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  • In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

    - by Irchi
    Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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  • Does BeginReceive() get everything sent by BeginSend()?

    - by IVlad
    I'm writing a program that will have both a server side and a client side, and the client side will connect to a server hosted by the same program (but by another instance of it, and usually on another machine). So basically, I have control over both aspects of the protocol. I am using BeginReceive() and BeginSend() on both sides to send and receive data. My question is if these two statements are true: Using a call to BeginReceive() will give me the entire data that was sent by a single call to BeginSend() on the other end when the callback function is called. Using a call to BeginSend() will send the entire data I pass it to the other end, and it will all be received by a single call to BeginReceive() on the other end. The two are basically the same in fact. If the answer is no, which I'm guessing is the case based on what I've read about sockets, what is the best way to handle commands? I'm writing a game that will have commands such as PUT X Y. I was thinking of appending a special character (# for example) to the end of each command, and each time I receive data, I append it to a buffer, then parse it only after I encounter a #.

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  • How to synchronize access to many objects

    - by vividos
    I have a thread pool with some threads (e.g. as many as number of cores) that work on many objects, say thousands of objects. Normally I would give each object a mutex to protect access to its internals, lock it when I'm doing work, then release it. When two threads would try to access the same object, one of the threads has to wait. Now I want to save some resources and be scalable, as there may be thousands of objects, and still only a hand full of threads. I'm thinking about a class design where the thread has some sort of mutex or lock object, and assigns the lock to the object when the object should be accessed. This would save resources, as I only have as much lock objects as I have threads. Now comes the programming part, where I want to transfer this design into code, but don't know quite where to start. I'm programming in C++ and want to use Boost classes where possible, but self written classes that handle these special requirements are ok. How would I implement this? My first idea was to have a boost::mutex object per thread, and each object has a boost::shared_ptr that initially is unset (or NULL). Now when I want to access the object, I lock it by creating a scoped_lock object and assign it to the shared_ptr. When the shared_ptr is already set, I wait on the present lock. This idea sounds like a heap full of race conditions, so I sort of abandoned it. Is there another way to accomplish this design? A completely different way?

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  • Looking for PyQt4 embeddable terminal widget

    - by redShadow
    I wrote an application that, among other things, launches some "backend" processes to do some stuff. These subprocesses are very likely to fail or have unexpected behavior since they have to operate in quite hard conditions, so I prefer to give full control over them to the operator. NOTE: I am running these processes using a subprocess module based class instead of QProcess to have some more control functionality over the running process. At the moment, I'm using a QPlainTextEdit widget to which I append standard output/error from the subprocess, plus some buttons to quickly send some common signals (INT, STOP, CONT, KILL, ..), but: In some cases it would be useful to send some input too. Although it could be done with a text input box, I would prefer using something more "professional" Of course, there is no direct way to interpret special control characters, such as color codes, cursor movement, etc.. I had to implement an auto-scroll management of the console, but it is not guaranteed 100% to work nicely (sometimes the scroll locking doesn't work as expected, etc.) So: does anyone know something I could use to accomplish these needs? I found qtermwidget but it seems more oriented on handling a shell process (and the Python bindings seems to let you run /bin/bash only) by itself than communicating with an already existing process I/O.

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  • Hibernate 1:M relationship ,row order, constant values table and concurrency

    - by EugeneP
    table A and B need to have 1:M relationship a and b are added during application runtime, so A created, then say 4 B's created. Each B instance has to come in order, so that I could later extract them in the same order as I added them. The app will be a web-app running on Tomcat, so 10 instances may work simultaneously. So my question are: 1) How to preserve inserting order, so that I could extract B instances that A references in the same order as I persisted them. That's tricky, because we add to a Collection and then it gets saved (am I right?). So, it depends on how Hibernate saves it, what if it changes the order in what we added instances? I've seen something like LIST instead of SET when describing relationships, is that what I need? 2) How to add a 3-rd column to B so that I could differentiate the instances, something like SEX(M,F,U) in B table. Do I need a special table, or there's and easy way to describe constants in Hibernate. What do you recommend? 3) Talking about concurrency, what methods do you recommend to use? There should be no collisions in the db and as you see, there might easily be some if rows are not inserted (PK added) right where it is invoked without delays ?

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  • How to make link become inactive?

    - by Konstantin Vasilcov
    The idea was simple: change li background color on hover to one color ul#menu li a:hover {...} change it on mouse press to the other color ul#menu li a:active {...} return the color to the original (normal) if the link is neither hover nor pressed The problem appeared to be that, if user rejected his intention and lets the mouse up away from the link, the back color stays as if it was pressed. Then I tried to research and came up with this: ul#menu li a:hover:active {...} It became better, and the link is not marked with special back color in a normal state after user presses the link and rejects. But the "on-hover" back color became equal to the active one. So it looks like the link gets "active" state and stays in it even after user releases mouse button. Hate to write this, but I am very new to html and css. So I may be missing something very basic here. Could you, please, suggest any way, how to achieve my goal? EDIT I've read this source CSS Styling links (thought there could be some other state to use instead of active), but found nothing suitable there...

