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(Some) security perms in WinXP corrupted (shows GUID instead of username)

- by Andy

I've been using my Win XP machine (part of a domain) over the holiday period, so until yesterday it hadn't rebooted for about five days. I used it yesterday perfectly fine and shut it down. When I switched it on this morning the majority (but not all) of my shortcut links in the Quick Launch toolbar showed as generic file icons. If you open the folder and get properties on one of the failing shortcuts it says ''Target type: This is not a valid shortcut''. Then in Outlook I noticed my signature wasn't showing (I checked my sent folder and the sig was ok yesterday). Checking the signature folder, I can't see the security tab on any of the sig files, and I have an access denied message on trying to open them. I can see the security tab on the signature folder itself, just none of the contents. If I try and use the parent folder's security tab and ''Replace permission entries on all child objects with entries shown here that apply to child objects'' it appears to work fine, but makes no actual difference. I logged in as administrator and saw that the owner of the files showed up as a GUID (clearly should've been my account in its place). Any ideas what might have made that happen? So far I haven't heard any similar complaints from anyone else at the office...

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Hard Drive problem: is it the SATA controller or the HDD itself?

- by Drooling_Sheep

I have a Samsung 1.5TB hard drive hooked up to an ECS H55H-I mini-ITX motherboard. I have XBMC 10 (modified Ubuntu 10.04) installed for use as an HTPC. The hard drive encounters occasional errors during normal use which cause it to be remounted read-only. I have updated the BIOS on the motherboard, changed the SATA cable and moved it to different ports on the motherboard, installed and re-installed the OS (including different versions of XBMC and generic ubuntu), all to no avail. I recently ran tests both with badblocks -sv and smartctl -t long. Both reported no errors. This makes me think the motherboard or SATA controller is probably the issue. Does anyone know of any further tests I can do to help narrow this down? The processor is a Core i3. I forget the model number but it's one of the 32nm ones with on-package graphics. There's no discrete video card or optical drive. The power supply is a 150W Rosewill (pretty sure) that came with the case.

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Noob with git repository on Windows Storage Server 2008?

- by HibbyHoo

I have a Western Digital Sentinel at home running Windows Storage Server 2008 R2 Essentials. I have several git repositories on it for my own personal projects, and have no problem pushing and pulling over my local network. I want to be able to access those repos remotely from anywhere. I am able to log in and remotely access folders and files on it, but I cannot clone repos using the same address. It hangs for a REALLY long time before finally failing with an error: git.exe clone --progress -v "https://myIpAddressHere/Remote/fs/files.aspx?path=%5C%5Cmydevicename%5Cmyreposfolder%5Cmyrepo.git" "D:\repo" Cloning into 'D:\repo'... error: Failed connect to myIpAddress:443; No error while accessing https://myIpAddress/Remote/fs/files.aspx?path=%5C%5Cmydevicename%5Cmyreposfolder%5Cmyrepo.git/info/refs fatal: HTTP request failed git did not exit cleanly (exit code 128) I'm not too privy to networking or web development, and I have only a rudimentary understanding of how to use git (with TortoiseGit). I'm having a hard time finding search results for this specific problem and a hard time interpreting generic tutorials for the general scope of this problem. TortoiseGit version: 1.7.13.0. git version: 1.7.10.mysysgit.1.

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Python 2.7 and Ubuntu 10.10: X11 fails

- by c.a.p.

Against every recommendation I have apt-get remove python in Ubuntu 10.10 (build 2.6.24-29-server x86_64) and apt-get install python2.7 Some built-in software with python2.6 dependencies (like firefox, other minor stuff) was fixed just by apt-get reinstalling or reinstalling from source and the system was stable for one day until I rebooted. Upon booting I got the message "ubuntu is running in low-graphics mode" I have an NVIDIA Quadro NVS 295 256 running on a HP Z600 Workstation so I sudoed: apt-get --purged nvidia* apt-get --purged xserver apt-get install linux-headers-generic apt-get install nvidia-* apt-get install xserver-xorg dpkg-reconfigure xserver-xorg nvidia-xconfig upon rebooting i get the same "ubuntu is running in low-graphics mode" if I decide to tell the boot menu to restart X, the Ubuntu 10.10 "load screen" shows up and does not do anything for hours. If I "X" the screen remains black for hours; ctrl-c shows that /etc/X11/xorg.conf did not produce any errors just a warning "Type "ONE_LEVEL"...". /var/log/Xorg.0.log issues the following warnings (no errors) (WW) AllowEmptyInput is on (WW) NVIDIA(0): UBB is incompatible If I "startX" I get /usr/bin/python: can't find '__main__.py"' in '/usr/share/command-not-found' Before re-installing xserver-xorg however "startX" ran, just by changing the resolution of the tty1 console. Any hints?

