variable caching - Page 234

How does real world login process happen in web application in Java?

- by Nitesh Panchal

Hello, I am very much confused regarding login process that happen in Java web application. I read many tutorials regarding jdbcRealm and JAAS. But, one thing that i don't understand is that why should i use them ? Can't i simply check directly against my database of users? and once they successfully login to the site, i store some variable in session as a flag. And probably check that session variable on all restricted pages (I mean keep a filter for restricted resources url pattern).If the flag doesn't exist simply redirect the user to login page. Is this approach correct?Does this approch sound correct? If yes, then why did all this JAAS and jdbcRealm came into existence? Secondly, I am trying to completely implement SAS(Software as service) in my web application, meaning everything is done through web services.If i use webservices, is it possible to use jdbcRealm? If not, then is it possible to use JAAS? If yes, then please show me some example which uses mySql as a database and then authenticates and authorizes. I even heard about Spring Security. But, i am confused about that too in the sense that how do i use webservice with Spring Security. Please help me. I am really very confused. I read sun's tutorials but they only keep talking about theories. For programmers to understand a simple concept, they show a 100 page theory first before they finally come to one example.

Read the article

Trouble with an depreciated constructor visual basic visual studio 2010

- by VBPRIML

My goal is to print labels with barcodes and a date stamp from an entry to a zebra TLP 2844 when the user clicks the ok button/hits enter. i found what i think might be the code for this from zebras site and have been integrating it into my program but part of it is depreciated and i cant quite figure out how to update it. below is what i have so far. The printer is attached via USB and the program will also store the entered numbers in a database but i have that part done. any help would be greatly Appreciated. Public Class ScanForm Inherits System.Windows.Forms.Form Public Const GENERIC_WRITE = &H40000000 Public Const OPEN_EXISTING = 3 Public Const FILE_SHARE_WRITE = &H2 Dim LPTPORT As String Dim hPort As Integer Public Declare Function CreateFile Lib "kernel32" Alias "CreateFileA" (ByVal lpFileName As String, ByVal dwDesiredAccess As Integer, ByVal dwShareMode As Integer, <MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Struct)> ByRef lpSecurityAttributes As SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES, ByVal dwCreationDisposition As Integer, ByVal dwFlagsAndAttributes As Integer, ByVal hTemplateFile As Integer) As Integer Public Declare Function CloseHandle Lib "kernel32" Alias "CloseHandle" (ByVal hObject As Integer) As Integer Dim retval As Integer <StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)> Public Structure SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES Private nLength As Integer Private lpSecurityDescriptor As Integer Private bInheritHandle As Integer End Structure Private Sub OKButton_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles OKButton.Click Dim TrNum Dim TrDate Dim SA As SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES Dim outFile As FileStream, hPortP As IntPtr LPTPORT = "USB001" TrNum = Me.ScannedBarcodeText.Text() TrDate = Now() hPort = CreateFile(LPTPORT, GENERIC_WRITE, FILE_SHARE_WRITE, SA, OPEN_EXISTING, 0, 0) hPortP = New IntPtr(hPort) 'convert Integer to IntPtr outFile = New FileStream(hPortP, FileAccess.Write) 'Create FileStream using Handle Dim fileWriter As New StreamWriter(outFile) fileWriter.WriteLine(" ") fileWriter.WriteLine("N") fileWriter.Write("A50,50,0,4,1,1,N,") fileWriter.Write(Chr(34)) fileWriter.Write(TrNum) 'prints the tracking number variable fileWriter.Write(Chr(34)) fileWriter.Write(Chr(13)) fileWriter.Write(Chr(10)) fileWriter.Write("A50,100,0,4,1,1,N,") fileWriter.Write(Chr(34)) fileWriter.Write(TrDate) 'prints the date variable fileWriter.Write(Chr(34)) fileWriter.Write(Chr(13)) fileWriter.Write(Chr(10)) fileWriter.WriteLine("P1") fileWriter.Flush() fileWriter.Close() outFile.Close() retval = CloseHandle(hPort) 'Add entry to database Using connection As New SqlClient.SqlConnection("Data Source=MNGD-LABS-APP02;Initial Catalog=ScannedDB;Integrated Security=True;Pooling=False;Encrypt=False"), _ cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand("INSERT INTO [ScannedDBTable] (TrackingNumber, Date) VALUES (@TrackingNumber, @Date)", connection) cmd.Parameters.Add("@TrackingNumber", SqlDbType.VarChar, 50).Value = TrNum cmd.Parameters.Add("@Date", SqlDbType.DateTime, 8).Value = TrDate connection.Open() cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() connection.Close() End Using 'Prepare data for next entry ScannedBarcodeText.Clear() Me.ScannedBarcodeText.Focus() End Sub

