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• Can I ignore a SIGFPE resulting from division by zero?

  - by Mikeage

  I have a program which deliberately performs a divide by zero (and stores the result in a volatile variable) in order to halt in certain circumstances. However, I'd like to be able to disable this halting, without changing the macro that performs the division by zero. Is there any way to ignore it? I've tried using #include <signal.h> ... int main(void) { signal(SIGFPE, SIG_IGN); ... } but it still dies with the message "Floating point exception (core dumped)". I don't actually use the value, so I don't really care what's assigned to the variable; 0, random, undefined... EDIT: I know this is not the most portable, but it's intended for an embedded device which runs on many different OSes. The default halt action is to divide by zero; other platforms require different tricks to force a watchdog induced reboot (such as an infinite loop with interrupts disabled). For a PC (linux) test environment, I wanted to disable the halt on division by zero without relying on things like assert.

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• How to deploy RSWebParts.cab manually?

  - by denni

  I'm using the SSRS 2005 Web parts to display my reports in a MOSS 2007 SP1 Portal. I have successfully installed the Web parts in my development, testing, and UAT servers using the following command: stsadm -o addwppack -filename path/to/RSWebParts.cab. But when I tried running the same command in the production server, it will give me the following error: This solution contains no resources scoped for a Web application and cannot be deployed to a particular Web application. I know I usually will get this kind of error message when I tried to deploy my custom solutions having no Web application resources (such as web.config entries) to a specific Web application. But this is not my custom solution, it is an out-of-the-box SSRS Web part and it does have resources scoped to a Web application. I tried to even use different combination of the command by providing the -url, -globalinstall, and -force switches but it still give the same error. The configuration of the 4 servers are exactly the same, both from software and hardware perspectives. All other features are working properly on the production server. I even tried to extract the cab file manually to the bin folder of my Web application, then modify the Web.config manually to include the SafeControl element (copied from the manifest.xml inside the cab file). But it gave me an error saying it couldn't find the resources file. Even though, I extracted the whole file, including the resource files in the bin folder. Is there anyone who can help me resolve the problem? Thanks a lot.

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• What's correct way to remove a boost::shared_ptr from a list?

  - by Catskul

  I have a std::list of boost::shared_ptr<T> and I want to remove an item from it but I only have a pointer of type T* which matches one of the items in the list. However I cant use myList.remove( tPtr ) I'm guessing because shared_ptr does not implement == for its template argument type. My immediate thought was to try myList.remove( shared_ptr<T>(tPtr) ) which is syntactically correct but it will crash from a double delete since the temporary shared_ptr has a separate use_count. std::list< boost::shared_ptr<T> > myList; T* tThisPtr = new T(); // This is wrong; only done for example code. // stand-in for actual code in T using // T's actual "this" pointer from within T { boost::shared_ptr<T> toAdd( tThisPtr ); // typically would be new T() myList.push_back( toAdd ); } { //T has pointer to myList so that upon a certain action, // it will remove itself romt the list //myList.remove( tThisPtr); //doesn't compile myList.remove( boost::shared_ptr<T>(tThisPtr) ); // compiles, but causes // double delete } The only options I see remaining are to use std::find with a custom compare, or to loop through the list brute force and find it myself, but it seems there should be a better way. Am I missing something obvious, or is this just too non-standard a use to be doing a remove the clean/normal way?

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• Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

  - by NoozNooz42

  Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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• Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

  - by Graham

  All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

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• Avoid the problem with BigDecimal when migrating to Java 1.4 to Java 1.5+