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Can't connect to wi-fi hotspot in Ubuntu 11.10

- by ht3t

I'm new to Ubuntu. I'm having a wireless network problem in Ubuntu 11.10. I made a hotspot using Connectify from a computer which is running Windows 7. I can access it in Windows 7 but not in Ubuntu 11.10. Every time I access it,I get a message "disconnected". I'm using msi fx 400 notebook with Intel Centrino wireless -N 1000 wireless card. Ubuntu version is 11.10 with KDE desktop. $ sudo lshw -c network [sudo] password for ht3t: *-network description: Wireless interface product: Centrino Wireless-N 1000 vendor: Intel Corporation physical id: 0 bus info: pci@0000:06:00.0 logical name: wlan0 version: 00 serial: 00:26:c7:56:b8:f0 width: 64 bits clock: 33MHz capabilities: pm msi pciexpress bus_master cap_list ethernet physical wireless configuration: broadcast=yes driver=iwlagn driverversion=3.0.0-12-generic firmware=39.31.5.1 build 35138 latency=0 link=no multicast=yes wireless=IEEE 802.11bgn resources: irq:44 memory:e7400000-e7401fff *-network description: Ethernet interface product: RTL8111/8168B PCI Express Gigabit Ethernet controller vendor: Realtek Semiconductor Co., Ltd. physical id: 0 bus info: pci@0000:07:00.0 logical name: eth0 version: 06 serial: 40:61:86:b6:b1:a2 size: 100Mbit/s capacity: 1Gbit/s width: 64 bits clock: 33MHz capabilities: pm msi pciexpress msix vpd bus_master cap_list ethernet physical tp mii 10bt 10bt-fd 100bt 100bt-fd 1000bt 1000bt-fd autonegotiation configuration: autonegotiation=on broadcast=yes driver=r8169 driverversion=2.3LK-NAPI duplex=full firmware=rtl_nic/rtl8168e-2.fw IP=192.168.21.107 latency=0 link=yes multicast=yes port=MII speed=100Mbit/s resources: irq:41 ioport:9000(size=256) memory:e6004000-e6004fff memory:e6000000-e6003fff I can't do anything without internet connection. How can I fix this?

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Core Data managed object context thread synchronisation

- by Ben Reeves

I'm have an issue where i'm updating a many-to-many relationship in a background thread, which works fine in that threa, but when I send the object back to the main thread the changes do not show. If I close the app and reopen the data is saved fine and the changes show on the main thread. Also using [context lock] instead of a different managed object context works fine. I have tried NSManagedObjectContext: - (BOOL)save:(NSError **)error; - (void)refreshObject:(NSManagedObject *)object mergeChanges:(BOOL)flag; at different stages throughout the process but it doesn't seem to help. My core data code uses the following getter to ensure any operations are thread safe: - (NSManagedObjectContext *) managedObjectContext { NSThread * thisThread = [NSThread currentThread]; if (thisThread == [NSThread mainThread]) { //Main thread just return default context return managedObjectContext; } else { //Thread safe trickery NSManagedObjectContext * threadManagedObjectContext = [[thisThread threadDictionary] objectForKey:CONTEXT_KEY]; if (threadManagedObjectContext == nil) { threadManagedObjectContext = [[[NSManagedObjectContext alloc] init] autorelease]; [threadManagedObjectContext setPersistentStoreCoordinator: [self persistentStoreCoordinator]]; [[thisThread threadDictionary] setObject:threadManagedObjectContext forKey:CONTEXT_KEY]; } return threadManagedObjectContext; } } and when I pass object between threads i'm using -(NSManagedObject*)makeSafe:(NSManagedObject*)object { if ([object managedObjectContext] != [self managedObjectContext]) { NSError * error = nil; object = [[self managedObjectContext] existingObjectWithID:[object objectID] error:&error]; if (error) { NSLog(@"Error makeSafe: %@", error); } } return object; } Any help appreciated