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  • Moq basic questions

    - by devoured elysium
    I made the following test for my class: var mock = new Mock<IRandomNumberGenerator>(); mock.Setup(framework => framework.Generate(0, 50)) .Returns(7.0); var rnac = new RandomNumberAverageCounter(mock.Object, 1, 100); rnac.Run(); double result = rnac.GetAverage(); Assert.AreEqual(result, 7.0, 0.1); The problem here was that I changed my mind about what range of values Generate(int min, int max) would use. So in Mock.Setup() I defined the range as from 0 to 50 while later I actually called the Generate() method with a range from 1 to 100. I ran the test and it failed. I know that that is what it's supposed to happen but I was left wondering if isn't there a way to launch an exception or throw in a message when trying to run the method with wrong params. Also, if I want to run this Generate() method 10 times with different values (let's say, from 1 to 10), will I have to make 10 mock setups or something, or is there a special method for it? The best I could think of is this (which isn't bad, I'm just asking if there is other better way): for (int i = 1; i < 10; ++i) { mock.Setup(framework => framework.Generate(1, 100)) .Returns((double)i); }

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  • determining the starting speed for an accelerated animation (in flash/actionscript but it's a math question)

    - by vulkanino
    This question burns my brain. I have an object on a plane, but for the sake of simplicity let's work just on a single dimension, thus the object has a starting position xs. I know the ending position xe. The object has to move from starting to ending position with an accelerated (acceleration=a) movement. I know the velocity the object has to have at the ending position (=ve). In my special case the ending speed is zero, but of course I need a general formula. The only unknown is the starting velocity vs. The objects starts with vs in xs and ends with ve in xe, moving along a space x with an acceleration a in a time t. Since I'm working with flash, space is expressed in pixels, time is expressed in frames (but you can reason in terms of seconds, it's easy to convert knowing the frames-per-second). In the animation loop (think onEnterFrame) I compute the new velocity and the new position with (a=0.4 for example): vx *= a (same for vy) x += vx (same for y) I want the entire animation to last, say, 2 seconds, which at 30 fps is 60 frames. Now you know that in 60 frames my object has to move from xs to xe with a constant deceleration so that the ending speed is 0. How do I compute the starting speed vs? Maybe there's a simpler way to do this in Flash, but I am now interested in the math/physics behind this.

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  • free( ) pointers

    - by user1043625
    I'm required to use a special library to keep track of my memory leaks where malloc()= allocate( ) and free( ) = unallocate( ). I'm trying to complete free a linked-list but it seems like the "root" value isn't being freed. typedef struct _node { struct _node *child; char *command; } Command_list; void delete_commands(Command_list **root) { Command_list *temp; while( *root != NULL ){ temp = (*root)->child; //printf("STRING: %s\n", *root->command ); unallocate( *root ); *root = temp; } } The function that's calling it void file_processing( .... ){ Command_list *root = allocate(sizeof (Command_list)); root = NULL; .... delete_commands( &root ); } } I believe that Command_list *root = allocate(sizeof (Command_list)) isn't being properly de-allocated for some reason. Anyone can give me some hints? UPDATE: I found out that instead of Command_list *root = allocate(sizeof (Command_list)); root = NULL; this works: Command_list *root = NULL;

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  • How should a multi-threaded C application handle a failed malloc()?

    - by user294463
    A part of an application I'm working on is a simple pthread-based server that communicates over a TCP/IP socket. I am writing it in C because it's going to be running in a memory constrained environment. My question is: what should the program do if one of the threads encounters a malloc() that returns NULL? Possibilities I've come up with so far: No special handling. Let malloc() return NULL and let it be dereferenced so that the whole thing segfaults. Exit immediately on a failed malloc(), by calling abort() or exit(-1). Assume that the environment will clean everything up. Jump out of the main event loop and attempt to pthread_join() all the threads, then shut down. The first option is obviously the easiest, but seems very wrong. The second one also seems wrong since I don't know exactly what will happen. The third option seems tempting except for two issues: first, all of the threads need not be joined back to the main thread under normal circumstances and second, in order to complete the thread execution, most of the remaining threads will have to call malloc() again anyway. What shall I do?

