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• Obtaining references to function objects on the execution stack from the frame object?

  - by Marcin

  Given the output of inspect.stack(), is it possible to get the function objects from anywhere from the stack frame and call these? If so, how? (I already know how to get the names of the functions.) Here is what I'm getting at: Let's say I'm a function and I'm trying to determine if my caller is a generator or a regular function? I need to call inspect.isgeneratorfunction() on the function object. And how do you figure out who called you? inspect.stack(), right? So if I can somehow put those together, I'll have the answer to my question. Perhaps there is an easier way to do this?

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• What is the best way to implement an object cache with Entity Framework?

  - by Harshal

  Say I have a table of "BlogPosts" in a database and i want to be able to cache the ones that were retrieved already in memory, for further reads, I can just use a standard hashtable type memory cache like System.Web.Caching.Cache, but if i then need to update a property on one of these blog posts e.g. blogPost.Title and update the record in DB, i cannot do this without fetching it again from database as the Entity Framework context used to fetch this record when it was loaded into my cache is already disposed? How do I write code so that I am getting an object from my cache, updating one property and just calling the SaveChanges method without incurring an extra read.

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• Java singleton VO class implementing serializable, having default values using getter methods

  - by user309281

  Hi All I have a J2SE application having user threads running in a separate JVM outside JBOSS server. During startup, J2SE invokes a EJB inside jboss, by passing a new object(singleton) of simple JAVA VO class having getter/setter methods. {The VO class is a singleton and implements serialiable(as mandated by EJB)}. EJB receives the object, reads all db configuration and uses the setter methods of new object to set all the values. It then returns back this updated object back to J2SE in the same remote call. After J2SE receives the object(singleton/serializable), if i invoke getter methods, I could see only default values set during object creation before EJB call, and not the values set by the EJB. Kindly throw some light on, why the received object from EJB does not see any updated values and how to rectify this. I believe it got to do with object initialization during deserialization. And i tried overriding readResolve() in the VO class, but of no help. With Regards, Krishna

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• How do I turn off a custom IValueConverter at design time?

  - by Jonathan Allen

  How do I turn off a custom IValueConverter at design time? Basically I want to write this: Public Class MethodBinder Implements IValueConverter Public Function Convert(ByVal value As Object, ByVal targetType As System.Type, ByVal parameter As Object, ByVal culture As CultureInfo) As Object Implements IValueConverter.Convert If [DESIGN_TIME] Then Return Nothing If value IsNot Nothing Then Return CallByName(value, CStr(parameter), CallType.Method) Return Nothing End Function Public Function ConvertBack(ByVal value As Object, ByVal targetType As System.Type, ByVal parameter As Object, ByVal culture As CultureInfo) As Object Implements IValueConverter.ConvertBack Throw New NotSupportedException End Function End Class

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• Is my objective possible using WCF (and is it the right way to do things?)

  - by David

  I'm writing some software that modifies a Windows Server's configuration (things like MS-DNS, IIS, parts of the filesystem). My design has a server process that builds an in-memory object graph of the server configuration state and a client which requests this object graph. The server would then serialize the graph, send it to the client (presumably using WCF), the server then makes changes to this graph and sends it back to the server. The server receives the graph and proceeds to make modifications to the server. However I've learned that object-graph serialisation in WCF isn't as simple as I first thought. My objects have a hierarchy and many have parametrised-constructors and immutable properties/fields. There are also numerous collections, arrays, and dictionaries. My understanding of WCF serialisation is that it requires use of either the XmlSerializer or DataContractSerializer, but DCS places restrictions on the design of my object-graph (immutable data seems right-out, it also requires parameter-less constructors). I understand XmlSerializer lets me use my own classes provided they implement ISerializable and have the de-serializer constructor. That is fine by me. I spoke to a friend of mine about this, and he advocates going for a Data Transport Object-only route, where I'd have to maintain a separate DataContract object-graph for the transport of data and re-implement my server objects on the client. Another friend of mine said that because my service only has two operations ("GetServerConfiguration" and "PutServerConfiguration") it might be worthwhile just skipping WCF entirely and implementing my own server that uses Sockets. So my questions are: Has anyone faced a similar problem before and if so, are there better approaches? Is it wise to send an entire object graph to the client for processing? Should I instead break it down so that the client requests a part of the object graph as it needs it and sends only bits that have changed (thus reducing concurrency-related risks?)? If sending the object-graph down is the right way, is WCF the right tool? And if WCF is right, what's the best way to get WCF to serialise my object graph?

