Search Results

Search found 7381 results on 296 pages for 'debug'.

Page 235/296 | < Previous Page | 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242  | Next Page >

  • Web User Control og Event

    - by Mcoroklo
    I have a web user control, CreateQuestion.ascx, in ASP.NET. I want an event "QuestionAdded" to fire when a specific button is clicked. I don't want to send any data, I just want to know WHEN the button is fired. My implementation: CreateQuestion.ascx: public event EventHandler QuestionAdded; protected virtual void OnQuestionAdded(EventArgs e) { if (QuestionAdded != null) QuestionAdded(this, e); } /// This is the button I want to know when is fired protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //question.Save(); this.OnQuestionAdded(new EventArgs()); } On the page AnswerQuestion.aspx, I use this: private void SetupControls(int myId) { CreateQuestionControl.QuestionAdded += new EventHandler(QuestionAdded); } private void QuestionAdded(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HEJ KARL?"); } My problem No matter what, the event is never fired. I know that both SetupControls() is being run, and the code behind the button which should fire the event is run. When I debug, I can see the event QuestionAdded always are null. How do I make this work? Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • java - powermock whenNew doesnt seem to work, calls the actual constructor

    - by user1331243
    I have two final classes that are used in my unit test. I am trying to use whenNew on the constructor of a final class, but I see that it calls the actual constructor. The code is @PrepareForTest({A.class, B.class, Provider.class}) @Test public void testGetStatus() throws Exception { B b = mock(B.class); when(b.getStatus()).thenReturn(1); whenNew(B.class).withArguments(anyString()).thenReturn(b); Provider p = new Provider(); int val = p.getStatus(); assertTrue((val == 1)); } public class Provider { public int getStatus() { B b = new B("test"); return b.getStatus(); } } public final class A { private void init() { // ...do soemthing } private static A a; private A() { } public static A getInstance() { if (a == null) { a = new A(); a.init(); } return a; } } public final class B { public B() { } public B(String s) { this(A.getInstance(), s); } public B(A a, String s) { } public int getStatus() { return 0; } } On debug, I find that its the actual class B instance created and not the mock instance that is returned for new usage and assertion fails. Any pointers on how to get this working. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Accessing we.config from Sharepoint web part

    - by philj
    I have a VS 2008 web parts project - in this project is a web.config file: something like this: ……. In my web part I am trying to access values in the appSetting section: I've tried all of the code below and each returns null: string Owner = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff1 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff3 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff4 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff2 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFowner".ToString()]; I've tried this code I found: NameValueCollection sAll; sAll = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings; string a; string b; foreach (string s in sAll.AllKeys) { a = s; b = sAll.Get(s); } and stepped through it in debug mode - that is getting things like : FeedCacheTime FeedPageURL FeedXsl1 ReportViewerMessages which is NOT coming from anything in my web.config file....maybe a config file in sharepoint itself? How do I access a web.config (or any other kind of config file!) local to my web part??? thanks, Phil J

    Read the article

  • How can you get the call tree with python profilers?

    - by Oliver
    I used to use a nice Apple profiler that is built into the System Monitor application. As long as your C++ code was compiled with debug information, you could sample your running application and it would print out an indented tree telling you what percent of the parent function's time was spent in this function (and the body vs. other function calls). For instance, if main called function_1 and function_2, function_2 calls function_3, and then main calls function_3: main (100%, 1% in function body): function_1 (9%, 9% in function body): function_2 (90%, 85% in function body): function_3 (100%, 100% in function body) function_3 (1%, 1% in function body) I would see this and think, "Something is taking a long time in the code in the body of function_2. If I want my program to be faster, that's where I should start." Does anyone know how I can most easily get this exact profiling output for a python program? I've seen people say to do this: import cProfile, pstats prof = cProfile.Profile() prof = prof.runctx("real_main(argv)", globals(), locals()) stats = pstats.Stats(prof) stats.sort_stats("time") # Or cumulative stats.print_stats(80) # 80 = how many to print but it's quite messy compared to that elegant call tree. Please let me know if you can easily do this, it would help quite a bit. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • is back_insert_iterator<> safe to be passed by value?