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  • jQuery removeClass(), how it works

    - by centro
    I have images on my page. User can add more images onto the page by clicking a button. New images are added asynchronously. Initially, each image on page use a special class to be used when the image is loaded. After the image is loaded, that class is removed. Each image being loaded has the class imageLoading: <img class="imageLoading" scr="someimage.png"> After those images are loaded, I remove that class (simplified code without details): $('img.imageLoading') .each(function(){ $(this) .load(function(){ $(this) .removeClass('imageloading'); });}); Visually, I see that style is removed. But when I run the query again: $('img.imageLoading') I see via debugging that all images, not just loading ones, are returned, i.e. it works like I didn't remove the class for the images that were already loaded. I had a look into the page source, and I saw that actually in HTML the class was not removed, though removeClass() was called. Is that behavior by design that all visual changes are applied but the class attribute is not removed in HTML code? If so, how it can be workarounded in this case. Or, probably, I missed something.

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  • Simple syntax question

    - by stabby
    Hey everyone, First off, sorry for my noob-ness. Believe me when i say ive been rtfm'ing. Im not lazy, im just dumb (apparently). On the bright side, this could earn someone some easy points here. I'm trying to do a match/replace with a pattern that contains special characters, and running into syntax errors in a Flex 3 app. I just want the following regex to compile... (while also replacing html tags with "") value.replace(/</?\w+((\s+\w+(\s*=\s*(?:".*?"|'.*?'|[^'">\s]+))?)+\s*|\s*)/?>/g, ""); On a side note, the pattern /<.*?/g wouldn't work in cases where there are html entities between tags, like so: <TEXTFORMAT LEADING="2"> <P ALIGN="LEFT"> <FONT FACE="Arial" SIZE="11" COLOR="#4F4A4A" LETTERSPACING="0" KERNING="0"><one</FONT> </P> </TEXTFORMAT><TEXTFORMAT LEADING="2"> <P ALIGN="LEFT"> <FONT FACE="Arial" SIZE="11" COLOR="#4F4A4A" LETTERSPACING="0" KERNING="0">two</FONT> </P> </TEXTFORMAT> The first regex would get both "<one" and "two", but the second would only get "hi" Thanks! Stabby L

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  • Why does this sql statement keep saying it is a boolean and not a parameter? (php/Mysql)

    - by ggfan
    In this statement, I am trying to see if there if the latest posting in the database that has the exact same title, price, city, state, detail. If there is, then it would say to the user that the exact post has been already made; if not then insert the posting into the dbc. (This is one type of check so that users can't accidentally post twice. This may not be the best check, but this statement error is annoying me, so I want it to work :)) Why won't this sql work? I think it's not letting the title=$title and not getting the value in the $title... ERROR: mysqli_num_rows() expects parameter 1 to be mysqli_result, boolean given in postad.php on line 365 //there is a form that users fill out that has title, price, city, etc <form> blah blah </form> //if users click submit, then does all the checks and if all okay, insert to dbc if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // Grab the pposting data from the POST and gets rid of any funny stuff $title = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['title'])); $price = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['price'])); $city = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['city'])); $state = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['state'])); $detail = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['detail'])); if (!is_numeric($price) && !empty($price)) { echo "<p class='error'>The price can only be numbers. No special characters, etc</p>"; } //Error problem...won't let me set title=$title, detail=$detail, etc. //this statement after all the checks so that none of the variables are empty $query="Select * FROM posting WHERE user_id={$_SESSION['user_id']} AND title=$title AND price=$price AND city=$city AND state=$state AND detail=$detail"; $data = mysqli_query($dbc, $query); if(mysqli_num_rows($data)==1) { echo "You already posted this ad. Most likely caused by refreshing too many times."; } }

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  • Disable a control inside a gridview

    - by saeed talaee
    Hi i want to disable link-bottoms control in a grid view with the condition of a special value . for example if the count for a row become 0 ,the link bottom for that row should be invisible . what should i do? where should i write the code? here is cod that i write in row command grid view but it works only of i push the link bottom!! but i want to apply this cod to my page before loading. please guide me int idx = Convert.ToInt32(e.CommandArgument); idx = idx - (GridView1.PageSize * GridView1.PageIndex); int ID = (int)GridView1.DataKeys[idx].Value; string connStr = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["dbconn"].ConnectionString; SqlConnection sqlconn = new SqlConnection(connStr); SqlCommand sqlcmd = new SqlCommand(); sqlcmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT count(ID) FROM ReviwerArticle where ArticleID=@ArticleID", sqlconn); sqlcmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ArticleID", ID); sqlconn.Open(); int count = ((int)sqlcmd.ExecuteScalar()); sqlconn.Close(); if (count == 0) { ((LinkButton)GridView1.Rows[idx].Cells[0].FindControl("LinkButton4") as LinkButton).Visible = false; }

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  • (again) i improve my question [closed]

    - by gcc
    Possible Duplicate: realizing number …how?? i hold input like that A is char pointer A[0]=n A[1]=j A[2]=n // i take (one number)+special char(s)+command(s) (like $ or #) from user A[3]=d // the input order can be changed like char(s)+number+command . // there is one number in A[] . // and every A[i] is important for me because what will i do in next step . // is determined by that input in A[h] or A[n] . // example . // when you see $ go before array do something . // when you see number go farad equation and use it in there A[j]=$ // (number can be pozitif or negatif . A[i]=14(any number) . . int func(int temp) { if(temp=='n') //..do something then return 10; if(temp=='j') return 11; if(temp=='d') return 12; if(/*........*/) // when temp find/realize number ,i wanna return 13; // in if statement, (instead of .....) what code should i write } how i can do } NOTE::please ,dont close my question ,when you close icannot edit it

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  • Why does Java automatically decode %2F in URI encoded filenames?