Read the article

NullPointerException with static variables

- by tomekK

I just hit very strange (to me) behaviour of java. I have following classes: public abstract class Unit { public static final Unit KM = KMUnit.INSTANCE; public static final Unit METERS = MeterUnit.INSTANCE; protected Unit() { } public abstract double getValueInUnit(double value, Unit unit); protected abstract double getValueInMeters(double value); } And: public class KMUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new KMUnit(); private KMUnit() { } //here are abstract methods overriden } public class MeterUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new MeterUnit(); private MeterUnit() { } ///abstract methods overriden } And my test case: public class TestMetricUnits extends TestCase { @Test public void testConversion() { System.out.println("Unit.METERS: " + Unit.METERS); System.out.println("Unit.KM: " + Unit.KM); double meters = Unit.KM.getValueInUnit(102.11, Unit.METERS); assertEquals(0.10211, meters, 0.00001); } } 1) MKUnit and MeterUnit are both singletons initialized statically, so during class loading. Constructors are private, so they can't be initialized anywhere else. 2) Unit class contains static final references to MKUnit.INSTANCE and MeterUnit.INSTANCE I would expect that: KMUnit class is loaded and instance is created. MeterUnit class is loaded and instance is created. Unit class is loaded and both KM and METERS variable are initialized, they are final so they cant be changed. But when I run my test case in console with maven my result is: T E S T S Running de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: null Tests run: 3, Failures: 0, Errors: 1, Skipped: 0, Time elapsed: 0.089 sec <<< FAILURE! - in de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits testConversion(de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits) Time elapsed: 0.011 sec <<< ERROR! java.lang.NullPointerException: null at de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits.testConversion(TestMetricUnits.java:29) Results : Tests in error: TestMetricUnits.testConversion:29 NullPointer And the funny part is that, when I run this test from eclipse via JUnit runner everything is fine, I have no NullPointerException and in console I have: Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: km So the question is: what can be the reason that KM variable in Unit is null (and in the same time METERS is not null)

Read the article

JQuery methods and DOM properties

- by Bob Smith

I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

Read the article

C# ref Confusion

- by Rahat

I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

Read the article

String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

- by Justin R.

My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

Read the article

Get Classic ASP variale from posted JSON

- by Will

I'm trying to post JSON via AJAX to a Classic ASP page, which retrieves the value, checks a database and returns JSON to the original page. I can post JSON via AJAX I can return JSON from ASP I can't retrieve the posted JSON into an ASP variable POST you use Request.Form, GET you use Request.Querystring......... what do I use for JSON? I have JSON libraries but they only show creating a string in the ASP script and then parsing that. I need to parse JSON from when being passed an external variable. Javascipt var thing = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '/ajax/check_username.asp', data: "{'userName':'" + thing + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", cache: false, async: false, success: function() { alert('success'); }); ASP file (check_username.asp) Response.ContentType = "application/json" sEmail = request.form() -- THE PROBLEM Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") SQL = "SELECT SYSUserID FROM WCE_UK.dbo.t_SYS_User WHERE Username='"&sEmail&"'" oRS.Open SQL, oConn if not oRS.EOF then sStatus = (new JSON).toJSON("username", true, false) else sStatus = (new JSON).toJSON("username", false, false) end if response.write sStatus

Read the article

Using Parameter Values In SQL Statement

- by Dangerous

I am trying to write a database script (SQL SERVER 2008) which will copy information from database tables on one server to corresponding tables in another database on a different server. I have read that the correct way to do this is to use a sql statement in a format similar to the following: INSERT INTO <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> SELECT * FROM <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> As there will be several tables being copied, I would like to declare variables at the top of the script to allow the user to specify the names of each server and database that are to be used. These could then be used throughout the script. However, I am not sure how to use the variable values in the actual SQL statements. What I want to achieve is something like the following: DECLARE @SERVER_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerFrom' DECLARE @DATABASE_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' DECLARE @SERVER_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerTo' DECLARE @DATABASE_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' INSERT INTO @SERVER_TO.@DATABASE_TO.dbo.TableName SELECT * FROM @SERVER_FROM.@DATABASE_FROM.dbo.TableName ... How should I use the @ variables in this code in order for it to work correctly? Additionally, do you think my method above is correct for what I am trying to achieve and should I be using NVARCHAR(50) as my variable type or something else? Thanks

