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  • How do I assign by "reference" to a class field in c#?

    - by Jamie
    I am trying to understand how to assign by "reference" to a class field in c#. I have the follwing example to consider: public class X { public X() { string example = "X"; new Y( ref example ); new Z( ref example ); System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine( example ); } } public class Y { public Y( ref string example ) { example += " (Updated By Y)"; } } public class Z { private string _Example; public Z( ref string example ) { this._Example = example; this._Example += " (Updated By Z)"; } } var x = new X(); When running the above code the output is: X (Updated By Y) And not: X (Updated By Y) (Updated By Z) As I had hoped. It seems that assigning a "ref parameter" to a field loses the reference. Is there any way to keep hold of the reference when assigning to a field? Thanks.

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  • how to get child members value from dynamically casted class?

    - by Baka-Maru Lama
    Well I'm tring to get class members values from a dynamically casted class but I'm unable to find its child class members values. Right now I'm getting TotalWeight members property, but I also want to get child member property of AnotherClass like AnotherClass.child. How can I get those members? string ClassName="something"; Type types = Type.GetType(ClassName, false); var d = from source in types.GetMembers().ToList() where source.MemberType == MemberTypes.Property select source; List<MemberInfo> members = d.Where(memberInfo => d.Select(c => c.Name) .ToList() .Contains(memberInfo.Name)) .ToList(); PropertyInfo propertyInfo; object value; foreach (var memberInfo in members) { propertyInfo = typeof(T).GetProperty(memberInfo.Name); if (myobj.GetType().GetProperty(memberInfo.Name) != null) { value = myobj.GetType() .GetProperty(memberInfo.Name) .GetValue(myobj, null); //how to get child members value here? } } //Where class something has member public class something { private decimal _totalWeight; private Anotherclass _another; public decimal TotalWeight { get { return this._totalWeight; } set { this._totalWeight = value; } } public Anotherclass Another { get { return this._another; } set { this._another= value; } } }

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  • CSS selectors : should I minimise my use of the class attribute in the HTML or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It also make my .css file a little harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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  • jQuery: Adding class to the li element after the link is clicked, and deselecting all other classes

    - by Oleg Tarasenko
    Hi, I am generating menu with such tags: <div class="animatedtabs"> <ul> {% for item in menu_items %} <li><a href="{{ item.url }}" title="{{ item.name }}"><span>{{ item.name }}</span></a></li> {% endfor %} </ul> </div> What I want to do, I want to add class="selected" to li, after the link is clicked, and to remove all other class="selected" on other li's... Also I wonder, how to show menu in the way, so the first item is selected by default... But then when another linked is clicked, then class="selected" is toggled

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  • Can I change class types in a setter with an object-oriented language?

    - by user214626
    Hello, Here is the problem statement : Calling a setter on the object should result in the object to change to an object of a different class, which language can support this ? Ex. I have a class called "Man" (Parent Class), and two children namely "Toddler" and "Old Man", they are its children because they override a behaviour in Man called as walk.( i.e Toddler sometimes walks using both his hands and legs kneeled down and the Old man uses a stick to support himself). The Man class has a attribute called age, I have a setter on Man,say it is called setAge(int ageValue). I have 3 objects, 2 toddlers, 1 old-Man. (The system is up and running,i guess when we say objects it is obvious) .I will make this call, toddler.setAge(80), I expect the toddler to change to an object of type Old Man. Is this possible.Please suggest. Thanks,

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  • Is there a standard .NET exception to throw when a class doesn't implement a required attribute?

    - by a typing monkey
    Suppose I want to throw a new exception when invoking a generic method with a type that doesn't have a required attribute. Is there a .NET exception that's appropriate for this situation, or, more likely, one that would be a suitable ancestor for a custom exception? For example: public static class ClassA { public static T DoSomething<T>(string p) { Type returnType = typeof(T); object[] typeAttributes = returnType.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(SerializableAttribute), true); if ((typeAttributes == null) || (typeAttributes.Length == 0)) { // Is there an exception type in the framework that I should use/inherit from here? throw new Exception("This class doesn't support blah blah blah"); // Maybe ArgumentException? That doesn't seem to fit right. } } } Thanks.

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  • Can a custom MFC window/dialog be a class template instantiation?

    - by John
    There's a bunch of special macros that MFC uses when creating dialogs, and in my quick tests I'm getting weird errors trying to compile a template dialog class. Is this likely to be a big pain to achieve? Here's what I tried: MyDlg.h template <class W> class CMyDlg : public CDialog { typedef CDialog super; DECLARE_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg <W>) public: CMyDlg (CWnd* pParent); // standard constructor virtual ~CMyDlg (); // Dialog Data enum { IDD = IDD_MYDLG }; protected: virtual void DoDataExchange(CDataExchange* pDX); // DDX/DDV support DECLARE_MESSAGE_MAP() private: W *m_pWidget; //W will always be a CDialog }; IMPLEMENT_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg<W>, super) <------------------- template <class W> CMyDlg<W>::CMyDlg(CWnd* pParent) : super(CMyDlg::IDD, pParent) { m_pWidget = new W(this); } I get a whole bunch of errors but main one appears to be: error C2955: 'CMyDlg' : use of class template requires template argument list I tried using some specialised template versions of macros but it doesn't help much, other errors change but this one remains. Note my code is all in one file, since C++ templates don't like .h/.cpp like normal. I'm assuming someone must have done this in the past, possibly creating custom versions of macros, but I can't find it by searching, since 'template' has other meanings.