  - by romaintaz

  Hello, I've recently migrated a Java 1.4 application to a Java 6 environment. Unfortunately, I encountered a problem with the BigDecimal storage in a Oracle database. To summarize, when I try to store a "7.65E+7" BigDecimal value (76,500,000.00) in the database, Oracle stores in reality the value of 7,650,000.00. This defect is due to the rewritting of the BigDecimal class in Java 1.5 (see here). In my code, the BigDecimal was created from a double using this kind of code: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal("" + someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... In more than 99% of the cases, everything works fine. Except that in really few case, the bug mentioned above occurs. And that's quite annoying. If I change the previous code to avoid the use of the String constructor of BigDecimal, then I do not encounter the bug in my uses cases: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal(someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... However, how can I be sure that this solution is the correct way to handle the use of BigDecimal? So my question is to know how I have to manage my BigDecimal values to avoid this issue: Do not use the new BigDecimal(String) constructor and use directly the new BigDecimal(double)? Force Oracle to use toPlainString() instead of toString() method when dealing with BigDecimal (and in this case how to do that)? Any other solution? Environment information: Java 1.6.0_14 Hibernate 2.1.8 (yes, it is a quite old version) Oracle JDBC 9.0.2.0 and also tested with 10.2.0.3.0 Oracle database 10.2.0.3.0

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• Multiple, Simultaneous Factories and Protocols in Twisted: Same Service, Different Ports

  - by RichardCroasher

  Greetings, Forum. I'm working on a program in Python that uses Twisted to manage networking. The basis of this program is a TCP service that is to listen for connections on multiple ports. However, instead of using one Twisted factory to handle a protocol object for each port, I am trying to use a separate factory for each port. The reason for this is to force a separation among the groups of clients connecting to the different ports. Unfortunately, it appears that this architecture isn't quite working: clients that connect to one port appear to be available among all the factories (e.g., the protocol class used by each factory includes a 'self.factory.clients.append (self)' statement...instead of adding a given client to just the factory for a particular port, the client is added to all factories), and whenever I shutdown service on one port the listeners on all ports also stop. I've been working with Twisted for a short while, and fear I simply don't fully understand how its factory classes are managed. My question is: is it simply not possible to have multiple, simultaneous instances of the same factory and same protocol in use across different ports (without these instances stepping on each other's toes)?

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• Embedding/deploying custom font in .NET app

  - by Swingline Rage

  Is there an official way to distribute (deploy) a specific font with a .NET application? We have a (public domain) "LED font" that prints numbers with the retro LED instrumentface look. This is a standard True Type or Open Type font like any other except it looks funky. Obviously for that to work, this font needs to be on the user's machine. But we'd prefer to not force the user to "install our special font into your font folder". We'd prefer to either load a Font object directly from the TTF, or programatically install the font so it's available. How do applications handle this sort of things? Eg, I notice Adobe XYZ installs various fonts on the system without user intervention. That's what we'd like to do. EDIT: okay, ideally, we'd prefer not to install the font directly. We don't want our nifty themed LED font showing up in the user's font dropdown in MS Word. We'd prefer to use this font, but restrict its use or appearance to our app. Any way to do this? Thanks!

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• Computing complex math equations in python

  - by dassouki

  Are there any libraries or techniques that simplify computing equations ? Take the following two examples: F = B * { [ a * b * sumOf (A / B ''' for all i ''' ) ] / [ sumOf(c * d * j) ] } where: F = cost from i to j B, a, b, c, d, j are all vectors in the format [ [zone_i, zone_j, cost_of_i_to_j], [..]] This should produce a vector F [ [1,2, F_1_2], ..., [i,j, F_i_j] ] T_ij = [ P_i * A_i * F_i_j] / [ SumOf [ Aj * F_i_j ] // j = 1 to j = n ] where: n is the number of zones T = vector [ [1, 2, A_1_2, P_1_2], ..., [i, j, A_i_j, P_i_j] ] F = vector [1, 2, F_1_2], ..., [i, j, F_i_j] so P_i would be the sum of all P_i_j for all j and Aj would be sum of all P_j for all i I'm not sure what I'm looking for, but perhaps a parser for these equations or methods to deal with multiple multiplications and products between vectors? To calculate some of the factors, for example A_j, this is what i use from collections import defaultdict A_j_dict = defaultdict(float) for A_item in TG: A_j_dict[A_item[1]] += A_item[3] Although this works fine, I really feel that it is a brute force / hacking method and unmaintainable in the case we want to add more variables or parameters. Are there any math equation parsers you'd recommend? Side Note: These equations are used to model travel. Currently I use excel to solve a lot of these equations; and I find that process to be daunting. I'd rather move to python where it pulls the data directly from our database (postgres) and outputs the results into the database. All that is figured out. I'm just struggling with evaluating the equations themselves. Thanks :)