    - by afriza
    I have a code that looks something like: struct Data { int value; }; class A { public: typedef std::deque<boost::shared_ptr<Data> > TList; std::back_insert_iterator<TList> GetInserter() { return std::back_inserter(m_List); } private: TList m_List; }; class AA { boost::scoped_ptr<A> m_a; public: AA() : m_a(new A()) {} std::back_insert_iterator<A::TList> GetDataInserter() { return m_a->GetInserter(); } }; class B { template<class OutIt> CopyInterestingDataTo(OutIt outIt) { // loop and check conditions for interesting data // for every `it` in a Container<Data*> // create a copy and store it for( ... it = ..; .. ; ..) if (...) { *outIt = OutIt::container_type::value_type(new Data(**it)); outIt++; // dummy } } void func() { AA aa; CopyInterestingDataTo(aa.GetInserter()); // aa.m_a->m_List is empty! } }; The problem is that A::m_List is always empty even after CopyInterestingDataTo() is called. However, if I debug and step into CopyInterestingDataTo(), the iterator does store the supposedly inserted data!

    Read the article

  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

    Read the article

  • How to get more detail from an exception?

    - by cusimar9
    I have a .NET 4.0 web application which implements an error handler within the Application_Error event of Global.asax. When an exception occurs this intercepts it and sends me an email including a variety of information like the logged in user, the page the error occurred on, the contents of the session etc. This is all great but there is some fundamental detail missing which I seem unable to locate. For instance, this is a subset of an error I would receive and the associated stack trace: Source: Telerik.Web.UI Message: Selection out of range Parameter name: value Stack trace: at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable dataSource) at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.OnDataSourceViewSelectCallback(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Select(DataSourceSelectArguments arguments, DataSourceViewSelectCallback callback) at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.OnDataBinding(EventArgs e) at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.PerformSelect() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.DataBind() at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.EnsureDataBound() at Telerik.Web.UI.RadComboBox.OnPreRender(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) Now as lovely as this is I could do with knowing a) the name of the control and b) the value which caused the control to be 'out of range'. Any suggestions about how I could get this sort of information? I've run this in debug mode and the objects passed to Global.asax don't seem to hold any more detail that I can see.

    Read the article

  • Creating syncable Calendar in ICS

    - by user1390816
    I have a problem with creating a new Calendar in ICS. The Calendar should be synyable to the google Calendar. I try following: Uri calendarUri = CalendarContract.Calendars.CONTENT_URI; calendar.put(CalendarContract.Calendars.ACCOUNT_NAME, sync_account); calendar.put(CalendarContract.Calendars.ACCOUNT_TYPE, "com.google"); calendar.put(CalendarContract.Calendars.NAME, name); calendar.put(CalendarContract.Calendars.CALENDAR_DISPLAY_NAME, displayName); calendar.put(CalendarContract.Calendars.CALENDAR_COLOR, 0xFF008080); calendar.put(CalendarContract.Calendars.CALENDAR_ACCESS_LEVEL, CalendarContract.Calendars.CAL_ACCESS_OWNER); calendar.put(CalendarContract.Calendars.OWNER_ACCOUNT, true); calendar.put(CalendarContract.Calendars.VISIBLE, 1); calendar.put(CalendarContract.Calendars.SYNC_EVENTS, 1); calendarUri = calendarUri.buildUpon() .appendQueryParameter(CalendarContract.CALLER_IS_SYNCADAPTER, "true") .appendQueryParameter(CalendarContract.Calendars.ACCOUNT_NAME, sync_account) .appendQueryParameter(CalendarContract.Calendars.ACCOUNT_TYPE, "com.google") // CalendarContract.ACCOUNT_TYPE_LOCAL .build(); Uri result = activity.getContentResolver().insert(calendarUri, calendar); an I get always this error: 09-17 17:11:30.278: E/AndroidRuntime(13243): FATAL EXCEPTION: CalendarSyncAdapterAccountMonitor 09-17 17:11:30.278: E/AndroidRuntime(13243): java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: the name must not be empty: null 09-17 17:11:30.278: E/AndroidRuntime(13243): at android.accounts.Account.<init>(Account.java:48) 09-17 17:11:30.278: E/AndroidRuntime(13243): at com.google.android.syncadapters.calendar.CalendarSyncAdapter.onAccountsUpdated(CalendarSyncAdapter.java:1129) 09-17 17:11:30.278: E/AndroidRuntime(13243): at android.accounts.AccountManager$11.run(AccountManager.java:1279) 09-17 17:11:30.278: E/AndroidRuntime(13243): at android.os.Handler.handleCallback(Handler.java:605) 09-17 17:11:30.278: E/AndroidRuntime(13243): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:92) 09-17 17:11:30.278: E/AndroidRuntime(13243): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:137) 09-17 17:11:30.278: E/AndroidRuntime(13243): at android.os.HandlerThread.run(HandlerThread.java:60) 09-17 17:11:30.293: E/android.os.Debug(1989): !@Dumpstate > dumpstate -k -t -n -z -d -o /data/log/dumpstate_app_error What can I do with the CalendarSyncAdapterAccountMonitor, that it is not empty? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How can a link within a WebView load another layout using javascript?