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  • How can i encrypt a function or its contents in a php class?

    - by jane
    How can i encrypt a function or its contents in a php class ? e.g. Take a look at below class, i would like to encrypt the function test1() so the code inside will never be revealed but executes as normal class test { var $x; var $y; function test1() { return $this->x; } function test2() { return $this->y; } } Thanks in advance

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  • Should enumerations be placed in a separate file or within another class?

    - by Icono123
    I currently have a class file with the following enumeration: using System; namespace Helper { public enum ProcessType { Word = 0, Adobe = 1, } } Or should I include the enumeration in the class where it's being used? I noticed Microsoft creates a new class file for DockStyle: using System; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing.Design; namespace System.Windows.Forms { public enum DockStyle { None = 0, Top = 1, Bottom = 2, Left = 3, Right = 4,. Fill = 5, } }

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  • Is there a way to check if a div has the same class as an ancestor in jQuery?

    - by T.R.
    I'm looking to dynamically highlight a tab, if it represents the current page. I have: <style> #tabs li{bg-color: white;} body.Page1 #tabs .Page1, body.Page2 #tabs .Page2, body.Page3 #tabs .Page3{bg-color: orange;} </style> <body class="Page1 ADifferentClass"> <ul id="tabs"> <li class="Page1 SomeClass"> <li class="Page2 SomeOtherClass"> <li class="Page3 AnotherClass"> </ul> </body> As you can see, there needs to be CSS for each tab, so adding another page involves modifying both the HTML and the CSS. Is there a simple (DRY) way to check if two divs have the same class already built into jQuery? I ultimately went with this: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ var classRE = /Page\d+/i; var pageType = $('body').attr('className').match(classRE); $('li.'+pageType).addClass('Highlight'); }); </script> <style> #tabs li{bg-color: white;} #tabs li.Highlight{bg-color: orange;} </style>

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  • Resharper: how to force introducing new private fields at the bottom of the class?

    - by Igor Brejc
    Resharper offers a very useful introduce and initialize field xxx action when you specify a new parameter in a constructor like: Constructor (int parameter) The only (minor) nuisance is that it puts the new field at the beginning of the class - and I'm a fan of putting private parts as far away as possible from the prying eyes of strangers ;). If, however, you already have some private fields in the class, Resharper will put the new field "correctly" (note the quotes, I don't want to start a flame war over this issue) next to those, even if they are at the end of the class. Is there a way to force Resharper to always put new fields at the end of the class? UPDATE: OK, I forgot to mention I know about the "Type Members Layout in Options" feature, but some concrete help on how to modify the template to achieve fields placement would be nice.

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  • Is it possible to specify a return type of "Derivative(of T)" for a MustOverride sub in VB.NET?

    - by Casey
    VB.NET 2008 .NET 3.5 I have two base classes that are MustInherit (partial). Let's call one class OrderBase and the other OrderItemBase. A specific type of order and order item would inherit from these classes. Let's call these WebOrder (inherits from OrderBase) and WebOrderItem (inherits from OrderItemBase). Now, in the grand scheme of things WebOrder is a composite class containing a WebOrderItem, like so: Public Class WebOrder Inherits OrderBase Public Property OrderItem() as WebOrderItem End Property End Class Public Class WebOrderItem Inherits OrderItemBase End Class In order to make sure any class that derives from OrderBase has the OrderItem property, I would like to do something like this in the OrderBase class: Public MustInherit Class OrderBase Public MustOverride Property OrderItem() as Derivative(Of OrderItemBase) End Class In other words, I want the derived class to be forced to contain a property that returns a derivative of OrderItemBase. Is this possible, or should I be using an entirely different approach?

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  • Is there a JUnit equivalent to NUnit's testcase attribute?

    - by Steph
    I've googled for JUnit test case, and it comes up with something that looks a lot more complicated to implement - where you have to create a new class that extends test case which you then call: public class MathTest extends TestCase { protected double fValue1; protected double fValue2; protected void setUp() { fValue1= 2.0; fValue2= 3.0; } } public void testAdd() { double result= fValue1 + fValue2; assertTrue(result == 5.0); } but what I want is something really simple, like the NUnit test cases [TestCase(1,2)] [TestCase(3,4)] public void testAdd(int fValue1, int fValue2) { double result= fValue1 + fValue2; assertIsTrue(result == 5.0); } Is there any way to do this in JUnit?