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• accessing base class's method with derived class's object which has a method of same name.

  - by ashish yadav

  when accessing foo() of "base" using derived class's object. include class base { public: void foo() { std::cout<<"\nHello from foo\n"; } }; class derived : public base { public: void foo(int k) { std::cout<<"\nHello from foo with value = "< } how to access base class method having a method of same name in derived class. the error generated has been shown. i apologize if i am not clear but i feel i have made myself clear as water. thanks in advance.

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• Using C++, how to call a base class method from a derived class method and apply this to an object passed as an argument?

  - by Chris

  I can't figure out how to call a base class method from a derived class method but concurrently applying this method call at an object passed as argument. What I mean is this: class Animal { virtual void eat(Animal& to_be_eaten) = 0; }; class Carnivores: public Animal { virtual void eat(Animal& to_be_eaten) { /*implementation here*/} }; class Wolf : public Carnivores { virtual void eat(Animal& to_be_eaten) { /*call eat method(of Base class) of Base to_be_eaten here*/ } } I thought of something like this dynamic_cast<Carnivores&>(to_be_eaten).eat(*this) //and got a segmentation fault Is there any way for this to be done? Thank you! New edit:: Updated the code

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• XmlHttpRequest bug?

  - by valdo

  Hello all. I'm writing a program that among other things needs to download a file given its URL. I'm too lazy to implement the Http/Https protocols manually, so that I needed some library/object/function that'll do the job. Critical requirement: The download must be asynchronous. That is, the thread that issued the download must be able to do something else "while" downloading the file, plus the download must be able to be aborted anytime without any barbaric side effects (such as internal call to TerminateThread). Nice-to-have requirements: Should be able to download the file "into memory". Means - read the contents of the file as they arrive, not necessarily save it into some "file system" file. It'd be nice to have some convenient Win32 progress notification mechanism (waitable event, semahpore, completion port, etc.), rather than just periodically polling the download status. I've chosen the XmlHttpRequest COM object to do the work. It seemed to work fine enough, plus it supported asynchronous mode. However I noticed that after some period it just stops working. That is, after several successful file downloads it stops downloading anything. I periodically poll it to get its status, it reports "in-progress", but nothing actually happens, and there's no network activity. Moreover, when the same process creates another instance of XmlHttpRequest object to perform new downloads - the effect is the same. The object reports "in progress", whereas it doesn't even try to connect to the server (according to network sniffers and system TCP state). The only way to make this object work back is to restart the process. This makes me suspect that there's a sort of a bug (sorry, I meant undocumented feature) in the object. Also it's not a bug at the level of an individual object, since the problem persists when the object is destroyed and another one is created. It's probably some global state of the DLL that implements this object. Does anyone know something about this? Is this a known bug? I'm pretty sure there's no chance that I have another bug in my code, because of which it seems to me to be the bug is in the XmlHttpRequest. I've done enoughtests and spent time with the debugger to conclude without reasonable doubt that it's just the object stops working. BTW, while the object should work, I do all the waiting via MsgWaitXXXX API calls. So that if this object needs the message loop to work properly (for instance, it may create a hidden notification window and bind it to a socket via WSAAsyncSelect) - I give it the opportunity.

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• How to create an object reference to a xaml page from App.xaml.cs codebehind?

  - by John K.