    - by Lucas
    I have a java servlet that needs to write out files that have a user-configurable name. I am trying to use URI encoding to properly escape special characters, but the JRE appears to automatically convert encoded forward slashes (%2F) into path separators. Example: File dir = new File("C:\Documents and Setting\username\temp"); String fn = "Top 1/2.pdf"; URI uri = new URI( dir.toURI().toASCIIString() + URLEncoder.encoder( fn, "UTF-8" ).toString() ); File out = new File( uri ); System.out.println( dir.toURI().toASCIIString() ); System.out.println( URLEncoder.encoder( fn, "UTF-8" ).toString() ); System.out.println( uri.toASCIIString() ); System.out.println( output.toURI().toASCIIString() ); The output is: file:/C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/username/temp/ Top+1%2F2.pdf file:/C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/username/temp/Top+1%2F2.pdf file:/C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/username/temp/Top+1/2.pdf After the new File object is instantiated, the %2F sequence is automatically converted to a forward slash and I end up with an incorrect path. Does anybody know the proper way to approach this issue? The core of the problem seems to be that uri.equals( new File(uri).toURI() ) == FALSE when there is a '%2F' in the URI. I'm planning to just use the URLEncoded string verbatim rather than trying to use the File(uri) constructor.

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  • Apache, Nginx, WSGI, django cookies get lost.

    - by Jack M.
    I'm running into a problem trying to get a Django application running in my staging environment. I'm running nginx as a reverse proxy with Apache 2.2/mod_wsgi as the target, and my Django app behind that. The problem is that the cookies are getting lost somewhere between nginx and Apache. My nginx.conf (ripped out a few locations to keep it small): http { gzip on; proxy_set_header Host $host; proxy_set_header X-Real-IP $remote_addr; proxy_set_header X-Forwarded-For $proxy_add_x_forwarded_for; proxy_pass_header Set-Cookie; upstream django { server 127.0.0.1:8080; } server { listen 80; server_name encendio.iigins.com; location / { proxy_pass http://django; } } } My Apache vhosts file: <VirtualHost *:8080> ServerName encendio.test.com ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot "/usr/local/www/apache22/data" WSGIScriptAlias / /usr/local/www/apache22/data/sasquatch/wsgi_handler.py </VirtualHost> If I directly to http://encendio.test.com:8080/ the cookies work and I can log into the admin area. If I log into http://encendio.test.com/, the admin area tells me my browser isn't using cookies. Now things get kind of weird. I went so far as to look at the environ being passed into my wsgi_handler.py: _application = django.core.handlers.wsgi.WSGIHandler() def application(environ, start_response): print >> sys.stderr, environ.get('HTTP_COOKIE', "No Cookie") return _application(environ, start_response) It shows the cookie existing in the environment: [Mon Mar 22 12:15:50 2010] [error] csrftoken=9f2569elkj67984242f0e7a6dea0b791; sessionid=4e5432hjkds8603f26d5ffa02b10cd27 And this cookie matches up with what I see in nginx's log if I plug in $http_cookie on the end of the log. So Apache is getting the cookie in some form, but it's not ending up where Django can see it. I'm at my wit's end for why this isn't working, so any help is greatly appreciated. Ninja Edit: I forgot to mention that Firefox is seeing the cookies. The oddity is that every time I attempt to log in, I get a new sessionid.

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  • How to solve this error that is shown on Windbg?