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Core Data migration problem: "Persistent store migration failed, missing source managed object model

- by John Gallagher

The Background A Cocoa Non Document Core Data project with two Managed Object Models. Model 1 stays the same. Model 2 has changed, so I want to migrate the store. I've created a new version by Design Data Model Add Model Version in Xcode. The difference between versions is a single relationship that's been changed from to a one to many. I've made my changes to the model, then saved. I've made a new Mapping Model that has the old model as a source and new model as a destination. I've ensured all Mapping Models and Data Models and are being compiled and all are copied to the Resource folder of my app bundle. I've switched on migrations by passing in a dictionary with the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption key as [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] when adding the Persistent Store. Rather than merging all models in the bundle, I've specified the two models I want to use (model 1 and the new version of model 2) and merged them using modelByMergingModels: The Problem No matter what I do to migrate, I get the error message: "Persistent store migration failed, missing source managed object model." What I've Tried I clean after every single build. I've tried various combinations of having only the model I'm migrating to in Resources, being compiled, or both. Since the error message implies it can't find the source model for my migration, I've tried having every version of the model in both the Resources folder and being compiled. I've made sure I'm not making a really basic error by switching back to the original version of my data model. The app runs fine. I've deleted the Mapping Model and the new version of the model, cleaned, then recreated both. I've tried making a different change in the new model - deleting an entity instead. I'm at my wits end. I can't help but think I've made a huge mistake somewhere that I'm not seeing. Any ideas?

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NServiceBus and NHibernate - Message Handler and Transactions

- by mattcodes

From my understanding NServiceBus executes the Handle method of an IMessageHandler within a transaction, if an exception propagates out of this method, then NServiceBus will ensure the message is put back on the message queue (up X amount of times before error queue) etc.. so we have an atomic operation so to speak. Now when if I inside my NServiceBus Message Handle method I do something like this using(var trans = session.BeginTransaction()) { person.Age = 10; session.Update<Person>(person); trans.Commit() } using(var trans2 = session.BeginTransaction()) { person.Age = 20; session.Update<Person>(person); // throw new ApplicationException("Oh no"); trans2.Commit() } What is the effect of this on the transaction scope? Is trans1 now counted as a nested transaction in terms of its relationship with the Nservicebus transaction even though we have done nothing to marry them up? (if not how would one link onto the transaction of NServiceBus? Looking at the second block (trans2), if I uncomment the throw statement, will the NServiceBus transaction then rollback trans1 as well? In basic scenarios, say I dump the above into a console app, then trans1 is independent, commit, flushed and won't rollback. I'm trying to clarify what happens now we sit in someone else's transaction like NServiceBus? The above is just example code, im wouldnt be working directly with session, more like through a uow pattern.

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Using parameters in reports for VIsual Studio 2008

- by Jim Thomas

This is my first attempt to create a Visual Studio 2008 report using parameters. I have created the dataset and the report. If I run it with a hard-coded filter on a column the report runs fine. When I change the filter to '?' I keep getting this error: No overload for method 'Fill' takes '1' argument Obviously I am missing some way to connect the parameter on the dataset to a report parameter. I have defined a report parameter using the Report/Report Parameter screen. But how does that report parameter get tied to the dataset table parameter? Is there a special naming convention for the parameter? I have Googled this a half dozen times and read the msdn documentation but the examples all seem to use a different approach (like creating a SQL query rather then a table based dataset) or entering the parameter name as "=Parameters!name.value" but I can't figure out where to do that. One msdn example suggestted I needed to create some C# code using a SetParameters() method to make the connection. Is that how it is done? If anyone can recommend a good walk-through I'd appreciate it. Edit: After more reading it appears I don't need report parameters at all. I am simply trying to add a parameter to the database query. So I would create a text box on the form, get the user's input, then apply that parameter programmatically to the fill() argument list. The report parameter on the other hand is an ad-hoc value generally entered by a user that you want to appear on the report. But there is no relationship between report parameters and query/dataset parameters. Is that correct?