  Hi all, I have a Silverlight 4 Business Project where I have enabled the ASP.NET Authentication/Authorization role information. I would like to pass the currently authenticated user's account information from the app.xaml.cs codebehind to a different XAML page, but I have no idea how that is done, or if it's even possible. My goal is to databind the IsEnabled property of various buttons of my target XAML page, based on whether the current user is in a particular admin related role or not. The Application_UserLoaded event handler of app.xaml.cs seems to be the safest event handler to initiate this task because it fires only after the user's account information is loaded from the server. I had previously attempted to retrieve the current user information directly from my target XAML page, but I was never getting the current user information because Application_UserLoaded hadn't finished loading the current user info yet. public partial class App : Application { private void Application_UserLoaded(LoadUserOperation operation) { // How do you create an object reference to a XAML page from your project solution // from this event handler? } } Thanks in advance for any assistance, John

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• Why element creation requires the document object in DOM?

  - by maayank

  As noted by others, in Java, with the default W3C DOM libraries, one is required to use the Document object a factory to elements, i.e.: import org.w3c.dom.Document; import org.w3c.dom.Element; Document d; Element e; e = d.createElement("tag"); Why is that necessary? Why conceptually a method can't create an XML element without knowing all of the target document? Why I can't just instantiate using 'new' or something to that effect?

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• Does correcting a value in an validation method mark the object as dirty?

  - by dontWatchMyProfile

  From the docs: If you change the input value in a validate:error: method, you must ensure that you only change the value if it is invalid or uncoerced. The reason is that, since the object and context are now dirtied, Core Data may validate that key again later. If you keep performing a coercion in a validation method, this can therefore produce an infinite loop. So when I modify a value in a validation method, the context gets dirtied? And the next time I save, the validation happens again - and when I change the value even if the validation is OK, then the context is again dirtied, and revalidated again - and I change the value, and Core Data validates, again, because the context is dirtied. And so on...for ever... is that right? Or did they try to say something different?

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• How to set a property of a C# 4 dynamic object when you have the name in another variable

  - by Kieran Benton

  I'm looking for a way to modify properties on a dynamic C# 4.0 object with the name of the property known only at runtime. Is there a way to do something like (ExpandoObject is just used as an example, this could be any class that implements IDynamicMetaObjectProvider): string key = "TestKey"; dynamic e = new ExpandoObject(); e[key] = "value"; Which would be equivalent to: dynamic e = new ExpandoObject(); e.TestKey = "value"; Or is the only way forward reflection?

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• Can I Always debug multiple instances of a same object that is of type thread with GDB?

  - by yan bellavance

  program runs fine. When I put a breakpoint a segmentation fault is generated. Is it me or GDB? At run time this never happens and if I instantiate only one object then no problems. Im using QtCreator on ubuntu x86_64 karmic koala. UPDATE1: I have made a small program containing a simplified version of that class. You can download it at: example program simply put a breakpoint on the first line of the function called drawChart() and step into to see the segfault happen UPDATE2: This is another small program but it is practically the same as the mandlebrot example and it is still happening. You can diff it with mandlebrot to see the small difference. almost the same as mandlebrot example program

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• How do I save a transient object that already exists in an NHibernate session?

  - by Daniel T.

  I have a Store that contains a list of Products: var store = new Store(); store.Products.Add(new Product{ Id = 1, Name = "Apples" }; store.Products.Add(new Product{ Id = 2, Name = "Oranges" }; Database.Save(store); Now, I want to edit one of the Products, but with a transient entity. This will be, for example, data from a web browser: // this is what I get from the web browser, this product should // edit the one that's already in the database that has the same Id var product = new Product{ Id = 2, Name = "Mandarin Oranges" }; store.Products.Add(product); Database.Save(store); However, trying to do it this way gives me an error: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session How do I get around this problem?

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• NHibernate correct way to reattach cached entity to different session

  - by Chris Marisic

  I'm using NHibernate to query a list of objects from my database. After I get the list of objects over them I iterate over the list of objects and apply a distance approximation algorithm to find the nearest object. I consider this function of getting the list of objects and apply the algorithm over them to be a heavy operation so I cache the object which I find from the algorithm in HttpRuntime.Cache. After this point whenever I'm given the supplied input again I can just directly pull the object from Cache instead of having to hit the database and traverse the list. My object is a complex object that has collections attached to it, inside the query where I return the full list of objects I don't bring back any of the sub collections eagerly so when I read my cached object I need lazy loading to work correctly to be able to display the object fully. Originally I tried using this to re-associate my cached object back to a new session _session.Lock(obj, LockMode.None); However when accessing the page concurrently from another instance I get the error Illegal attempt to associate a collection with two open sessions I then tried something different with _session.Merge(obj); However watching the output of this in NHProf shows that it is deleting and re-associating my object's contained collections with my object, which is not what I want although it seems to work fine. What is the correct way to do this? Neither of these seem to be right.