    - by aF
    Hello, I've loaded a .exe and it gave this error: Microsoft (R) Windows Debugger Version 6.12.0002.633 X86 Copyright (c) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. CommandLine: "C:\Users\Public\SoundLog\Code\Código Python\SoundLog\dist\SoundLog.exe" Symbol search path is: *** Invalid *** **************************************************************************** * Symbol loading may be unreliable without a symbol search path. * * Use .symfix to have the debugger choose a symbol path. * * After setting your symbol path, use .reload to refresh symbol locations. * **************************************************************************** Executable search path is: ModLoad: 00400000 0061c000 image00400000 ModLoad: 771a0000 772dc000 ntdll.dll ModLoad: 76e10000 76ee4000 C:\Windows\system32\kernel32.dll ModLoad: 75460000 754aa000 C:\Windows\system32\KERNELBASE.dll ModLoad: 76550000 76619000 C:\Windows\system32\USER32.dll ModLoad: 76b30000 76b7e000 C:\Windows\system32\GDI32.dll ModLoad: 77310000 7731a000 C:\Windows\system32\LPK.dll ModLoad: 76ef0000 76f8d000 C:\Windows\system32\USP10.dll ModLoad: 75650000 756fc000 C:\Windows\system32\msvcrt.dll ModLoad: 65ee0000 65f83000 C:\Windows\WinSxS\x86_microsoft.vc90.crt_1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b_9.0.30729.4926_none_508ed732bcbc0e5a\MSVCR90.dll (c8.704): Break instruction exception - code 80000003 (first chance) eax=00000000 ebx=00000000 ecx=0012fb0c edx=771e64f4 esi=fffffffe edi=00000000 eip=7723e60e esp=0012fb28 ebp=0012fb54 iopl=0 nv up ei pl zr na pe nc cs=001b ss=0023 ds=0023 es=0023 fs=003b gs=0000 efl=00000246 *** ERROR: Symbol file could not be found. Defaulted to export symbols for ntdll.dll - ntdll!LdrVerifyImageMatchesChecksum+0x633: 7723e60e cc int 3 0:000> g Then I pressed F5 and while executing the program gave me this error (this one is what I need to solve): ModLoad: 6f980000 6ff11000 C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\mscorwks.dll ModLoad: 6f8e0000 6f97b000 C:\Windows\WinSxS\x86_microsoft.vc80.crt_1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b_8.0.50727.4927_none_d08a205e442db5b5\MSVCR80.dll ModLoad: 752f0000 752fb000 C:\Windows\system32\profapi.dll ModLoad: 6e670000 6f168000 C:\Windows\assembly\NativeImages_v2.0.50727_32\mscorlib\8c1770d45c63cf5c462eeb945ef9aa5d\mscorlib.ni.dll ModLoad: 03d90000 03dac000 SoundLogC++WrapperDLL.dll ModLoad: 03db0000 03dcc000 SoundLogC++WrapperDLL.dll ModLoad: 6afa0000 6affb000 C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\mscorjit.dll ModLoad: 04dd0000 04e13000 msvcm90.dll ModLoad: 04e20000 04e63000 msvcm90.dll ModLoad: 76aa0000 76b23000 C:\Windows\system32\CLBCatQ.DLL ModLoad: 75280000 752df000 C:\Windows\system32\sxs.dll ModLoad: 60340000 60348000 C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\culture.dll (b78.9c8): C++ EH exception - code e06d7363 (first chance) (b78.9c8): C++ EH exception - code e06d7363 (first chance) (b78.9c8): C++ EH exception - code e06d7363 (first chance) (b78.9c8): C++ EH exception - code e06d7363 (first chance) (b78.9c8): C++ EH exception - code e06d7363 (first chance) (b78.9c8): CLR exception - code e0434f4d (first chance) (b78.9c8): CLR exception - code e0434f4d (first chance) (b78.9c8): C++ EH exception - code e06d7363 (first chance) (b78.9c8): C++ EH exception - code e06d7363 (first chance) (b78.9c8): CLR exception - code e0434f4d (!!! second chance !!!) eax=0012e2a4 ebx=e0434f4d ecx=00000001 edx=00000000 esi=0012e32c edi=002bada0 eip=75469617 esp=0012e2a4 ebp=0012e2f4 iopl=0 nv up ei pl nz ac po nc cs=001b ss=0023 ds=0023 es=0023 fs=003b gs=0000 efl=00000212 *** ERROR: Symbol file could not be found. Defaulted to export symbols for C:\Windows\system32\KERNELBASE.dll - KERNELBASE!RaiseException+0x54: 75469617 c9 leave Can anyone tell me what is this and how can I solve it?

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  • TFS and shared projects in multiple solutions