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ASP.NET MVC/LINQ: What's the proper way to iterate through a Linq.EntitySet in a View?

- by Terminal Frost

OK so I have a strongly-typed Customer "Details" view that takes a Customer object Model. I am using LINQ to SQL and every Customer can have multiple (parking) Spaces. This is a FK relationship in the database so my LINQ-generated Customer model has a "Spaces" collection. Great! Here is a code snippet from my CustomerRepository where I iterate through the Customer's parking spaces to delete all payments, spaces and then finally the customer: public void Delete(Customer customer) { foreach (Space s in customer.Spaces) db.Payments.DeleteAllOnSubmit(s.Payments); db.Spaces.DeleteAllOnSubmit(customer.Spaces); db.Customers.DeleteOnSubmit(customer); } Everything works as expected! Now in my "Details" view I want to populate a table with the Customer's Spaces: <% foreach (var s in Model.Spaces) { %> <tr> <td><%: s.ID %></td> <td><%: s.InstallDate %></td> <td><%: s.SpaceType %></td> <td><%: s.Meter %></td> </tr> <% } %> I get the following error: foreach statement cannot operate on variables of type 'System.Data.Linq.EntitySet' because 'System.Data.Linq.EntitySet' does not contain a public definition for 'GetEnumerator' Finally, if I add this bit of code to my Customer partial class and use the foreach in the view to iterate through ParkingSpaces everything works as expected: public IEnumerable<Space> ParkingSpaces { get { return Spaces.AsEnumerable(); } } The problem here is that I don't want to repeat myself. I was also thinking that I could use a ViewModel to pass a Spaces collection to the View, however LINQ already infers and creates the Spaces property on the Customer model so I think it would be cleanest to just use that. I am missing something simple or am I approaching this incorrectly? Thanks!

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Self-reference entity in Hibernate

- by Marco

Hi guys, I have an Action entity, that can have other Action objects as child in a bidirectional one-to-many relationship. The problem is that Hibernate outputs the following exception: "Repeated column in mapping for collection: DbAction.childs column: actionId" Below the code of the mapping: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="DbAction" table="actions"> <id name="actionId" type="short" /> <property not-null="true" name="value" type="string" /> <set name="childs" table="action_action" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="actionId" /> <many-to-many column="actionId" unique="true" class="DbAction" /> </set> <join table="action_action" inverse="true" optional="false"> <key column="actionId" /> <many-to-one name="parentAction" column="actionId" not-null="true" class="DbAction" /> </join> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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What do you mean by the expressiveness in a programming language?

- by prosseek

I see a lot of the word 'expressiveness' when people want to stress one language is better than the other. But I don't see exactly what they mean by it. Is it the verboseness/succinctness? I mean, if one language can write down something shorter than the other, does that mean expressiveness? Please refer to my other question - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2411772/article-about-code-density-as-a-measure-of-programming-language-power Is it the power of the language? Paul Graham says that one language is more powerful than the other language in a sense that one language can do that the other language can't do (for example, LISP can do something with macro that the other language can't do). Is it just something that makes life easier? Regular expression can be one of the examples. Is it a different way of solving the same problem: something like SQL to solve the search problem? What do you think about the expressiveness of a programming language? Can you show the expressiveness using some code? What's the relationship with the expressiveness and DSL? Do people come up with DSL to get the expressiveness?

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Explicit casting doesn't work in default model binding

- by Felix

I am using ASP.NET MVC2 and Entity Framework. I am going to simplify the situation a little; hopefully it will make it clearer, not more confusing! I have a controller action to create address, and the country is a lookup table (in other words, there is a one-to-many relationship between Country and Address classes). Let's say for clarity that the field in the Address class is called Address.Land. And, for the purposes of the dropdown list, I am getting Country.CountryID and Country.Name. I am aware of Model vs. Input validation. So, if I call the dropdown field formLand - I can make it work. But if I call the field Land (that is, matching the variable in Address class) - I am getting the following error: "The parameter conversion from type 'System.String' to type 'App.Country' failed because no type converter can convert between these types." OK, this makes sense. A string (CountryID) comes from the form and the binder doesn't know how to convert it to Country type. So, I wrote the converter: namespace App { public partial class Country { public static explicit operator Country(string countryID) { AppEntities context = new AppEntities(); Country country = (Country) context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("AppEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } } } FWIW, I tried both explicit and implicit. I tested it from the controller - Country c = (Country)"fr" - and it works fine. However, it never got invoked when the View is posted. I am getting the same "no type converter" error in the model. Any ideas how to hint to the model binder that there is a type converter? Thanks