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• How do you set the height of an object to Auto when Animating in WPF?

  - by discwiz

  Tring to animate the expanding and contracting of a WPF Expander in .Net 4.0 using PowerEase. The animation works except I have to hardcode the height or bind to the height of an object in the expander which does not give the desired height. I need to set the "To" of the expander to Auto in animation. <Storyboard x:Name="myStoryboardContract" x:Key="myStoryboardContract"> <DoubleAnimation From="{Binding ElementName=MapsExpander, Path=ActualHeight}" To="30" Duration="00:00:3" Storyboard.TargetName="MapsExpander" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Height"> <DoubleAnimation.EasingFunction> <PowerEase Power="20" EasingMode="EaseOut"/> </DoubleAnimation.EasingFunction> </DoubleAnimation> </Storyboard> </Expander.Resources> <TextBlock x:Name="Text1" Text="Hi this is nothing but junk."/> </Expander>

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• How to iterate javascript object properties in the order they were written.

  - by Jenea

  Hi. I identified a bug in my code which I hope to solve with minimal refactoring effort. This bug occurs in Chrome and Opera browsers. Problem: var obj = {23:"AA",12:"BB"}; //iterating through obj's properties for(i in obj) document.write("Key: "+i +" "+"Value: "+obj[i]); Output in FF,IE Key: 23 Value: AA Key: 12 Value: BB Output in Opera and Chrome (Wrong) Key: 12 Value BB Key: 23 Value AA I attempted to make an inverse ordered object like this var obj1={"AA":23,"BB":12}; for(i in obj1) document.write("Key: "+obj[i] +" "+"Value: "+i); However the output is the same. Is there a way to get for all browser the same behaviour with small changes?

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• [WPF] The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it.

  - by zunyite

  Why I can't create CroppedBitmap in the following code ? I got an exception : The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it. public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem((o) => { //load a large image file var bf = BitmapFrame.Create( new Uri("D:\\1172735642.jpg"), BitmapCreateOptions.DelayCreation | BitmapCreateOptions.IgnoreColorProfile, BitmapCacheOption.None); bf.Freeze(); Dispatcher.BeginInvoke( new Action(() => { CroppedBitmap cb = new CroppedBitmap(bf, new Int32Rect(1,1,5,5)); cb.Freeze(); //set Image's source to cb.... }), System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherPriority.ApplicationIdle); } ); }

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• fastest way to search through this data object? (python)

  - by victor

  I have a data object that looks like this: { 'node-16': { 'tags': ['cuda'], 'localNodes': [ { 'name': 'nC', 'consumesFrom': ['nA', 'nB'], 'classType': 'VectorAdder.VectorAdder' }, { 'name': 'nB', 'consumesFrom': None, 'classType': 'RandomVector' } ] }, 'node-17': { 'tags': ['boring'], 'localNodes': [ { 'name': 'nA', 'consumesFrom': None, 'classType': 'RandomVector' } ] } } Notice that node nA is a producer for nC. What's the fastest way to find out if a given localNode is a producer for another localnode in the data structure (and not within the same list)? For example, I would like to know that nA (node-17) produces for nC (exists on node-16). But I don't need to know that nB produces for nC, since they exist in the same localNodes list.

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• How can I use linq to build an object from 1 row of data?