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• Close application on error

  - by poke

  I’m currently writing an application for the Android platform that requires a mounted SD card (or ExternalStorage). I know that it might not be the best way to require something like that, but the application will work with quite a lot of data, and I don’t even want to think about storing that on the device’s storage. Anyway, to ensure that the application won’t run without the external storage, I do a quick check in the activity’s onCreate method. If the card is not mounted, I want to display an error message and then quit the application. My current approach looks like this: public void onCreate ( Bundle savedInstanceState ) { super.onCreate( savedInstanceState ); setContentView( R.layout.main ); try { // initialize data storage // will raise an exception if it fails, or the SD card is not mounted // ... } catch ( Exception e ) { AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder( this ); builder .setMessage( "There was an error: " + e.getMessage() ) .setCancelable( false ) .setNeutralButton( "Ok.", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick ( DialogInterface dialog, int which ) { MyApplication.this.finish(); } } ); AlertDialog error = builder.create(); error.show(); return; } // continue ... } When I run the application, and the exception gets raised (I raise it manually to check if everything works), the error message is displayed correctly. However when I press the button, the application closes and I get an Android error, that the application was closed unexpectedly (and I should force exit). I read some topics before on closing an application, and I know that it maybe shouldn’t happen like that. But how should I instead prevent the application from continuing to run? How do you close the application correctly when an error occurs?

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• If attacker has original data and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

  - by Brad Cupit

  If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require storage in the database. I'm leaning towards the the one-way-hash-stored-in-the-db, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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• How to develop JSP/Servlets Web App using MVC pattern?

  - by A.S al-shammari

  I'm developing a JSP/Servlets web app (no frameworks). I want to use MVC pattern. I designed my project like this : Controller :a servlet that reads a request, extracts the values,communicates with model objects and gives information to a JSP page. View : JSP Pages. Model : Java Classes / Java Beans .. etc . The problem : Index.jsp is the starting point (default page) in my web site. So, the Index.jsp becomes the controller to parse the request! .For example , the following request : index.jsp?section=article&id=10 parsed in index.jsp as following : <div class="midcol"> <!-- Which section? --> <%String fileName = request.getParameter("section"); if (fileName == null) { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/frontpage.jsp"; } else { fileName = "WEB-INF/jspf/" + fileName + ".jsp"; } %> <jsp:include page='<%= fileName%>' /> </div> Here, I can't force the servlet to be a controller .. because the index.jsp is the controller here since it's the starting point! Is there any solution to forward the request from index.jsp to the servlet and then go back to index.jsp ? Or any solution that achieves the MVC goal - the servlet should be the controller - ? I'm thinking of making a FrontPageController servlet as default page instead of index.jsp ! but I don't know if it's a perfect idea ?!

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• Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

  - by alyoshak

  When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

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• Scheduling of tasks to a single resource using Prolog

  - by Reed Debaets

  I searched through here as best I could and though I found some relevant questions, I don't think they covered the question at hand: Assume a single resource and a known list of requests to schedule a task. Each request includes a start_after, start_by, expected_duration, and action. The goal is to schedule the tasks for execution as soon as possible while keeping each task scheduled between start_after and start_by. I coded up a simple prolog example that I "thought" should work but I've been unfortunately getting errors during run time: "=/2: Arguments are not sufficiently instantiated". Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated startAfter(1,0). startAfter(2,0). startAfter(3,0). startBy(1,100). startBy(2,500). startBy(3,300). duration(1,199). duration(2,199). duration(3,199). action(1,'noop1'). action(2,'noop2'). action(3,'noop3'). can_run(R,T) :- startAfter(R,TA),startBy(R,TB),T>=TA,T=<TB. conflicts(T,R1,T1) :- duration(R1,D1),T=<D1+T1,T>T1. schedule(R1,T1,R2,T2,R3,T3) :- can_run(R1,T1),\+conflicts(T1,R2,T2),\+conflicts(T1,R3,T3), can_run(R2,T2),\+conflicts(T2,R1,T1),\+conflicts(T2,R3,T3), can_run(R3,T3),\+conflicts(T3,R1,T1),\+conflicts(T3,R2,T2). % when traced I *should* see T1=0, T2=400, T3=200 Edit: conflicts goal wasn't quite right: needed extra TT1 clause. Edit: Apparently my schedule goal works if I supply valid Request,Time pairs ... but I'm stucking trying to force prolog to find valid values for T1..3 when given R1..3?