Read the article

PHP Object References in Frameworks

- by bigstylee

Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

Read the article

Windows batch - loop over folder string and parse out last folder name

- by Tim Peel

Hi, I need to grab the folder name of a currently executing batch file. I have been trying to loop over the current directory using the following syntax (which is wrong at present): set mydir = %~p0 for /F "delims=\" %i IN (%mydir%) DO @echo %i Couple of issues in that I cannot seem to pass the 'mydir' variable value in as the search string. It only seems to work if I pass in commands; I have the syntax wrong and cannot work out why. My thinking was to loop over the folder string with a '\' delimiter but this is causing problems too. If I set a variable on each loop then the last value set will be the current folder name. For example, given the following path: C:\Folder1\Folder2\Folder3\Archive.bat I would expect to parse out the value 'Folder3'. I need to parse that value out as its name will be part of another folder I am going to create further down in the batch file. Many thanks if anyone can help. I may be barking up the wrong tree completely so any other approaches would be greatly received also. Tim

Read the article

Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

- by AMissico

While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

Read the article

Qt4Dotnet on Mac OS X

- by Tony

Hello everyone. I'm using Qt4Dotnet project in order to port application originally written in C# on Linux and Mac. Port to Linux hasn't taken much efforts and works fine. But Mac (10.4 Tiger) is a bit more stubborn. The problem is: when I try to start my application it throws an exception. Exception states that com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer is unable to find all necessary ibraries. QtJambi library initializer uses java.library.path VM environment variable. This variable includes current working directory. I put all necessary libraries in a working directory. When I try to run the application from MonoDevelop IDE, initializer is able to load one library, but the other libraries are 'missing': An exception was thrown by the type initializer for com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer --- java.lang.RuntimeException: Loading library failed, progress so far: No 'qtjambi-deployment.xml' found in classpath, loading libraries via 'java.library.path' Loading library: 'libQtCore.4.dylib'... - using 'java.library.path' - ok, path was: /Users/chin/test/bin/Debug/libQtCore.4.dylib Loading library: 'libqtjambi.jnilib'... - using 'java.library.path' Both libQtCore.4.dylib and libqtjambi.jnilib are in the same directory. When I try to run it from the command prompt, the initializer is unable to load even libQtCore.4.dylib. I'm using Qt4Dotnet v4.5.0 (currently the latest) with QtJambi v4.5.2 libraries. This might be the source of the problem, but I'm neither able to compile Qt4Dotnet v4.5.2 by myself nor to find QtJambi v4.5.0 libraries. Project's page states that some sort of patch should be applied to QtJambi's source code in order to be compatible with Mono framework, but this patch hasn't been released yet. Without this patch application crashes in a strange manner (other than library seek fault). I must note that original QtJambi loads all necessary libraries perfectly, so it might be issues of IKVM compiler used to translate QtJambi into .Net library. Any suggestions how can I overcome this problem?

Read the article

How to get associated URLRequest from Event.COMPLETE fired by URLLoader

- by matt lohkamp

So let's say we want to load some XML - var xmlURL:String = 'content.xml'; var xmlURLRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest(xmlURL); var xmlURLLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(xmlURLRequest); xmlURLLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, function(e:Event):void{ trace('loaded',xmlURL); trace(XML(e.target.data)); }); If we need to know the source URL for that particular XML doc, we've got that variable to tell us, right? Now let's imagine that the xmlURL variable isn't around to help us - maybe we want to load 3 XML docs, named in sequence, and we want to use throwaway variables inside of a for-loop: for(var i:uint = 3; i > 0; i--){ var xmlURLLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(new URLRequest('content'+i+'.xml')); xmlURLLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, function(e:Event):void{ trace(e.target.src); // I wish this worked... trace(XML(e.target.data)); }); } Suddenly it's not so easy, right? I hate that you can't just say e.target.src or whatever - is there a good way to associate URLLoaders with the URL they loaded data from? Am I missing something? It feels unintuitive to me.

