of months. Again zoom into a month and the months are replaced with the months calendar, zoom into a day and you finally see a chart with the training data plotted on it. All the time only dates with actual data would be highlighted in some fashion. My question is whether this would even be possible and whether anyone has seen examples of this already. I'm imagining that most of the time the next level of information could be cached in the browser (in fact, because this is calendar-based, I can calculate most of that and cache the dates to be highlighted.) I could also zoom into an empty chart whilst an Ajax thread is fetching the data to display. I've never tried anything like this before and I'm especially interested in whether DHTML would be capable of this sort of zoom (I suspect not and I would have to resort to Silverlight) and whether the Ajax execution would be uninterrupted whilst the browser rendering thread is kept busy zooming.

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• XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

  - by maharaj

  Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

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• ASP.NET inline code in a server control

  - by John

  Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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• FogBugz On Demand + online source control at low/no cost?

  - by quux

  I have a project in the free hosted FogBugz On Demand (FOD) product right now. This is great for feature/issue tracking. But I've been working from a codebase that is solely on my development machine. I'd like to collaborate with another guy who is thousands of miles from me. So we need a source control solution (SCM)! I use Visual Studio (2005, but can upgrade to later versions as needed). I am aware that FogBugz can integrate with a number of source control systems. So now the question is: which online SCM products can integrate well with FOD and VS? And which ones do so well at low or no cost, for a small code repository. And where might I find a proven recipe for putting this together. I'm open to other solutions which provide the same functionality. Please don't suggest Trac - I regard it highly, but I want the features of FOB (especially the evidence based scheduling) in my issue tracking solution. So really, I need to combine FOB + VS + some online SCM product into a low or no cost solution for two coders to collaborate on.

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• Git + GitHub + Heroku

  - by Haseeb Khan

  Hi All, I am new to the world of Git, GitHub and Heroku. So far, I am enjoying this paradigm but coming from a background with SVN, things seems a bit complicated to me in the world of Git. I am facing a problem for which I am looking for a solution. Scenario: I have setup a new private project on GitHub. I forked the private project and now I have the following structure in my branch: /project /apps /my-apps /my-app-1 .... /my-app-2 .... /your-apps /your-app-1 .... /your-app-2 .... /plugins .... I can commit the code in my Fork on GitHub from my machine in any of the folders I want. Later on, these would be pulled into the master repository by the admin of the project. For every individual application in the apps folder, I have setup an app on Heroku which is a Git Repo in itself where I push my changes when I am done with the user stories from my local machine. In short, every app in the apps folder is a Rails App hosted on Heroku. Problem: What I want is that when I push my changes into Heroku, they can be committed into my project fork on GitHub as well, so, it also has the latest code all the time. The issue I see is that the code on Heroku is a Git Repo while the folders which I have on GitHub are part of a Repo. So far, what I have researched is that there is something known as Submodule in the Git World which can come to the rescue, however, I have not been able to find some newbie instructions. Can someone in the community be kind enough to share thoughts and help me to identify the solution of this problem? Thanks in advance. Regards, Haseeb Khan haseeb [AT] tkxel.com TkXel

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• Jboss 6 Cluster Singleton Clustered

  - by DanC

  I am trying to set up a Jboss 6 in a clustered environment, and use it to host clustered stateful singleton EJBs. So far we succesfully installed a Singleton EJB within the cluster, where different entrypoints to our application (through a website deployed on each node) point to a single environment on which the EJB is hosted (thus mantaining the state of static variables). We achieved this using the following configuration: Bean interface: @Remote public interface IUniverse { ... } Bean implementation: @Clustered @Stateful public class Universe implements IUniverse { private static Vector<String> messages = new Vector<String>(); ... } jboss-beans.xml configuration: <deployment xmlns="urn:jboss:bean-deployer:2.0"> <!-- This bean is an example of a clustered singleton --> <bean name="Universe" class="Universe"> </bean> <bean name="UniverseController" class="org.jboss.ha.singleton.HASingletonController"> <property name="HAPartition"><inject bean="HAPartition"/></property> <property name="target"><inject bean="Universe"/></property> <property name="targetStartMethod">startSingleton</property> <property name="targetStopMethod">stopSingleton</property> </bean> </deployment> The main problem for this implementation is that, after the master node (the one that contains the state of the singleton EJB) shuts down gracefuly, the Singleton's state is lost and reset to default. Please note that everything was constructed following the JBoss 5 Clustering documents, as no JBoss 6 documents were found on this subject. Any information on how to solve this problem or where to find JBoss 6 documention on clustering is appreciated.