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EF4 querying from parent to grandchildren

- by Hans Kesting

I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select all data of it's grandchildren. That's a lot of separate queries! Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing methods I need, like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the navigation property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

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Questions about TinyMCE. Or suggestions on a compariable product.

- by chobo2

Hi I am using jquery 1.3.2 and asp.net mvc 1.0. Originally I was using some other rich html editor but I ran into one major problem when a user pasted in text from open office or MS office it would bring along tons of styling junk. If a user like wrote one sentence what was like 25 characters and pasted that into my current html editor the count would 25,000 characters and I don't want to store all that junk( I can't afford to). So tinyMCE seems to not have this problem. However I got some questions. It seems if you want to use for commercial use(what my site is but currently is not making very much at this time) you need to get a commercial license. However it does not say if it is free or if it will cost money. I am assuming it means that you will have to pay but I would like to confirm this. So do you have to pay for a license to use tinyMCe if your using it for commercial use? (Yes/ No) ------------------ Answer the following questions if you said "no" to the first question ----------- So would I use the jQuery package then or is it better to use the other versions? What is this .net compressor zip for? Do I need it? I only want a few of the buttons(like bold,font size) can I remove the other buttons? It seems to display a word count. Can it be changed to character count? ----------------- Answer the following question if you said "yes" to the first question -------- Is there a rich html editor that is free for commercial use and preferably for jquery that can remove the junk that office programs seem to bring along? This is a test to show how much formatting gets made. • One • Two • Three The above text when copied into my current rich html editor will have all this code with it. <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"><meta name="ProgId" content="Word.Document"><meta name="Generator" content="Microsoft Word 12"><meta name="Originator" content="Microsoft Word 12"><link rel="File-List" href="file:///C:%5CUsers%5Cchobo2%5CAppData%5CLocal%5CTemp%5Cmsohtmlclip1%5C01%5Cclip_filelist.xml"><link rel="themeData" href="file:///C:%5CUsers%5Cchobo2%5CAppData%5CLocal%5CTemp%5Cmsohtmlclip1%5C01%5Cclip_themedata.thmx"><link rel="colorSchemeMapping" href="file:///C:%5CUsers%5Cchobo2%5CAppData%5CLocal%5CTemp%5Cmsohtmlclip1%5C01%5Cclip_colorschememapping.xml"><style>  </style> This is a test to show how much formatting gets made. ·         One ·         Two ·         Three <o:p> </o:p>

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Django one form for two models

- by martinthenext

Hello! I have a ForeignKey relationship between TextPage and Paragraph and my goal is to make front-end TextPage creating/editing form as if it was in ModelAdmin with 'inlines': several field for the TextPage and then a couple of Paragraph instances stacked inline. The problem is that i have no idea about how to validate and save that: @login_required def textpage_add(request): profile = request.user.profile_set.all()[0] if not (profile.is_admin() or profile.is_editor()): raise Http404 PageFormSet = inlineformset_factory(TextPage, Paragraph, extra=5) if request.POST: try: textpageform = TextPageForm(request.POST) # formset = PageFormSet(request.POST) except forms.ValidationError as error: textpageform = TextPageForm() formset = PageFormSet() return render_to_response('textpages/manage.html', { 'formset' : formset, 'textpageform' : textpageform, 'error' : str(error), }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) # Saving data if textpageform.is_valid() and formset.is_valid(): textpageform.save() formset.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse(consults)) else: textpageform = TextPageForm() formset = PageFormSet() return render_to_response('textpages/manage.html', { 'formset' : formset, 'textpageform' : textpageform, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) I know I't a kind of code-monkey style to post code that you don't even expect to work but I wanted to show what I'm trying to accomplish. Here is the relevant part of models.py: class TextPage(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=100) page_sub_category = models.ForeignKey(PageSubCategory, blank=True, null=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.title class Paragraph(models.Model): article = models.ForeignKey(TextPage) title = models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True, null=True) text = models.TextField(blank=True, null=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.title Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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Concatenate row values T-SQL