Read the article

The new operator in C# isn't overriding base class member

- by Dominic Zukiewicz

I am confused as to why the new operator isn't working as I expected it to. Note: All classes below are defined in the same namespace, and in the same file. This class allows you to prefix any content written to the console with some provided text. public class ConsoleWriter { private string prefix; public ConsoleWriter(string prefix) { this.prefix = prefix; } public void Write(string text) { Console.WriteLine(String.Concat(prefix,text)); } } Here is a base class: public class BaseClass { protected static ConsoleWriter consoleWriter = new ConsoleWriter(""); public static void Write(string text) { consoleWriter.Write(text); } } Here is an implemented class: public class NewClass : BaseClass { protected new static ConsoleWriter consoleWriter = new ConsoleWriter("> "); } Now here's the code to execute this: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { BaseClass.Write("Hello World!"); NewClass.Write("Hello World!"); Console.Read(); } } So I would expect the output to be Hello World! > Hello World! But the output is Hello World Hello World I do not understand why this is happening. Here is my thought process as to what is happening: The CLR calls the BaseClass.Write() method The CLR initialises the BaseClass.consoleWriter member. The method is called and executed with the BaseClass.consoleWriter variable Then The CLR calls the NewClass.Write() The CLR initialises the NewClass.consoleWriter object. The CLR sees that the implementation lies in BaseClass, but the method is inherited through The CLR executes the method locally (in NewClass) using the NewClass.consoleWriter variable I thought this is how the inheritance structure works? Please can someone help me understand why this is not working?

Read the article

Advanced Localization with Omission of Arguments in Xcode

- by coneybeare

I have this formatted string that I am having a translator work on. ENGLISH "Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@" = "Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@" GERMAN TRANSLATION "Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@" = "Hör Dir mal %2$@ in %3$@ an: %4$@"; These are passed to a [NSString stringWithFormat:] call: ////////////////////////////////////// // Share Over Twitter NSString *frmt = NSLocalizedString(@"Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@", @"The default tweet for sharing sounds. Use %1$@ for where the sound type (Sound, mix, playlist) will be, %2$@ for where the audio name will be, %3$@ for the app name, and %3$@ for where the sound link will be."); NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"sounds/%@", SoundSoundID(audio)]; NSString *url = ([audio audioType] == UAAudioTypeSound ? UrlFor(urlString) : APP_SHORTLINK); NSString *msg = [NSString stringWithFormat: frmt, [[Audio titleForAudioType:[audio audioType]] lowercaseString], [NSString stringWithFormat:@"\"%@\"", AudioName(audio)], APP_NAME, url]; NSString *applink = [NSString stringWithFormat:@" %@", APP_SHORTLINK]; if (msg.length <= (140 - applink.length)) { msg = [msg stringByAppendingString:applink]; } returnString = msg; With the desired and actual outcome of: ENGLISH desired: "Check out the sound "This Sound Name" in My App Name: link_to_sound link_to_app" actual: "Check out the sound "This Sound Name" in My App Name: link_to_sound link_to_app" GERMAN desired: "Hör Dir mal "This Sound Name" in My App Name an: link_to_sound link_to_app" actual: "Hör Dir mal sound in "This Sound Name" an: My App Name link_to_app" THE PROBLEM The problem is that I was under the assumption that by using numbered variable in the NSLocalizedString, I could do things like this, where the %1$@ variable is completely omitted. If you notice, the German translation of the format string does not use the first argument (%1$@) at all but it ("sound") still appears in the output string. What am I doing wrong?

Read the article

Need help with strange Class#getResource() issue

- by Andreas_D

I have some legacy code that reads a configuration file from an existing jar, like: URL url = SomeClass.class.getResource("/configuration.properties"); // some more code here using url variable InputStream in = url.openStream(); Obviously it worked before but when I execute this code, the URL is valid but I get an IOException on the third line, saying it can't find the file. The url is something like "file:jar:c:/path/to/jar/somejar.jar!configuration.properties" so it doesn't look like a classpath issue - java knows pretty well where the file can be found.. The above code is part of an ant task and it fails while the task is executed. Strange enough - I copied the code and the jar file into a separate class and it works as expected, the properties file is readable. At some point I changed the code of the ant task to URL url = SomeClass.class.getResource("/configuration.properties"); // some more code here using url variable InputStream in = SomeClass.class.getResourceAsStream("/configuration.properties"); and now it works - just until it crashes in another class where a similiar access pattern is implemented.. Why could it have worked before, why does it fail now? The only difference I see at the moment is, that the old build was done with java 1.4 while I'm trying it with Java 6 now. Workaround Today I installed Java 1.4.2_19 on the build server and made ant to use it. To my totally frustrating surprise: The problem is gone. It looks to me, that java 1.4.2 can handle URLs of this type while Java 1.6 can't (at least in my context/environment). I'm still hoping for an explanation although I'm facing the work to rewrite parts of the code to use Class#getRessourceAsStream which behaved much more stable...