    - by David Stratton
    Our .NET team works on projects for our company that fall into distinct categories. Some are internal web apps, some are external (publicly facing) web apps, we also have internal Windows applications for our corporate office users, and Windows Forms apps for our retail locations (stores). Of course, because we hate code reuse, we have a ton of code that is shared among the different applications. Currently we're using SVN as our source control, and we've got our repository laid out like this: - = folder, | = Visual Studio Solution -SVN - Internet | Ourcompany.com | Oursecondcompany.com - Intranet | UniformOrdering website | MessageCenter website - Shared | ErrorLoggingModule | RegularExpressionGenerator | Anti-Xss | OrgChartModule etc... So.. The OurCompany.com solution in the Internet folder would have a website project, and it would also include the ErrorLoggingModule, RegularExpressionGenerator, and Anti-Xss projects from the shared directory. Similarly, our UniformOrdering website solution would have each of these projects included in the solution as well. We prefer to have a project reference to a .dll reference because, first of all, if we need to add or fix a function in the ErrorLoggingModule while working on the OurCompany.com website, it's right there. Also, this allows us to build each solution and see if changes to shared code break any other applications. This should work well on a build server as well if I'm correct. In SVN, there is no problem with this. SVN and Visual Studio aren't tied together in the way TFS's source control is. We never figured out how to work this type of structure in TFS when we were using it, because in TFS, the TFS project was always tied to a Visual Studio Solution. The Source Code repository was a child of the TFS Project, so if we wanted to do this, we had to duplicate the Shared code in each TFS project's source code repository. As my co-worker put it, this "breaks every known best practice about code reuse and simplicity". It was enough of a deal breaker for us that we switched to SVN. Now, however, we're faced with truly fixing our development processes, and the Application Lifecycle Management of TFS is pretty close to exactly what we want, and how we want to work. Our one sticking point is the shared code issue. We're evaluating other commercial and open source solutions, but since we're already paying for TFS with our MSDN Subscriptions, and TFS is pretty much exactly what we want, we'd REALLY like to find a way around this issue. Has anybody else faced this and come up with a solution? If you've seen an article or posting on this that you can share with me, that would help as well. As always, I'm open to answers like "You're looking at it all wrong, bonehead, HERE'S the way it SHOULD be done.

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  • Session Id in url and/or cookie? [closed]

    - by Jacco
    Most people advice against rewriting every (internal) url to include the sessionId (both GET and POST). The standard argument against it seems to be:   If an attacker gets hold of the sessionId, they can hijack the session.   With the sessionId in the url, it easily leaks to the attacker (by referer etc.) But what if you put the sessionId in both an (encrypted) cookie and the url. if the sessionId in either the cookie or the url is missing or if they do not match, decline the request. Let's pretend the website in question is free of xss holes, the cookie encryption is strong enough, etc. etc. Then what is the increased risk of rewriting every url to include the sessionId? UPDATE: @Casper That is a very good point. so up to now there are 2 reasons: bad for search engines / SEO if used in public part of the website can cause trouble when users post an url with a session Id on a forum, send it trough email or bookmark the page apart from the:   It increases the security risk, but it is not clear what the increased risk is. some background info: I've a website that offers blog-like service to travellers. I cannot be sure cookies work nor can I require cookies to work. Most computers in internet cafes are old and not (even close to) up-to-date. The user has no control over them and the connection can be very unreliable for some more 'off the beaten path' locations. Binding the session to an IP-address is not possible, some places use load-balancing proxies with multiple IP addresses. (and from China there is The Great Firewall). Upon receiving the first cookie back, I flag cookies as mandatory. However, if the cookie was flagged as mandatory but not there, I ask for their password once more, knowing their session from the url. (Also cookies have a 1 time token in them, but that's not the point of this question). UPDATE 2: The conclusion seems to be that there are no extra *security* issues when you expose you session id trough the URL while also keeping a copy of the session id in an encrypted cookie. Do not hesitate to add additional information about any possible security implications

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  • Timeout Expired error Using LINQ

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am going to sum up my problem first and then offer massive details and what I have already tried. Summary: I have an internal winform app that uses Linq 2 Sql to connect to a local SQL Express database. Each user has there own DB and the DB stay in sync through Merge Replication with a Central DB. All DB's are SQL 2005(sp2or3). We have been using this app for over 5 months now but recently our users are getting a Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Detailed: The strange part is they get that in two differnt locations(2 differnt LINQ Methods) and only the first time they fire in a given time period(~5mins). One LINQ method is pulling all records that match a FK ID and then Manipulating them to form a Heirarchy View for a TreeView. The second is pulling all records that match a FK ID and dumping them into a DataGridView. The only things I can find in common with the 2 are that the first IS an IEnumerable and the second converts itself from IQueryable - IEnumerable - DataTable... I looked at the query's in Profiler and they 'seemed' normal. They are not very complicated querys. They are only pulling back 10 - 90 records, from one table. Any thoughts, suggestions, hints whatever would be greatly appreciated. I am at my wit's end on this.... public IList<CaseNoteTreeItem> GetTreeViewDataAsList(int personID) { var myContext = MatrixDataContext.Create(); var caseNotesTree = from cn in myContext.tblCaseNotes where cn.PersonID == personID orderby cn.ContactDate descending, cn.InsertDate descending select new CaseNoteTreeItem { CaseNoteID = cn.CaseNoteID, NoteContactDate = Convert.ToDateTime(cn.ContactDate). ToShortDateString(), ParentNoteID = cn.ParentNote, InsertUser = cn.InsertUser, ContactDetailsPreview = cn.ContactDetails.Substring(0, 75) }; return caseNotesTree.ToList<CaseNoteTreeItem>(); } AND THIS ONE public static DataTable GetAllCNotes(int personID) { using (var context = MatrixDataContext.Create()) { var caseNotes = from cn in context.tblCaseNotes where cn.PersonID == personID orderby cn.ContactDate select new { cn.ContactDate, cn.ContactDetails, cn.TimeSpentUnits, cn.IsCaseLog, cn.IsPreEnrollment, cn.PresentAtContact, cn.InsertDate, cn.InsertUser, cn.CaseNoteID, cn.ParentNote }; return caseNotes.ToList().CopyLinqToDataTable(); } }

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  • How can I do something ~after~ an event has fired in C#?