- by Robert

I am trying to pull together some data for a report and need to concatenate the row values of one of the tables. Here is the basic table structure: Reviews ReviewID ReviewDate Reviewers ReviewerID ReviewID UserID Users UserID FName LName This is a M:M relationship. Each Review can have many Reviewers; each User can be associated with many Reviews. Basically, all I want to see is Reviews.ReviewID, Reviews.ReviewDate, and a concatenated string of the FName's of all the associated Users for that Review (comma delimited). Instead of: ReviewID---ReviewDate---User 1----------12/1/2009----Bob 1----------12/1/2009----Joe 1----------12/1/2009----Frank 2----------12/9/2009----Sue 2----------12/9/2009----Alice Display this: ReviewID---ReviewDate----Users 1----------12/1/2009-----Bob, Joe, Frank 2----------12/9/2009-----Sue, Alice I have found this article describing some ways to do this, but most of these seem to only deal with one table, not multiple; unfortunately, my SQL-fu is not strong enough to adapt these to my circumstances. I am particularly interested in the example on that site which utilizes FOR XML PATH() as that looks the cleanest and most straight forward. SELECT p1.CategoryId, ( SELECT ProductName + ', ' FROM Northwind.dbo.Products p2 WHERE p2.CategoryId = p1.CategoryId ORDER BY ProductName FOR XML PATH('') ) AS Products FROM Northwind.dbo.Products p1 GROUP BY CategoryId; Can anyone give me a hand with this? Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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ILOG CPLEX: how to populate IloLPMatrix while using addGe to set up the model?

- by downer

I have a queatoin about IloLPMatrix and addGe. I was trying to follow the example of AdMIPex5.java to generate user defined cutting planes based on the solution to the LP relaxation. The difference is that eh initial MIP model is not read in from a mps file, but set up in the code using methods like addGe, addLe etc. I think this is why I ran into problems while copying the exampe to do the following. IloLPMatrix lp = (IloLPMatrix)cplex.LPMatrixIterator().next(); lp from the above line turns to be NULL. I am wondering 1. What is the relationship between IloLPMatrix and the addLe, addGe commands? I tried to addLPMatrix() to the model, and then used model.addGe methods. but the LPMatrix seems to be empty still. How do I populate the IloLPMatrix of the moel according to the value that I had set up using addGe and addLe. Is the a method to this easily, or do I have to set them up row by row myself? I was doing this to get the number of variables and their values by doing lp.getNumVars(). Is there other methods that I can use to get the number of variables and their values wihout doing these, since my system is set up by addLe, addGe etc? Thanks a lot for your help on this.

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ASP.NET MVC - using model property as form, how can I post to action?

- by Ryan Peters

Consider the following model: public class BandProfileModel { public BandModel Band { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Relationship> Requests { get; set; } } and the following form: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%: Html.EditorFor(m => m.Band) %> <input type="submit" value="Save Band" /> <% } %> which posts to the following action: public ActionResult EditPost(BandProfileModel m, string band) { // stuff is done here, but m is null? return View(m); } Basically, I only have one property on my model that is used in the form. The other property in BandProfleModel is just used in the UI for other data. I'm trying to update just the Band property, but for each post, the argument "m" is always null (specifically, the .Band property is null). It's posting just fine to the action, so it isn't a problem with my route. Just the data is null. The ID and name attributes of the fields are BAND_whatever and Band.whatever (whatever being a property of Band), so it seems like it would work... What am I doing wrong? How can I use just one property as part of a form, post back, and have values populated via the model binder for my BandProfileModel property in the action? Thanks.

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How to apply stereotypes on UML Relationships' MemberEnds?