Read the article

Returning object from function

- by brainydexter

I am really confused now on how and which method to use to return object from a function. I want some feedback on the solutions for the given requirements. Scenario A: The returned object is to be stored in a variable which need not be modified during its lifetime. Thus, const Foo SomeClass::GetFoo() { return Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { const Foo& l_Foo = someClassPInstance->GetFoo(); //... } Scneraio B: The returned object is to be stored in a variable which will be modified during its lifetime. Thus, void SomeClass::GetFoo(Foo& a_Foo_ref) { a_Foo_ref = Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { Foo l_Foo; someClassPInstance-GetFoo(l_Foo); //... } I have one question here: Lets say that Foo cannot have a default constructor. Then how would you deal with that in this situation, since we cant write this anymore: Foo l_Foo Scenario C: Foo SomeClass::GetFoo() { return Foo(); } invoked as: someMethod() { Foo l_Foo = someClassPInstance->GetFoo(); //... } I think this is not the recommended approach since it would incur constructing extra temporaries. What do you think ? Also, do you recommend a better way to handle this instead ?

Read the article

Private member vector of vector dynamic memory allocation

- by Geoffroy

Hello, I'm new to C++ (I learned programming with Fortran), and I would like to allocate dynamically the memory for a multidimensional table. This table is a private member variable : class theclass{ public: void setdim(void); private: std::vector < std::vector <int> > thetable; } I would like to set the dimension of thetable with the function setdim(). void theclass::setdim(void){ this->thetable.assign(1000,std::vector <int> (2000)); } I have no problem compiling this program, but as I execute it, I've got a segmentation fault. The strange thing for me is that this piece (see under) of code does exactly what I want, except that it doesn't uses the private member variable of my class : std::vector < std::vector < int > > thetable; thetable.assign(1000,std::vector <int> (2000)); By the way, I have no trouble if thetable is a 1D vector. In theclass : std::vector < int > thetable; and if in setdim : this->thetable.assign(1000,2); So my question is : why is there such a difference with "assign" between thetable and this-thetable for a 2D vector? And how should I do to do what I want? Thank-you for your help, Best regards, -- Geoffroy

Read the article

What is the purpose of the s==NULL case for mbrtowc?

- by R..

mbrtowc is specified to handle a NULL pointer for the s (multibyte character pointer) argument as follows: If s is a null pointer, the mbrtowc() function shall be equivalent to the call: mbrtowc(NULL, "", 1, ps) In this case, the values of the arguments pwc and n are ignored. As far as I can tell, this usage is largely useless. If ps is not storing any partially-converted character, the call will simply return 0 with no side effects. If ps is storing a partially-converted character, then since '\0' is not valid as the next byte in a multibyte sequence ('\0' can only be a string terminator), the call will return (size_t)-1 with errno==EILSEQ. and leave ps in an undefined state. The intended usage seems to have been to reset the state variable, particularly when NULL is passed for ps and the internal state has been used, analogous to mbtowc's behavior with stateful encodings, but this is not specified anywhere as far as I can tell, and it conflicts with the semantics for mbrtowc's storage of partially-converted characters (if mbrtowc were to reset state when encountering a 0 byte after a potentially-valid initial subsequence, it would be unable to detect this dangerous invalid sequence). If mbrtowc were specified to reset the state variable only when s is NULL, but not when it points to a 0 byte, a desirable state-reset behavior would be possible, but such behavior would violate the standard as written. Is this a defect in the standard? As far as I can tell, there is absolutely no way to reset the internal state (used when ps is NULL) once an illegal sequence has been encountered, and thus no correct program can use mbrtowc with ps==NULL.

Read the article

how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

- by praksant

Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

Read the article

Why don't copy this dokument attributes from the source xml file??