    - by Siracuse
    I'm using the following project to handle global keyboard and mouse hooking in my C# application. This project is basically a wrapper around the Win API call SetWindowsHookEx using either the WH_MOUSE_LL or WH_KEYBOARD_LL constants. It also manages certain state and generally makes this kind of hooking pretty pain free. I'm using this for a mouse gesture recognition software I'm working on. Basically, I have it setup so it detects when a global hotkey is pressed down (say CTRL), then the user moves the mouse in the shape of a pre-defined gesture and then releases global hotkey. The event for the KeyDown is processed and tells my program to start recording the mouse locations until it receives the KeyUp event. This is working fine and it allows an easy way for users to enter a mouse-gesture mode. Once the KeyUp event fires and it detects the appropriate gesture, it is suppose to send certain keystrokes to the active window that the user has defined for that particular gesture they just drew. I'm using the SendKeys.Send/SendWait methods to send output to the current window. My problem is this: When the user releases their global hotkey (say CTRL), it fires the KeyUp event. My program takes its recorded mouse points and detects the relevant gesture and attempts to send the correct input via SendKeys. However, because all of this is in the KeyUp event, that global hotkey hasn't finished being processed. So, for example if I defined a gesture to send the key "A" when it is detected, and my global hotkey is CTRL, when it is detected SendKeys will send "A" but while CTRL is still "down". So, instead of just sending A, I'm getting CTRL-A. So, in this example, instead of physically sending the single character "A" it is selecting-all via the CTRL-A shortcut. Even though the user has released the CTRL (global hotkey), it is still being considered down by the system. Once my KeyUp event fires, how can I have my program wait some period of time or for some event so I can be sure that the global hotkey is truly no longer being registered by the system, and only then sending the correct input via SendKeys?

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  • Team Foundation Server Setup/Access

    - by Angel Brighteyes
    What I need: A TFS 2010 Setup that allows 2 application developers to access the TFS from remote locations. How it is setup: Server 2008 Standard 2g Ram 300g HD space SharePoint Server 2007, using SQL Server 2005 SQL Server 2008 Standard Team Foundation Server 2010 IIS 7 Sharepoint Bindings: TFS.DynAccount.Me:80; TFS:80 TFS Bindings: TFS.DynAccount.Me:8080; TFS:8080 Using DynDNS service to account for the dynamic ip address being used, this is a requirement for the moment until I can get a better isp package. Access using Local Accounts Server is not setup on a domain, or as a domain. Consequently I did not setup AD services. Problem: When logged into TFS using my credentials TFS\AdminUser through the DynDNS account TFS.DynAccount.Me I recieve the 'Red X of Death' on the Documents and Reports folder. When logged into the TFS through the local peer to peer network using the same credentials TFS\AdminUser I do not receive the 'Red X of Death' problem. Further Troubleshooting: When users 'Right Click' the 'TeamProject1' Click 'Show Project Portal' it tries to take them to http://TFS:8080 instead of http://TFS.DynAccount.Me:8080, which doing further research I am assuming that it is because team foundation server was setup with a local name of TFS instead of 'TFS.DynAccount.Me' as specified here in Visual Studio Magazines: The Red X of Death. Users can Access the Team Portal for SharePoint via http://TFS.DynAccount.Me/TeamCollection/TeamProject so it is not like we are dead in the water or anything. However, as most employees/staff are prone to do, they have expressed a great distaste for having to do it this way and just be patient until the current project is finished since we are under a very strict deadline. Is there a way to set this up differently, or change some settings someplace, reinstall it, point a CName record for our domain website to the DynAccount (e.g. TFS.OurDomain.com points to TFS.DynAccount.Me, which consequently does allow access to the http site without issues), or something. I really don't feel like after all the time and effort I have spent into, first the cost, second the bloody install, third learning SharePoint well enough, fourth the hours into days spent on this, fifth more troubleshooting, sixth employee headaches to just let it lay where it is at. I figure in my spare/off time I would keep trying to get this to work. So I really appreciate any help any one can give me. I know this is probably something really stupid simple that I will 'Face Palm' over, but at the moment the stress and frustration just has me beat. Thank you again, this community has always been a great help.

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  • The Skyline Problem.