- by Cristi Potlog

I'm running this code on a UML Class Diagram, and it works just fine, but when trying to apply stereotypes from PropertiesEditor in Visual Studio for relationship ends (FirstRole and SecondRole), the stereotypes combo doesn't load even if in code there seems to be applicable stereotypes valid for association properties. What should I put in metaclasses tag in the UML profile except for IProperty? <metaclassMoniker name="/MyUmlProfile/Microsoft.VisualStudio.Uml.Classes.IProperty"/> This is the code: using Microsoft.VisualStudio.Uml.Classes; foreach( IShape shape in currentDiagram.GetSelectedShapes<IElement>() ) { IElement element = shape.GetElement(); foreach( IStereotype stereotype in element.ApplicableStereotypes ) { if( element is Microsoft.VisualStudio.Uml.Classes.IClass ) { IClass classItem = (IClass)element; if( classItem.SuperClasses.Count() > 0 ) { if( stereotype.Name == "SubclassAttribute" ) { element.ApplyStereotype( stereotype ); } } else if( stereotype.Name == "ClassAttribute" ) { element.ApplyStereotype( stereotype ); } } else if( element is Microsoft.VisualStudio.Uml.Classes.IProperty ) { IProperty property = (IProperty)element; if( property.Association != null ) { if( stereotype.Name == "Set" && property.UpperValue != null && property.UpperValue.ToString() == "*" ) { element.ApplyStereotype( stereotype ); } else if( stereotype.Name == "ManyToOne" && ( property.UpperValue == null || property.UpperValue.ToString() == "1" ) ) { element.ApplyStereotype( stereotype ); } } else if( stereotype.Name == "Property" ) { element.ApplyStereotype( stereotype ); } } } }

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ps forrest for session id

- by azatoth

Often I want to get a nice readout what process are running and their relationship; I usually by habit runs ps auxfww and eventual grep for the process in question. Having been thinking about the problem I tried to create an oneliner to get the process tree in ps ufww format for all processes which has the session id specified by arbitrary process name(s); ending up in following code: ps ufww --sid=$(ps -C apache2 -o sess --no-headers | sort | uniq | grep -v -E '^ +0$' | awk 'NR==1{x=$0;next}NF{x=x","$0};END{gsub(/[[:space:]]*/,"",x);print x}') giving for example following output: USER PID %CPU %MEM VSZ RSS TTY STAT START TIME COMMAND root 4157 0.0 0.1 41264 3120 ? Ss Jun11 0:00 /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 4329 0.0 0.0 41264 1976 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 4330 0.0 0.0 41264 2028 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 4331 0.0 0.0 41264 2028 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 4332 0.0 0.0 41264 2028 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 4333 0.0 0.0 41264 2032 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 6648 0.0 0.0 41264 1884 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 6654 0.0 0.0 41264 1884 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start www-data 6655 0.0 0.0 41264 1884 ? S Jun11 0:00 \_ /usr/sbin/apache2 -k start I do wonder now if anyone has an better idea to solve this issue? Are there anything out there that is easier to "oneline" and gives above or better information? For example I would actually want to have included all childs relative any parent. (uncertain if this should be on SF instead, but felt it was more like an programming question)

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TypeConverter prevents ApplyPropertyChanges in EntityFramework

- by Felix

I ran into an interesting problem (hopefully, interesting not just for me :) I am running Entity Framework 1 (.NET 3.5) and ASP.NET MVC 2. I have a Customer class that has many-to-one relationship with Country class (in other words, Country is a lookup table for customers - I described more in this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2404801/explicit-casting-doesnt-work-in-default-model-binding ) I got TypeConverter to work; so I am getting a perfect object into controller's Post method. Create works fine; however, in Edit I am getting the following error when I call ApplyPropertyChanges: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. The controller code is fairly trivial: public ActionResult Edit(Customer customerToEdit) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { Customer cust = (Customer)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Customers", "CustomerID", customerToEdit.CustomerID)); context.ApplyPropertyChanges(cust.EntityKey.EntitySetName, customerToEdit); context.SaveChanges(); } return View(...); } If I remove country from the form, it works fine; and if I assign dropdown value to EntityReference "manually" - it works as well. TypeConverter code is also fairly simple, but I've never used TypeConverter before, so I may be missing something here: public override object ConvertFrom(ITypeDescriptorContext typeContext, CultureInfo culture, object value) { if (value is string) { int countryID = Int16.Parse((string)value); Country country = (Country)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } return base.ConvertFrom(typeContext, culture, value); }

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How to parse out MS Word formatting?