    - by huffmaster
    So I have 2 layout files (main.xml, featured.xml) and both each have a single WebView. When the application starts "main.xml" loads a html file into it's WebView. In this html file I have a link that calls javascript that runs code in the Activity that loaded the html. Once back in this Activity code though I try running setContentView(R.layout.featured) but it just bombs out on me. If I debug it just dies without any real error and if I run it the application just Force closes. Am I going about this correctly or should I be doing something differently? final private int MAIN = 1; final private int FEATURED = 2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); webview = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.wvMain); webview.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webview.getSettings().setSupportZoom(false); webview.addJavascriptInterface(new EHJavaScriptInterface(), "eh"); webview.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/default.html"); } final class EHJavaScriptInterface { EHJavaScriptInterface() { } public void loadLayout(final String lo) { int i = Integer.parseInt(lo.trim()); switch (i) { /****** THIS IS WHERE I'M BOMBING OUT *********/ case FEATURED: setContentView(R.layout.featured);break; case MAIN: setContentView(R.layout.main);break; } } }

    Read the article

  • Impersonate SYSTEM (or equivalent) from Administrator Account

    - by KevenK
    This question is a follow up and continuation of this question about a Privilege problem I'm dealing with currently. Problem Summary: I'm running a program under a Domain Administrator account that does not have Debug programs (SeDebugPrivilege) privilege, but I need it on the local machine. Klugey Solution: The program can install itself as a service on the local machine, and start the service. Said service now runs under the SYSTEM account, which enables us to use our SeTCBPrivilege privilege to create a new access token which does have SeDebugPrivilege. We can then use the newly created token to re-launch the initial program with the elevated rights. I personally do not like this solution. I feel it should be possible to acquire the necessary privileges as an Administrator without having to make system modifications such as installing a service (even if it is only temporary). I am hoping that there is a solution that minimizes system modifications and can preferably be done on the fly (ie: Not require restarting itself). I have unsuccessfully tried to LogonUser as SYSTEM and tried to OpenProcessToken on a known SYSTEM process (such as csrss.exe) (which fails, because you cannot OpenProcess with PROCESS_TOKEN_QUERY to get a handle to the process without the privileges I'm trying to acquire). I'm just at my wit's end trying to come up with an alternative solution to this problem. I was hoping there was an easy way to grab a privileged token on the host machine and impersonate it for this program, but I haven't found a way. If anyone knows of a way around this, or even has suggestions on things that might work, please let me know. I really appreciate the help, thanks!

    Read the article

  • "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

    - by sam
    I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

    Read the article

  • JQuery error in IE, works with FF. Maybe a problem with live.

    - by olve
    Hello. I have an ASP.net MVC2 application. In wich I'm using JQuery to alter all table rows so I can click anywhere in any row to trigger a click event on a link in the clicked row. The tables is created using MVC's built in partialview ajax. Here is my JQuery script. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('table tr').live('click',function (event) { $('#asplink', this).trigger('click'); }) .live('mouseenter',function (event) { this.bgColor = 'lightblue'; }) .live('mouseleave', function (event) { this.bgColor = 'white'; }); }); </script> And this is the first part of the partial view code that creates the table. <% foreach (var item in Model.JobHeaderData) { %> <tr> <td> <a id="asplink" href="http://localhost/sagstyring/EditJob.asp?JobDataID=<%: item.JobDataId %>&JobNumId=<%: item.JobNumID%>&JobNum=<%: item.JobNumID%>&DepId=1&User_Id=<%:ViewData["UserId"]%>" onclick="window.open(this.href,'Rediger sag <%: item.JobNumID %> ', 'status=0, toolbar=0, location=0, menubar=0, directories=0, resizeable=0, scrollbars=0, width=900, height=700'); return false;">Rediger</a> </td> In firefox this works perfectly. In IE, JQuery crashes when I click on a row. If I debug the page in IE. I get this. Out of stack space In jquery-1.4.1.js line 1822 // Trigger the event, it is assumed that "handle" is a function var handle = jQuery.data( elem, "handle" ); if ( handle ) { handle.apply( elem, data ); } I'm no eagle at javascript, so I'm pretty much stuck.