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  • Is it possible to avoid C++ compiler error (C2757) where 2 different header files contain same symbol for namespace & class?

    - by dharmendra
    Hi, I am facing a problem when implementing some new code to an existing library. This library already references a class with a name say 'foo'. The same name is used as a namespace in the other header file which has to be included to implement the new functionality. Since both the header files are a part of legacy code libraries I cannot amend them. So here I am looking for any way so as to avoid the Compiler Error (C2757: a symbol with this name already exists and therefore this name cannot be used as a namespace name). I am not sure whether it is possible or not. Hence, Any help shall be appreciated. Thanks For clarity here is the sample code illustration for the issue: HeaderA.h class foo {} HeaderB.h namespace foo { class ABC{} } HeaderC.h #include <HeaderA.h> #include <HeaderB.h> using namespace foo; class Toimplement{ ABC a; //Throws Error C2757 }

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  • How to solve Only Web services with a [ScriptService] attribute on the class definition can be called from script

    - by NevenHuynh
    I attempt to use webservice return POCO class generated from entity data model as JSON when using Jquery AJAX call method in webservice. but I have problem with error "Only Web services with a [ScriptService] attribute on the class definition can be called from script", and getting stuck in it, Here is my code : namespace CarCareCenter.Web.Admin.Services { /// <summary> /// Summary description for About /// </summary> [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.ComponentModel.ToolboxItem(false)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. // [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class About : System.Web.Services.WebService { [ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] [WebMethod] public static Entities.Category getAbout() { Entities.Category about = new Entities.Category(); using (var context = new CarCareCenterDataEntities()) { about = (from c in context.Categories where c.Type == "About" select c).SingleOrDefault(); } return about; } } } aspx page : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', dataType: 'json', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', url: '/Services/About.asmx/getAbout', data: '{}', success: function (response) { var aboutContent = response.d; alert(aboutContent); $('#title-en').val(aboutContent.Name); $('#title-vn').val(aboutContent.NameVn); $('#content-en').val(aboutContent.Description); $('#content-vn').val(aboutContent.DescriptionVn); $('#id').val(aboutContent.CategoryId); }, failure: function (message) { alert(message); }, error: function (result) { alert(result); } }); $('#SaveChange').bind('click', function () { updateAbout(); return false; }); $('#Reset').bind('click', function () { getAbout(); return false; }) }); function updateAbout() { var abt = { "CategoryId": $('#id').val(), "Name": $('#title-en').val(), "NameVn": $('#title-vn').val(), "Description": $('#content-en').val(), "DescriptionVn": $('#content-vn').val() }; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "AboutManagement.aspx/updateAbout", data: JSON.stringify(abt), contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { var aboutContent = response.d; $('#title-en').val(aboutContent.Name); $('#title-vn').val(aboutContent.NameVn); $('#content-en').val(aboutContent.Description); $('#content-vn').val(aboutContent.DescriptionVn); }, failure: function (message) { alert(message); }, error: function (result) { alert(result); } }); } </script> Do any approaches to solve it ? Please help me . Thanks

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  • What is a good naming convention to differentiate a class name from a property in C#?

    - by Andy Stampor
    I run into this frequently enough that I thought I'd see what others had to say about it. Using the StyleCop conventions, I find that I often have a property name that is hard to make different than the class name it is accessing. For example: public class ProjectManager { // Stuff here } public class OtherClass { private ProjectManager ProjectManager { get; set; } } It compiles and runs, but seems like it would be an easy way to confuse things, even with the use of "this".

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  • C++ Why am I unable to use an enum declared globally outside of the class it was declared in?

    - by VGambit
    Right now, my project has two classes and a main. Since the two classes inherit from each other, they are both using forward declarations. In the first object, right underneath the #include statement, I initialize two enums, before the class definition. I can use both enums just fine inside that class. However, if I try to use those enums in the other class, which inherits from the first one, I get an error saying the enum has not been declared. If I try to redefine the enum in the second class, I get a redefinition error. I have even tried using a trick I just read about, and putting each enum in its own namespace; that didn't change anything.

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  • Why do I have to specify pure virtual functions in the declaration of a derived class in Visual C++?

    - by neuviemeporte
    Given the base class A and the derived class B: class A { public: virtual void f() = 0; }; class B : public A { public: void g(); }; void B::g() { cout << "Yay!"; } void B::f() { cout << "Argh!"; } I get errors saying that f() is not declared in B while trying do define void B::f(). Do I have to declare f() explicitly in B? I think that if the interface changes I shouldn't have to correct the declarations in every single class deriving from it. Is there no way for B to get all the virtual functions' declarations from A automatically? EDIT: I found an article that says the inheritance of pure virtual functions is dependent on the compiler: http://www.objectmentor.com/resources/articles/abcpvf.pdf I'm using VC++2008, wonder if there's an option for this.

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