    - by zeroDivisible
    I just came across this little problem on UVA's Online Judge and thought, that it may be a good candidate for a little code-golf. The problem: You are to design a program to assist an architect in drawing the skyline of a city given the locations of the buildings in the city. To make the problem tractable, all buildings are rectangular in shape and they share a common bottom (the city they are built in is very flat). The city is also viewed as two-dimensional. A building is specified by an ordered triple (Li, Hi, Ri) where Li and Ri are left and right coordinates, respectively, of building i and Hi is the height of the building. In the diagram below buildings are shown on the left with triples (1,11,5), (2,6,7), (3,13,9), (12,7,16), (14,3,25), (19,18,22), (23,13,29), (24,4,28) and the skyline, shown on the right, is represented by the sequence: 1, 11, 3, 13, 9, 0, 12, 7, 16, 3, 19, 18, 22, 3, 23, 13, 29, 0 The output should consist of the vector that describes the skyline as shown in the example above. In the skyline vector (v1, v2, v3, ... vn) , the vi such that i is an even number represent a horizontal line (height). The vi such that i is an odd number represent a vertical line (x-coordinate). The skyline vector should represent the "path" taken, for example, by a bug starting at the minimum x-coordinate and traveling horizontally and vertically over all the lines that define the skyline. Thus the last entry in the skyline vector will be a 0. The coordinates must be separated by a blank space. If I will not count declaration of provided (test) buildings and including all spaces and tab characters, my solution, in Python, is 223 characters long. Here is the condensed version: B=[[1,11,5],[2,6,7],[3,13,9],[12,7,16],[14,3,25],[19,18,22],[23,13,29],[24,4,28]] # Solution. R=range v=[0 for e in R(max([y[2] for y in B])+1)] for b in B: for x in R(b[0], b[2]): if b[1]>v[x]: v[x]=b[1] p=1 k=0 for x in R(len(v)): V=v[x] if p and V==0: continue elif V!=k: p=0 print "%s %s" % (str(x), str(V)), k=V I think that I didn't made any mistake but if so - feel free to criticize me. EDIT I don't have much reputation, so I will pay only 100 for a bounty - I am curious, if anyone could try to solve this in less than .. lets say, 80 characters. Solution posted by cobbal is 101 characters long and currently it is the best one. ANOTHER EDIT I thought, that 80 characters is a sick limit for this kind of problem. cobbal, with his 46 character solution totaly amazed me - though I must admit, that I spent some time reading his explanation before I partially understood what he had written.

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  • OpenGL FrameBuffer Objects weird behavior

    - by Ben Jones
    My algorithm is this: Render the scene to a FBO with shadow mapping from multiple locations Render the scene to the screen with shadow mapping ...black magic that I still have to imlement... Combine the samples from step 1 with the image from step 2 I'm trying to debug steps 1 and 2 and am coming across STRANGE behavior. My algorithm for each shadow mapped pass is: render the scene to a FBO connected to a depth array texture from the POV of each light render the scene from the viewpoint and use vertex/frag shaders to compare the depths When I run my algorithm this way: render from point to FBO render from point to screen glutSwapBuffers() The normal vectors in the screen pass appear to be incorrect (inverted possibly). I'm pretty sure that's the issue because my diffuse lighting calculation is incorrect, but the material colors are correct, and the shadows appear in the correct places. So, it seems like the only thing that could be the culprit is the normals. However if I do render from point to FBO render from point to Screen glutSwapBuffers() //wrong here render from point to Screen glutSwapBuffers() the second pass is correct. I assume there's a problem with my framebuffer calls. Can anyone see what the problem is from the log below? Its from a bugle trace grepped for 'buffer' with a few edits to make it a little more clear. Thanks! [INFO] trace.call: glGenFramebuffersEXT(1, 0xdfeb90 - { 1 }) [INFO] trace.call: glGenFramebuffersEXT(1, 0xdfebac - { 2 }) [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glDrawBuffer(GL_NONE) [INFO] trace.call: glReadBuffer(GL_NONE) [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 0) //start render to FBO [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 2) [INFO] trace.call: glReadBuffer(GL_NONE) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTexture2DEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0, GL_TEXTURE_2D, 2, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTexture2DEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, GL_TEXTURE_2D, 3, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glDrawBuffer(GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0) //bind to the FBO attached to a depth tex array for shadows [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTextureLayerARB(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, 1, 0, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry //bind to the FBO I want the shadow mapped image rendered to [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 2) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry //draw to screen pass //again shadow mapping FBO [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTextureLayerARB(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, 1, 0, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry //bind to the screen [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //finished, swap buffers [INFO] trace.call: glXSwapBuffers(0xd5fc10, 0x05800002) //INCORRECT OUTPUT //second try at render to screen: [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTextureLayerARB(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, 1, 0, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) draw geometry [INFO] trace.call: glXSwapBuffers(0xd5fc10, 0x05800002) //correct output

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