    Read the article

  • Vector insert() causes program to crash

    - by wrongusername
    This is the first part of a function I have that's causing my program to crash: vector<Student> sortGPA(vector<Student> student) { vector<Student> sorted; Student test = student[0]; cout << "here\n"; sorted.insert(student.begin(), student[0]); cout << "it failed.\n"; ... It crashes right at the sorted part because I can see "here" on the screen but not "it failed." The following error message comes up: Debug Assertion Failed! (a long path here...) Expression: vector emplace iterator outside range For more information on how your program can cause an assertion failure, see the Visual C++ documentation on asserts. I'm not sure what's causing the problem now, since I have a similar line of code elsewhere student.insert(student.begin() + position(temp, student), temp); that does not crash (where position returns an int and temp is another declaration of a struct Student). What can I do to resolve the problem, and how is the first insert different from the second one?

    Read the article

  • Overriding content_type for Rails Paperclip plugin

    - by Fotios
    I think I have a bit of a chicken and egg problem. I would like to set the content_type of a file uploaded via Paperclip. The problem is that the default content_type is only based on extension, but I'd like to base it on another module. I seem to be able to set the content_type with the before_post_process class Upload < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :upload before_post_process :foo def foo logger.debug "Changing content_type" #This works self.upload.instance_write(:content_type,"foobar") # This fails because the file does not actually exist yet self.upload.instance_write(:content_type,file_type(self.upload.path) end # Returns the filetype based on file command (assume it works) def file_type(path) return `file -ib '#{path}'`.split(/;/)[0] end end But...I cannot base the content type on the file because Paperclip doesn't write the file until after_create. And I cannot seem to set the content_type after it has been saved or with the after_create callback (even back in the controller) So I would like to know if I can somehow get access to the actual file object (assume there are no processors doing anything to the original file) before it is saved, so that I can run the file_type command on that. Or is there a way to modify the content_type after the objects have been created.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio breaks, and steps, but sometimes steps out

    - by James Wilkins
    Something very odd is going on. It's been going on for some time, but I've just ignored it up to now. I have both a Silverlight and WCF service in my solution, which shares .CS file between them (one project has a link to the file, which exists in the other project). While debugging the Silverlight app, pressing the F10 key steps through code as normal, and when I get to a method call which exists in the shared file (between the projects), and Press F11, it simply skips the method instead of stepping into it (and yes, the "Just My Code" option is not checked). If I put a breakpoint in the method I'm trying to get into, it works fine (as in the debugger will break on the line), but as soon as I step (F10) it exits the method (and with F11 [step into] also). Ok, on first thought, you might think it's to do with the link, but no, it isn't. I tried removing the link and using a copy instead, but the same thing happens. And no, it's not the debug symbols, I looked into that already. The method I'm trying to step through is static, and is in a non-static partial class, in a file shared by both projects. My guess: The same types and static methods exist in the WCF and Silverlight ... would the debugger get confused?

    Read the article

  • C# - retrieve file path from config file - @ doesn't do it's magic

    - by Bart
    Hi guys, I'm currently working on a web service that retrieves an XML message, archives it and then processes it further. The archive folder is read from the Web.config. This is what the archive method looks like private void Archive(System.Xml.XmlDocument xmlDocument) { try { string directory = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("ArchivePath"); ParseMessage(xmlDocument); directory = string.Format(@"{0}\{1}\{2}", @directory, _senderService, DateTime.Now.ToString("MMMyyyy")); System.IO.Directory.CreateDirectory(directory); string Id = _messageID; string senderService = _senderService; xmlDocument.Save(directory + @"\" + DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyyMMdd_") + Id + "_" + System.Guid.NewGuid().ToString().Substring(0, 13) + ".xml"); } The path structure I retrieve is C:\Program Files\Subfolder\Subfolder. In the development, QA, UAT and PRD environments everything works fine. But on another machine I now need to install the web service on (which I cannot debug, unfortunately), the directory string is 'C:Files'. Just to be sure I double checked the .NET version on the different machines (I thought perhaps the usage of @ before a string was version-dependent); all machines use 2.0.50727. Does anyone recognize this problem? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

    - by bitbonk
    We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

    Read the article

  • Google App Engine how to get an object from the servlet ?