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• Corrupt UTF-8 Characters with PHP 5.2.10 and MySQL 5.0.81

  - by jkndrkn

  We have an application hosted on both a local development server and a live site. We are experiencing UTF-8 corruption issues and are looking to figure out how to resolve them. The system is run using symfony 1.0 with Propel. On our development server, we are running PHP 5.2.0 and MySQL 5.0.32. We do not experience corrupted UTF-8 characters there. On our live site, PHP 5.2.10 and MySQL 5.0.81 is running. On that server, certain characters such as ô´ and S are corrupted once they are stored in the database. The corrupted characters are showing up as either question marks or approximations of the original character with adjacent question marks. Examples of corruption: Uncorrupted: ô´ Corrupted: ô? Uncorrupted: S Corrupted: ? We are currently using the following techniques on both development and live servers: Executing the following queries prior to execution of any other queries: SET NAMES 'utf8' COLLATE 'utf8_unicode_ci' SET CHARSET 'utf8' Setting the <meta> Content-Type value to: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Adding the following to our .htaccess file: AddDefaultCharset utf-8 Using mb_* (multibyte) PHP functions where necessary. Being sure to set database columns to use utf8_unicode_ci collation. These techniques are sufficient for our development site, but do not work on the live site. On the live site I've also tried adding mysql_set_encoding('ut8', $mysql_connection) but this does not help either. I have found some evidence that newer versions of PHP and MySQL are mishandling UTF-8 character encodings.

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• nServiceBus - Not all commands being received by handler

  - by SimonB

  In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

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• Postgres error with Sinatra/Haml/DataMapper on Heroku

  - by sevennineteen

  I'm trying to move a simple Sinatra app over to Heroku. Migration of the Ruby app code and existing MySQL database using Taps went smoothly, but I'm getting the following Postgres error: PostgresError - ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...d_at", "post_id" FROM "comments" WHERE ("post_id" IN (4, 17,... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. It's evident that the problem is related to a type mismatch in the query, but this is being issued from a Haml template by the DataMapper ORM at a very high level of abstraction, so I'm not sure how I'd go about controlling this... Specifically, this seems to be throwing up on a call of p.comments from my Haml template, where p represents a given post. The Datamapper models are related as follows: class Post property :id, Serial ... has n, :comments end class Comment property :id, Serial ... belongs_to :post end This works fine on my local and current hosted environment using MySQL, but Postgres is clearly more strict. There must be hundreds of Datamapper & Haml apps running on Postgres DBs, and this model relationship is super-conventional, so hopefully someone has seen (and determined how to fix) this. Thanks!

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• What is the best way to store site configuration data?

  - by DaveDev

  I have a question about storing site configuration data. We have a platform for web applications. The idea is that different clients can have their data hosted and displayed on their own site which sits on top of this platform. Each site has a configuration which determines which panels relevant to the client appear on which pages. The system was originally designed to keep all the configuration data for each site in a database. When the site is loaded all the configuration data is loaded into a SiteConfiguration object, and the clients panels are generated based on the content of this object. This works, but I find it very difficult to work with to apply change requests or add new sites because there is so much data to sift through and it's difficult maintain a mental model of the site and its configuration. Recently I've been tasked with developing a subset of some of the sites to be generated as PDF documents for printing. I decided to take a different approach to how I would define the configuration in that instead of storing configuration data in the database, I wrote XML files to contain the data. I find it much easier to work with because instead of reading meaningless rows of data which are related to other meaningless rows of data, I have meaningful documents with semantic, readable information with the relationships defined by visually understandable element nesting. So now with these 2 approaches to storing site configuration data, I'd like to get the opinions of people more experienced in dealing with this issue on dealing with these two approaches. What is the best way of storing site configuration data? Is there a better way than the two ways I outlined here? note: StackOverflow is telling me the question appears to be subjective and is likely to be closed. I'm not trying to be subjective. I'd like to know how best to approach this issue next time and if people with industry experience on this could provide some input.