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• How can I set the size of the gap between inline elements in CSS?

  - by Val M

  I am creating an MVC 1.0 form to use in multiple views. I have some elements that need to be shown on the same line, and I have done this by setting the display to "display: inline" for the style. I have also added the margin-left setting to the CSS in order to force the gap between the inline elements but this doesn't appear to be being set. My CSS has: fieldset label.inline { display: inline; margin-left: 2em; } The view code is: <fieldset> <legend>Details</legend> <p> <label for="StartTime">Start Time:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("StartTime", Model.StartTime.ToShortTimeString())%> <label for="NextDay" class="inline">Next Day?</label> <%= Html.CheckBox("NextDay") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("StartTime", "*")%> </p> </fieldset> Setting the size in the "margin-left" style has no impact on the space between the StartTime control and the NextDay label. How can I create this gap between the elements?

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• How do you ensure a <td> is exactly 200px tall?

  - by George Edison

  I have a table with an image inside: <table style="border: 3px solid rgb(0, 0, 0); width: 800px; background-color: rgb(255, 255, 255); margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; border-collapse: collapse;"> <tbody> <tr> <td style="text-align: center; padding: 0px; margin: 0px;"><img style="width: 800px; height: 200px; border: 0px;" alt="Logo" src="logo.png"> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> No matter what I do, there is still a little sliver of white at the bottom of the image. A quick check with Chrome's Inspector reveals that the td has a height of 204px! How can I force the td to be the same height as the image? As you can see above, I've tried all sorts of things...

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• Android ScrollView jumps around when resized

  - by Mike

  I have a ScrollView that contains an number of other views (TextViews, ImageViews, etc.). The ScrollView is taller than the screen. I have an AsyncTask that updates the children of the ScrollView based on an http response. I've discovered an interesting behavior that I can't figure out how to work around. If I set any of the children's visibilities to View.INVISIBLE as part of the AsyncTask.onPostExecute(), everything works fine. However, if I set any of the children's visibilities to View.GONE, the ScrollView jumps down from the top when onPostExecute() is called. Exactly how far seems to vary. I'm guessing that re-laying out the ScrollView is causing it to scroll away from the top for some reason. So the question is: is there a way to either prevent or work around this behavior? PS. Using ScrollView.jump(FOCUS_UP) as a workaround isn't ideal since that'll force the user to the top even if they had intended to scroll down. EDIT: Actually, I was wrong. The problem wasn't with a child view being marked gone, the problem was with a sibling view being marked gone and the ScrollView getting resized. My ScrollView is inside a LinearLayout that also contains a Button. When the button is set to GONE, the ScrollView gets resized to take up the available space, causing it to scroll away from the top. Different cause, still looking for a workaround though if possible.

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• Is it possible to unstick a remote IIS ASP server after an exception hangs the session?

  - by user89691

  I have been coding an app in classic ASP that accesses 2 Access databases. I had a page I was working on throw an exception, which is normal during development and causes no lasting problems. This time however, after the exception any attempt to open either of the databases would freeze the session with an infinite script timeout. If I delete the session cookie I an able to access ASP pages again until I try to open the database again. The database that was open when the exception was thrown is left open. There is a LDB lock file and I can't rename or delete either the LDB or MDB file, though I can download the MDB file with FTP. The 2nd access database is not open but any attempt to read this also hangs the session. Accessing HTML pages is fine. The site is hosted with Hostway and they are not interested ("Coding problem = Your problem" even though it leaves my site dead in the water, I suspect until the next reboot, whenever that might be). Here is the dump from the relevant ASP page that threw the exception: Active Server Pages error 'ASP 0115' Unexpected error /translatestats.asp A trappable error (C0000005) occurred in an external object. The script cannot continue running. Active Server Pages error 'ASP 0240' Script Engine Exception /translatestats.asp A ScriptEngine threw exception 'C0000005' in 'IActiveScript::Close()' from 'CActiveScriptEngine::FinalRelease()'. Is there any way I can unstick the site / force close the database remotely ?