    - by Frank
    I have the following class objects in Google App Engine's dadastore, I can see them from the "Datastore Viewer " : import javax.jdo.annotations.IdGeneratorStrategy; import javax.jdo.annotations.IdentityType; import javax.jdo.annotations.PersistenceCapable; import javax.jdo.annotations.Persistent; import javax.jdo.annotations.PrimaryKey; @PersistenceCapable(identityType=IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class Contact_Info_Entry implements Serializable { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy=IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) Long Id; public static final long serialVersionUID=26362862L; String Contact_Id="",First_Name="",Last_Name="",Company_Name="",Branch_Name="",Address_1="",Address_2="",City="",State="",Zip="",Country=""; double D_1,D_2; boolean B_1,B_2; Vector<String> A_Vector=new Vector<String>(); public Contact_Info_Entry() { } ...... } How can my java applications get the object from a servlet url ? For instance if have an instance of Contact_Info_Entry who's Contact_Id is "ABC-123", and my App Id is : nm-java When my java program accesses the url : "http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_Contact_Info?Contact_Id=ABC-123 How will the Check_Contact_Info servlet get the object from datastore and return it to my app ? public class Check_Contact_Info_Servlet extends HttpServlet { static boolean Debug=true; public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException { } ... protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException,IOException { doGet(request,response); } } Frank

    Read the article

  • Should the code being tested compile to a DLL or an executable file?

    - by uriDium
    I have a solution with two projects. One for project for the production code and another project for the unit tests. I did this as per the suggestions I got here from SO. I noticed that in the Debug Folder that it includes the production code in executable form. I used NUnit to run the tests after removing the executable and they all fail trying to find the executable. So it definitely is trying to find it. I then did a quick read to find out which is better, a DLL or an executable. It seems that an DLL is much faster as they share memory space where communication between executables is slower. Unforunately our production code needs to be an exectuable. So the unit tests will be slightly slower. I am not too worried about that. But the project does rely on code written in another library which is also in executable format at the moment. Should the projects that expose some sort of SDK rather be compiled to an DLL and then the projects that use the SDK be compiled to executable?

    Read the article

  • Getting method arguments with Roslyn

    - by Kevin Burton
    I can get a list from the solution of all calls to a particuliar method using the following code: var createCommandList = new List<MethodSymbol>(); INamedTypeSymbol interfaceSymbol = (from p in solution.Projects select p.GetCompilation().GetTypeByMetadataName("BuySeasons.BsiServices.DataResource.IBsiDataConnection")).FirstOrDefault(); foreach (ISymbol symbol in interfaceSymbol.GetMembers("CreateCommand")) { if (symbol.Kind == CommonSymbolKind.Method && symbol is MethodSymbol) { createCommandList.Add(symbol as MethodSymbol); } } foreach (MethodSymbol methodSymbol in createCommandList) { foreach (ReferencedSymbol referenceSymbol in methodSymbol.FindReferences(solution)) { foreach (ReferenceLocation referenceLocation in from l in referenceSymbol.Locations orderby l.Document.FilePath select l) { if (referenceLocation.Location.GetLineSpan(false).StartLinePosition.Line == referenceLocation.Location.GetLineSpan(false).EndLinePosition.Line) { Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0} {1} at {2} {3}/{4} - {5}", methodSymbol.Name, "(" + string.Join(",", (from p in methodSymbol.Parameters select p.Type.Name + " " + p.Name).ToArray()) + ")", Path.GetFileName(referenceLocation.Location.GetLineSpan(false).Path), referenceLocation.Location.GetLineSpan(false).StartLinePosition.Line, referenceLocation.Location.GetLineSpan(false).StartLinePosition.Character, referenceLocation.Location.GetLineSpan(false).EndLinePosition.Character)); } else { throw new ApplicationException("Call spans multiple lines"); } } } } But this gives me a list of ReferencedSymbol's. Although this gives me the file and line number that the method is called from I would also like to get the specific arguments that the method is called with. How can I either convert what I have or get the same information with Roslyn? (notice the I first load the solution with the Solution.Load method and then loop through to find out where the method is defined/declared (createCommandList)). Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Problem using SQLDataReader with Sybase ASE