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• SQL Server becomes slow after restart

  - by Tobi DM

  We use SQL Server 2005 on an Windwos Server 2008. Ther Server has 48 GB RAM. SQL Server is configured to use 40 GB RAM. There is only one database hosted (About 70 GB). The only app beside SQL Server is our App-Server which connects the clients to the database. Now we encounter the following problem: After a restart of the server our the performance is great. The server grabs the 40 GB RAM wich it is allowed to and then runs fast as hell. But after about 4 weeks the system becomes slower and slower. The execution of statements (seen in the profiler) is raising slowly. But I cannot see that there is something going wrong on the server. CPU usage is at about 20% I/O also seems to be no Problem The process monitor does also not show that there are strange apps or something like that. Eventlog does also have no interessting messages No open transactions or blockings to see We tried already the following things without effect: Droped the cache by using the statements DBCC FreeProcCache DBCC FREESYSTEMCACHE('ALL') DBCC DropCleanbuffers Restarted the Appserver we are using. Restart the sql server service But nothing did help exept restarting the whole server. Any ideas?

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• javascript: "Object doesn't support this property or method" when ActiveX object called.

  - by agnieszka

  I've got simple html on Login.aspx with an ActiveX object: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head><title></title> <script language="javaScript" type="text/javascript"> function getUserInfo() { var userInfo = MyActiveX.GetInfo(); form1.info.value = userInfo; form1.submit(); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:getUserInfo()"> <object id="MyActiveX" name="MyActiveX" codebase="MyActiveX.cab" classid="CLSID:C63E6630-047E-4C31-H457-425C8412JAI25"></object> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Login.aspx"> <input type="hidden" id="info" name="info" value="" /> </form> </body> </html> The code works perfectly fine on my machine (edit: hosted and run), it does't work on the other: there is an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" in the first line of javascript function. The cab file is in the same folder as the page file. I don't know javascript at all and have no idea why is the problem occuring. Googling didn't help. Do you ave any idea? Edit: on both machines IE was used and activex was enabled. Edit2: I also added if (document.MyActiveX) at the beggining of the function and I still get error in the same line of code - I mean it looks like document.MyActiveX is true but calling the method still fails

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• Replacement for Hamachi for SVN access

  - by Piers

  My company has been using Hamachi to access our SVN repository for a number of years. We are a small yet widely distributed development team with each programmer in a different country working from home. The server is hosted by a non-techie in our central office. Hamachi is useful here since it has a GUI and supports remote management. This system worked well for a while, but recently I have moved to a country with poor internet speeds. Hamachi will no longer connect 99% of the time - instead I get a "Probing..." message that doesn't resolve. It's certain to be a latency issue, as the same laptop will connect without problems when I cross the border and connect using a different ISP with better speeds. So I really need to replace Hamachi with some other VPN/protocol that handles latency better. The techie managing the repository is not comfortable installing and configuring Apache or IIS, so it looks like HTTP is out. I tried to convince my boss to go for a web hosting company, but he doesn't trust a 3rd party with our source. Any other recommended options / experiences out there for accessing our SVN repos that would be as simple as Hamachi for setup; but be more tolerant of network latency issues?

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• iPhone xcode - Activity Indicator with tab bar controller and multi table view controllers

  - by Frames84

  I've looked for a tutorial and can't seem to find one for a activity indicator in a table view nav bar. in my mainWindow.xib I have a Tab Bar Controller with 4 Tabs controllers each containing a table view. each load JSON feeds using the framework hosted at Google. In one of my View Controller I can add an activity indicator to the nav bar by using: UIActivityIndicatorView *activityIndcator = [[UIActivityIndicatorView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,0,20,20)]; [activityIndcator startAnimating]; UIBarButtonItem *activityItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithCustomView:activityIndcator]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = activityItem; however and can turn it off by using: self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = FALSE; But if i place this in my viewDidLoad event it shows all the time. I only want it to show when I select a row in my table view. so I added it at the top of didSelectRowAtIndexPath and the stop line after I load a feed. it shows but takes a second or two and only shows for about half a second. is the an event that firers before the didSelectRowAtIndexPath event a type of loading event? if not what is the standard menthord for implementing such functionality?

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