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• How best to implement "favourites" feature? (like favourite products on a data driven website)

  - by ClarkeyBoy

  Hi, I have written a dynamic database driven, object oriented website with an administration frontend etc etc. I would like to add a feature where customers can save items as "favourites", without having to create an account and login, to come back to them later, but I dont know how exactly to go about doing this... I see three options: Log favourites based on IP address and then change these to be logged against an account if the customer then creates an account; Force customers to create an account to be able to use this functionality; Log favourites based on IP address but give users the option to save their favourites under a name they specify. The problem with option 1 is that I dont know much about IP addresses - my Dad thinks they are unique, but I know people have had problems with systems like this. The problem with 1 and 2 is that accounts have not been opened up to customers yet - only administrators can log in at the moment. It should be easy to alter this (no more than a morning or afternoons work) but I would also have to implement usergroups too. The problem with option 3 is that if user A saves a favourites list called "My Favourites", and then user B tries to save a list under this name and it is refused, user B will then be able to access the list saved by user A because they now know it already exists. A solution to this is to password protect lists, but to go to all this effort I may as well implement option 2. Of course I could always use option 4; use an alternative if anyone can suggest a better solution than any of the above options. So has anyone ever done something like this before? If so how did you go about it? What do you recommend (or not recommend)? Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard

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• My framework will utilise other frameworks, but I'd like this to be transparent to the end-user

  - by d11wtq

  I'm building a framework, which aims to provide a new development environment for the user, but I need to use things like RegexKit and almost certainly some other established frameworks in order to do this. Any functionality exposed from such frameworks would be abstracted through classes and methods in my own framework for maintenance reasons (allowing me to change my mind on which dependencies I want). In an ideal world I just want to ship a single .framework. However I'm aware that unlike with standard bundles and applications it is not possibile to embed a framework inside the framework bundle. Do I have any other option other than to tell the end user that they must also install RegexKit and any other dependencies? I have a feeling this lessens the appeal value of the easy to use embedded framework I'd envisaged building. Right now I'm feeling like I have some limited options: Force the user to install the dependencies. Write my own classes that provide the same functionality -- ugh! If at all possible, try to statically link the third party frameworks (is this possible??) My end-product is ideally a single .framework bundle that uses @rpath and so can be installed in the system or simply bundled with the app that uses it.

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• Http Digest Authentication, Handle different browser char-sets...

  - by user160561

  Hi all, I tried to use the Http Authentication Digest Scheme with my php (apache module) based website. In general it works fine, but when it comes to verification of the username / hash against my user database i run into a problem. Of course i do not want to store the user´s password in my database, so i tend to store the A1 hashvalue (which is md5($username . ':' . $realm . ':' . $password)) in my db. This is just how the browser does it too to create the hashes to send back. The Problem: I am not able to detect if the browser does this in ISO-8859-1 fallback (like firefox, IE) or UTF-8 (Opera) or whatever. I have chosen to do the calculation in UTF-8 and store this md5 hash. Which leads to non-authentication in Firefox and IE browsers. How do you solve this problem? Just do not use this auth-scheme? Or Store a md5 Hash for each charset? Force users to Opera? (Terms of A1 refer to the http://php.net/manual/en/features.http-auth.php example.) (for digest access authentication read the according wikipedia entry)

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• How to prevent multiple registrations?

  - by GG.