  - by Hcabnettek

  Hi All, I have a quick linq question. I have a stored proc that should return one row of data. I would like to use a lambda to build an object. Here's what I'm currently doing which works, but I know I should be able to use First instead of Select except I can't seem to get the syntax correct. Can anyone straighten me out here? Thanks for any help. var location = new GeoLocationDC(); DataSet ds = db.ExecuteDataSet(dbCommand); if(ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count == 1) { var rows = ds.Tables[0].AsEnumerable(); var x = rows.Select( c => new GeoLocationDC { Latitude = Convert.ToInt32(c.Field<string>("LATITUDE")), Longitude = Convert.ToInt32(c.Field<string>("LONGITUDE")) }).ToList(); if(x.Count > 0 ) { location = x[0]; } Cheers, ~ck }

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• Mvc Cocoa: How to get controller object for UIBarButtonItem target in view?

  - by plehoux

  I got a basic application where I want the action method of UIBarButtonItem to be in the parent controller. My view has been created programmatically, so I can't use IBAction. RootViewController - NavigationViewController - NavigationView - UIBarButtonItem Here's how have done it for the moment, it works for now... but it's not a really scalable technic (in NavigationView.m): BookAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UIBarButtonItem *soundEffects = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Sound Effects" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:[delegate.rootViewController navigationViewController] action:@selector(soundEffectsClicked:)]; What would be a better technic to get the NavigationViewController object?

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• Spring-Hibernate: How to submit a for when the object has one-to-many relations?

  - by Czar

  Hi, I have a form changeed the properties of my object CUSTOMER. Each customer has related ORDERS. The ORDER's table has a column customer_id which is used for the mapping. All works so far, I can read customers without any problem. When I now e.g. change the name of the CUSTOMER in the form (which does NOT show the orders), after saving the name is updated, but all relations in the ORDERS table are set to NULL (the customer_id for the items is set to NULL. How can I keep the relationship working? THX

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• How to use NSArray of NSArray object in objective c?

  - by user1306926

  I declared a NSArray object in .h file as @property (nonatomic, assign) NSArray *scnArray; and in .h file under - (void)viewDidLoad I created three different NSArray objects as NSArray *obj1 = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"1",@"0",@"0",nil]; NSArray *obj2 = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"0",@"3",@"0",nil]; NSArray *obj3 = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"0",@"0",@"5",nil]; scnArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithArray:obj1]; [scnArray arrayByAddingObjectsFromArray:obj2]; [scnArray arrayByAddingObjectsFromArray:obj3]; and if I access this scnArray from any other function NSArray *caseArray = [scnArray objectAtIndex:index];//index will be 0, 1, 2... I am getting BAD_ACCESS_ERROR. What is the problem here and how can I correct to use it?

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• Does retrieving an object from Doctrine2 cause __construct() of the model class to run?

  - by jiewmeng

  When I retrieve an object say by $em->find('Application\Models\User', 1); or other methods like DQL, findBy*() cause the __construct() of the model class to run? I am having a problem where I set variables there like reference to EntityManager and I find that its not set. I tried putting a die() in __construct() and it doesn't halt the application. Can I say that if I want to set other properties/fields like EntityManager $em I have to do it some other way? Perhaps something like protected function getEm() { if (!isset($this->em)) { $this->em = \Zend_Registry::get('em'); } return $this->em; }

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• What sort of object is this and how to use it?

  - by Gary

  What would be the correct name for this type of array? There are 3 main sections and 4 sub-parts consisting of "issuedTime" "text" "url" and "validToTime", how do you start to convert this to an object? If there was only 1 main section, it would be fairly simple to do however with 3 main parts and no identification for each main section has me scratching my head as where to start. Any advise appreciated. [{ "issuedTime":"7:13pm Sunday 13 June 2010", "text":"\nAmended 7:10pm.\n\nText text and more text\n", "url":"\/folder\/fc\/name.png", "validToTime":"12:00am Monday 14 June 2010" },{ "issuedTime":"8:33pm Sunday 13 June 2010", "text":"\nText and more text.\n", "url":"\/folder\/fc\/name.png", "validToTime":"12:00pm Monday 14 June 2010" },{ "issuedTime":"10:40am Sunday 13 June 2010", "text":"\nAnd even more text.", "url":"\/folder\/fc\/name.png", "validToTime":"12:00am Tuesday 15 June 2010" } ]

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