    - by John K.
    We're developing a reporting application that uses asp.net-mvc (.net 4). We connect through DDTEK.Sybase middleware to a Sybase ASE 12.5 database. We're having a problem pulling data into a datareader (from a stored procedure). The stored procedure computes values (approximately 50 columns) by doing sums, counts, and calling other stored procedures. The problem we're experiencing is... certain (maybe 5% of the columns) come back with NULL or 0. If we debug and copy the SQL statement being used for the datareader and run it inside another SQL tool we get all valid values for all columns. conn = new SybaseConnection { ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[ConnectStringName].ToString() }; conn.Open(); cmd = new SybaseCommand { CommandTimeout = cmdTimeout, Connection = conn, CommandText = mainSql }; reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); // AT THIS POINT IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE EXECUTEREADER COMMAND // THE READER CONTAINS THE BAD (NULL OR 0) DATA FOR THESE COLUMNS. DataTable schemaTable = reader.GetSchemaTable(); // AT THIS POINT WE CAN VIEW THE DATATABLE FOR THE SCHEMA AND IT APPEARS CORRECT // THE COLUMNS THAT DON'T WORK HAVE SPECIFICATIONS IDENTICAL TO THE COLUMNS THAT DO WORK Has anyone had problems like this using Sybase and ADO? Thanks, John K.

    Read the article

  • PHP Commercial Project Function define

    - by Shiro
    Currently I am working with a commercial project with PHP. I think this question not really apply to PHP for all programming language, just want to discuss how your guys solve it. I work in MVC framework (CodeIgniter). all the database transaction code in model class. Previously, I seperate different search criteria with different function name. Just an example function get_student_detail_by_ID($id){} function get_student_detail_by_name($name){} as you can see the function actually can merge to one, just add a parameter for it. But something you are rushing with project, you won't look back previously got what similar function just make some changes can meet the goal. In this case, we found that there is a lot function there and hard to maintenance. Recently, we try to group the entity to one ultimate search something like this function get_ResList($is_row_count=FALSE, $record_start=0, $arr_search_criteria='', $paging_limit=20, $orderby='name', $sortdir='ASC') we try to make this function to fit all the searching criteria. However, our system getting bigger and bigger, the search criteria not more 1-2 tables. It require join with other table with different purpose. What we had done is using IF ELSE, if(bla bla bla) { $sql_join = JOIN_SOME_TABLE; $sql_where = CONDITION; } at the end, we found that very hard to maintance the function. it is very hard to debug as well. I would like to ask your opinion, what is the commercial solution they solve this kind of issue, how to define a function and how to revise it. I think this is link project management skill. Hope you willing to share with us. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I make an http request to the ASP.NET development server on localhost?

    - by Chris Farmer
    I have an ASP.NET project (VS2008 on Windows 7 with either webforms, MVC1, or MVC2 -- all the same result for me) which is just the File-New hello world web project. It's using the default ASP.NET development server, and when I start the server with F5, the browser never connects and I get a timeout. I tried to debug this by telnetting to the development server's port while it was running, and I got the same result: C:\Users\farmercs>telnet localhost 54752 Connecting To localhost...Could not open connection to the host, on port 54752: Connect failed I can see in the system tray that the server thinks it's running, and a netstat -s -n command shows that there is indeed an active TCP listener on that port. This worked in the not-too-distant past, and I could work on web projects using the development server. One thing that has changed since then was that I installed the Microsoft Loopback Adapter to accommodate a local development Oracle installation. I'm not sure this is the problem, but it seems a likely culprit. So, what could be blocking me from connecting? And if it's the loopback, then what is a good way for me to retain my ability to connect to my development Oracle server while still being able to use the ASP.NET development server?

    Read the article

  • Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

    - by Kenny Peng
    I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

    Read the article

  • convert htmlelement to string for comparison javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, I am using a function that obtains a target element id at onclick. Example, if I click on the text element that has the id of 'help'. var click = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); The var click would contain the ref to the id of "help". I want to compare the var click to the string 'help' using the if statement below. if (click == 'about') {do something} The comparison does not work because the var click is not a string. When I use the alert(click) to debug, it shows click as "object HTMLElement". How would you compare whether the id 'help' is obtained from var click? I could write out something like if (click == document.getElementById('help')) {do something} but that would make a long statement. also if the var click is document.getElementById('help'), how would you make a new var "show" as document.getElementById('showhelp') basically, I want to use the same function to generate dynamic responses to each element that was clicked on, and not having to create a separate function for each element.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242  | Next Page >