  I develop a political survey website where anyone can vote once. Obviously I have to prevent multiple registrations for the survey remains relevant. Already I force every user to login with their Google, Facebook or Twitter account. But they can authenticate 3 times if they have an account on each, or authenticate with multiple accounts of the same platform (I have 3 accounts on Google). So I thought also store the IP address, but they can still go through a proxy... I thought also keep the HTTP User Agent with PHP's get_browser(), although they can still change browsers. I can extract the OS with a regex, to change OS is less easier than browsers. And there is also geolocation, for example with the Google Map API. So to summarize, several ideas: 1 / SSO Authentication (I keep the email) 2 / IP Address 3 / HTTP User Agent 4 / Geolocation with an API Have you any other ideas that I did not think? How to embed these tests? Execute in what order? Have you already deploy this kind of solution?

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• CSS doesn't apply to dynamically created elements in IE 7?

  - by Austin Hyde

  In the project I am working on, I dynamically generate (with javascript) filters that look like this: <div class="filter"> <a ... class="filter_delete_link">Delete</a> <div class="filter_field"> ... </div> <div class="filter_compare"> ... </div> <div class="filter_constraint"> ... </div> <div class="filter_logic"> ... </div> </div> And I have CSS that applies to each filter (for example): .filter a.filter_delete_link{ display:block; height:16px; background: url('../images/remove_16.gif') no-repeat; padding-left:20px; } However, it seems in IE 7 (and probably 6 for that matter), these styles don't get applied to the new filters. Everything works perfectly in Firefox/Chrome/IE8. Using the IE8 developer tools, set to IE7 mode, the browser can see the new elements, and can see the CSS, but just isn't applying the CSS. Is there a way to force IE to reload styles, or perhaps is there a better way to fix this?

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• Using the Microsoft Ajax Minifier with Web Setup project & Source Control

  - by Rob

  I've just started investigating the Microsoft Ajax Minifer 4.0 for use with a Visual Studio 2008 Web Application I work on. It's proven easy enough to hook it into the .csproj file so it produced .min.js files for all scripts, however I'm stumped as to how to integrate this with the Web Setup project & Source Control. Essentially what I want to do is have the resultant .min.js files included in the Web Setup project without having them included in Source Control because: Having to check them out prior to the build being executing is a pain (the minifier cannot modify them if they're not checked out). As they're created as a "build artifact" it just seems wrong to have them stored under source control. The only option I've managed to come across so far is to explicitly include the .min.js files as part of the Setup project by right clicking on the Web Setup project and choosing "Add File", and then having the relevant folder hierarchy duplicated in "File System on Target Machine" so that I can force the file to the correct location. This is neither elegant or simple/robust as: It requires me to manually add every minified js file to the Web Setup project by hand Maintain a copy of the relevant directory structure in both the Web Application project and the Web Setup project Remember to add any new js files minified versions to the Web Setup project Is there a better way of doing this?

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• VBScript: Disable caching of response from server to HTTP GET URL request

  - by Rob

  I want to turn off the cache used when a URL call to a server is made from VBScript running within an application on a Windows machine. What function/method/object do I use to do this? When the call is made for the first time, my Linux based Apache server returns a response back from the CGI Perl script that it is running. However, subsequent runs of the script seem to be using the same response as for the first time, so the data is being cached somewhere. My server logs confirm that the server is not being called in those subsequent times, only in the first time. This is what I am doing. I am using the following code from within a commercial application (don't wish to mention this application, probably not relevant to my problem): With CreateObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") .open "GET", "http://myserver/cgi-bin/nsr/nsr.cgi?aparam=1", False .send nsrresponse =.responseText End With Is there a function/method on the above object to turn off caching, or should I be calling a method/function to turn off the caching on a response object before making the URL? I looked here for a solution: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms535874(VS.85).aspx - not quite helpful enough. And here: http://www.w3.org/TR/XMLHttpRequest/ - very unfriendly and hard to read. I am also trying to force not using the cache using http header settings and html document header meta data: Snippet of server-side Perl CGI script that returns the response back to the calling client, set expiry to 0. print $httpGetCGIRequest-header( -type = 'text/html', -expires = '+0s', ); Http header settings in response sent back to client: <html><head><meta http-equiv="CACHE-CONTROL" content="NO-CACHE"></head> <body> response message generated from server </body> </html> The above http header and html document head settings haven't worked, hence my question.

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