- by chobo2

I have a rich html textbox on my asp.net mvc application. The rich html textbox is some jquery plugin that I use and has basic stuff like bold,underline and etc. Now I am anticipating that people will maybe write something in word and then copy and paste it into my textbox. However I limit the number of characters a person can have. This is a test to show how much formatting gets made. • One • Two • Three So I wrote that above(it does not copy to well into here). Basically it is a line of text and "how" is bold and the "one,two,three" are a bullet list. Word says it is 70 characters long with spacing. However when I post this data from my textbox to my server I get a length back of 24577 characters. so I checked what was being sent and I get this <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"><meta name="ProgId" content="Word.Document"><meta name="Generator" content="Microsoft Word 12"><meta name="Originator" content="Microsoft Word 12"><link rel="File-List" href="file:///C:%5CUsers%5Cchobo2%5CAppData%5CLocal%5CTemp%5Cmsohtmlclip1%5C01%5Cclip_filelist.xml"><link rel="themeData" href="file:///C:%5CUsers%5Cchobo2%5CAppData%5CLocal%5CTemp%5Cmsohtmlclip1%5C01%5Cclip_themedata.thmx"><link rel="colorSchemeMapping" href="file:///C:%5CUsers%5Cchobo2%5CAppData%5CLocal%5CTemp%5Cmsohtmlclip1%5C01%5Cclip_colorschememapping.xml"><style>  </style> This is a test to show how much formatting gets made. ·         One ·         Two ·         Three <o:p> </o:p> Is there something I can use to get rid of all this stuff?

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NHibernate save / update event listeners: listening for child object saves

- by James Allen

I have an Area object which has many SubArea children: public class Area { ... public virtual IList<SubArea> SubAreas { get; set; } } he children are mapped as a uni-directional non-inverse relationship: public class AreaMapping : ClassMap<Area> { public AreaMapping() { HasMany(x => x. SubAreas).Not.Inverse().Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } } The Area is my aggregate root. When I save an area (e.g. Session.Save(area) ), the area gets saved and the child SubAreas automatically cascaded. I want to add a save or update event listener to catch whenever my areas and/or subareas are persisted. Say for example I have an area, which has 5 SubAreas. If I hook into SaveEventListeners: Configuration.EventListeners.SaveEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; When I save the area, Mylistener is only fired once only for area (SubAreas are ignored). I want the 5 SubAreas to be caught aswell in the event listener. If I hook into SaveOrUpdateEventListeners instead: Configuration.EventListeners.SaveOrUpdateEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; When I save the area, Mylistener is not fired at all. Strangely, if I hook into SaveEventListeners and SaveOrUpdateEventListeners: Configuration.EventListeners.SaveEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; Configuration.EventListeners.SaveOrUpdateEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; When I save the area, Mylistener is fired 11 times: once for the area, and twice for each SubArea! (I think because NHIbernate is INSERTing the SubArea and then UPDATING with the area foreign key). Does anyone know what I'm doing wrong here, and how I can get the listener to fire once for each area and subarea?

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Symfony / Doctrine - How to filter form field by property in related model

- by Dan

I have a UserForm class which has a select list populated from a related model (specified by a foreign relationship in the yml) like so: $this->setWidget('report_id', new sfWidgetFormDoctrineChoice(array('model' => $this->getRelatedModelName('Report')))); I'd like to filter the Report objects that come from this relation by one of the Report fields, "active" such that only Reports with active=1 appear in the form. I have a method, ReportTable::GetActiveReports() that performs the appropriate query and returns the filtered reports. So one option is to populate the Widget with the results of that function. Any tips on the syntax to do that? It seems to me the cleaner way is to use the UserFormFilter class to filter the reports by active=1 there. Unfortunately I couldn't find any documentation on how to use form filters (or really what they are), so maybe this is not the right solution. Is a Form Filter the appropriate tool for this job? It seems I should use the Doctrine_Record_Filter_Standard class as defined here: http://www.doctrine-project.org/api/orm/1.2/doctrine/doctrine_record_filter_standard.html But it's not clear to me the appropriate usage. Any guidance would be helpful. Thanks! Dan

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