- by siegfried storr

Hi anyone, i'm working the first time with xslt and i really don't understand why this xsl don't copy attributes from the source xml. Perhaps someone can give me a hint?? <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output omit-xml-declaration="yes" indent="yes"/> <xsl:variable name="rpl" select="document('ParamInvoice.xml')"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="* | @*"/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="*"> <xsl:variable name="vInvoiceElement" select="$rpl/StoraInvoice/*[name()=name(current())]"/> <xsl:copy> <xsl:if test="$vInvoiceElement/Attribute"> <xsl:call-template name="AttributeErzeugen"> <xsl:with-param name="pAttr" select="$vInvoiceElement/Attribute"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:if> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="AttributeErzeugen"> <xsl:param name="pAttr"/> <xsl:for-each select="$pAttr"> <xsl:attribute name="{@name}"><xsl:value-of select="."/></xsl:attribute> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

Read the article

How to make placeholder varablies in jquery validate 1.7?

- by chobo2

Hi I am using jquery 1.4.2 and jquery validate 1.7(http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) Say I have this example that I just grabbed off some random site(http://www.webreference.com/programming/javascript/jquery/form_validation/) 8 <script type="text/javascript"> 9 $(document).ready(function() { 10 $("#form1").validate({ 11 rules: { 12 name: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true 16 }, 17 url: { 18 url: true 19 }, 20 comment: { 21 required: true 22 } 23 }, 24 messages: { 25 comment: "Please enter a comment." 26 } 27 }); 28 }); 29 </script> now is it possible to do something like this 10 $("#form1").validate({ var NameHolder = "name" 11 rules: { 12 NameHolder: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true So basically I want to make sort of a global variable to hold theses rule names( what correspond to the names on that html control). My concern is the names of html controls can change and it kinda sucks that I will have to go around and change it in many places of my code to make it work again. So basically I am wondering is there away to make a global variable to store this name. So if I need to change the name I only have to change it in one spot in my javascript file sort of the way stopping magic numbers ?

Read the article

Placing PHP array values into a javascript array?

- by Michael Harringon

Is these a way i can loop through a PHP array and have the data outputted into a JavaScript array? For example, the JS script below will not work var mon_Loop = <?php echo $rowCount_Mon ?>; var mon_Events = new Array(); for(i = 0; i < mon_Loop; i++) { mon_Events[i] = <?php $divMon[i] ?> } I Know its because the "i" is not a php variable so therefore invalid inside the php section, but its just an way to show what i would like to achieve. The $rowCount variable count the number of rows and is then used to for the loop. Lets say, for example that I want to place the contents of the PHP array "$divMon[0]" into the javascript array mon_Events[0]. I know that i can do it manually, like below mon_Events[0] = <?php echo $divMon[0] ?> But i have lots of these and therefore need the loop, Is there some JS or PHP that could do this? Cheers.

Read the article

SharpDevelop WIX project: MSBuild Configurations

- by chezy525

Using SharpDevelop, I wrote a windows service with a WIX setup project to install/auto-start it. For testing purposes, I've done a number of things I don't want to do in the release version (i.e. add an uninstall shortcut to the desktop). So, my question really boils down to this; how do you handle build configurations within a WiX project? I think I've solved most of my problems after I found this question Passing build parameters to .wxs file to dynamicaly build wix installers. And thus far I've done the following: Added a property that checks the Configuration variable <Product> ... <Property Id="DEBUG">$(var.Configuration) == 'Debug'</Property> ... Separated all of the debug files into unique components and setup as a separate feature with a condition checking the DEBUG property. <Product> ... <Feature> ... <Feature Id="DebugFiles" Level="1"> <ComponentRef Id="UninstallShortcutComponent" /> <Condition Level="0">DEBUG</Condition> </Feature> ... Then, finally, pointing to the correct file based on the configuration, using the Configuration variable <Directory> ... <Component> <File Source="..\mainProject\bin\$(var.Configuration)\main.exe" /> </Component> ... So, now my question is simplified to how to handle files that may not exist under certain build configurations (like .pdb files). Using all of the above (including pointing the file source to the ...\bin\Release\*.pdb, which I know isn't expected to exist) I get a LGHT0103 compiler error, it can't find the file.

Search Results

Search found 13415 results on 537 pages for 'variable caching'.

Page 234/537 | < Previous Page | 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 | Next Page >

- by Nitesh Panchal

- by VBPRIML

- by tomekK

- by Bob Smith

- by Rahat

- by Justin R.

- by Will

- by Dangerous

- by bigstylee

- by Tim Peel

- by AMissico

- by Tony

- by matt lohkamp

- by Dominic Zukiewicz

- by coneybeare

- by Andreas_D

- by SAS_learner

- by brainydexter

- by Geoffroy

- by R..

- by praksant

- by siegfried storr

- by chobo2

- by Michael Harringon

- by chezy525

< Previous Page | 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 | Next Page >