Search Results

Search found 7291 results on 292 pages for 'runtime exec'.

Page 246/292 | < Previous Page | 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253  | Next Page >

  • how to handle onclick event of button inside popup window in android

    - by henna
    In my application i have a button initially on the screen and in onclick of the button ,popup window should open. In the popup window i have an imagebutton , now on click of this button i want to start an activity. The popup window opens but i dont understand how to handle the onclick of the imagebtn inside popup window. In main.xml i have a button and in popup_example.xml i have an imagebutton. Hi my Java code is as follows: final LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater)this.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); final Button b=(Button)findViewById(R.id.btn); b.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { PopupWindow pw = new PopupWindow(inflater.inflate(R.layout.popup_example,(ViewGroup)findViewById(R.layout.main))); pw.showAtLocation(v, Gravity.LEFT,0,0); pw.update(8,-70,150,270); //if onclick written here, it gives null pointer exception. ImageButton img=(ImageButton)findViewById(R.id.home); img.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Intent..... } }); //if onclick is written here it gives runtime exception. }); and i have two xml layouts.........1)main.xml 2)popup_example.xml main.xml popup_example.xml <ImageButton android:id="@+id/home" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:focusable="true" android:src="@drawable/vitalss" android:layout_weight="1" android:background="#8E2323" />

    Read the article

  • F# and statically checked union cases

    - by Johan Jonasson
    Soon me and my brother-in-arms Joel will release version 0.9 of Wing Beats. It's an internal DSL written in F#. With it you can generate XHTML. One of the sources of inspiration have been the XHTML.M module of the Ocsigen framework. I'm not used to the OCaml syntax, but I do understand XHTML.M somehow statically check if attributes and children of an element are of valid types. We have not been able to statically check the same thing in F#, and now I wonder if someone have any idea of how to do it? My first naive approach was to represent each element type in XHTML as a union case. But unfortunately you cannot statically restrict which cases are valid as parameter values, as in XHTML.M. Then I tried to use interfaces (each element type implements an interface for each valid parent) and type constraints, but I didn't manage to make it work without the use of explicit casting in a way that made the solution cumbersome to use. And it didn't feel like an elegant solution anyway. Today I've been looking at Code Contracts, but it seems to be incompatible with F# Interactive. When I hit alt + enter it freezes. Just to make my question clearer. Here is a super simple artificial example of the same problem: type Letter = | Vowel of string | Consonant of string let writeVowel = function | Vowel str -> sprintf "%s is a vowel" str I want writeVowel to only accept Vowels statically, and not as above, check it at runtime. How can we accomplish this? Does anyone have any idea? There must be a clever way of doing it. If not with union cases, maybe with interfaces? I've struggled with this, but am trapped in the box and can't think outside of it.

    Read the article

  • Issue calling superclass method in subclass constructor

    - by stormin986
    I get a NullPointerException calling a Superclass Method in Subclass Inner Class Constructor... What's the Deal? In my application's main class (subclass of Application), I have a public inner class that simply contains 3 public string objects. In the parent class I declare an object of that inner class. public class MainApplication extends Application { public class Data { public String x; public String y; public String z; } private Data data; MainApplication() { data = new Data() data.x = SuperClassMethod(); } } After I instantiate the object in the constructor, I get a runtime error when I try to assign a value in the inner class with a superclass method. Any idea what's up here?? Can you not call superclass methods in the subclass constructor? ** Edit ** Original question was about inner class member assignment in outer class constructor. Turned out the issue was with calling a superclass method in the class's constructor. It was giving me a null pointer exception. Thus, the question has changed.

    Read the article

  • Behavior of local variables in JavaScripts with()-statement

    - by thr
    I noticed some weird (and to my knowledge undefined behavior, by the ECMA 3.0 Spec at least), take the following snippet: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); alert(bar); } alert(bar); It crashes in both Firefox and Chrome, because "bar" doesn't exist in the first alert(); statement, this is as expected. But if you add a declaration of bar inside the with()-statement, so it looks like this: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; alert(bar); } alert(bar); It will produce the following: undefined, 1, g2, undefined It seems as if you create a variable inside a with()-statement most browsers (tested on Chrome or Firefox) will make that variable exist outside that scope also, it's just set to undefined. Now from my perspective bar should only exist inside the with()-statement, and if you make the example even weirder: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; var zoo; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; zoo = function() { return bar; } alert(bar); } alert(bar); alert(zoo()); It will produce this: undefined, 1, g2, undefined, g2 So the bar inside the with()-statement does not exist outside of it, yet the runtime somehow "automagically" creates a variable named bar that is undefined in its top level scope (global or function) but this variable does not refer to the same one as inside the with()-statement, and that variable will only exist if a with()-statement has a variable named bar that is defined inside it. Very weird, and inconsistent. Anyone have an explanation for this behavior? There is nothing in the ECMA Spec about this.

    Read the article

  • Build a Visual Studio Project without access to referenced dlls

    - by David Reis
    I have a project which has a set of binary dependencies (assembly dlls for which I do no have the source code). At runtime those dependencies are required pre-installed on the machine and at compile time they are required in the source tree, e,g in a lib folder. As I'm also making source code available for this program I would like to enable a simple download and build experience for it. Unfortunately I cannot redistribute the dlls, and that complicates things, since VS wont link the project without access to the referenced dlls. Is there anyway to enable this project to be built and linked in absence of the real referenced dlls? Maybe theres a way to tell VS to link against an auto generated stub of the dll, so that it can rebuild without the original? Maybe there's a third party tool that will do this? Any clues or best practices at all in this area? I realize the person must have access to the dlls to run the code, so it makes sense that he could add them to the build process, but I'm just trying to save them the pain of collecting all the dlls and placing them in the lib folder manually.

    Read the article

  • To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

    Read the article

  • Passing an arbitrary JSONValue to a JSNI function

    - by Riley Lark
    I have a JSONValue in my Java that may be a JSONArray, a JSONObject, a JSONString, etc. I want to pass it to a JSNI function that can accept any of those types. If I naively write my JSNI as something like: public final native jsni(Object parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public void useFunction(JSONValue value) { jsni(value); //Throws js exception at runtime :( } then I get a javascript exception, because GWT doesn't know how to convert the JSONValue to a JavaScriptObject (or native string / number value). My current workaround is public final native jsniForJSO(Object parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public final native jsniForString(String parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public final native jsniForNumber(double parameter) /*-{ doSomething(parameter); }-*/; public actuallyUseFunction(JSONValue value) { if (value.isObject()) { jsniForJSO(value.isObject().getJavaScriptObject()); } else if (value.isString()) { jsniForString(value.isString().stringValue()); } else { //etc } } This is a big burden for code maintainability, etc... especially if you have more than one parameter. Is there a way to generate these functions automatically, or get around this issue altogether? I've taken to wrapping everything in a JSONObject first, so I can definitely get a JavaScriptObject to pass to my jsni, but that's another clumsy mechanic.

    Read the article

  • Linux C debugging library to detect memory corruptions

    - by calandoa
    When working sometimes ago on an embedded system with a simple MMU, I used to program dynamically this MMU to detect memory corruptions. For instance, at some moment at runtime, the foo variable was overwritten with some unexpected data (probably by a dangling pointer or whatever). So I added the additional debugging code : at init, the memory used by foo was indicated as a forbidden region to the MMU; each time foo was accessed on purpose, access to the region was allowed just before then forbidden just after; a MMU irq handler was added to dump the master and the address responsible of the violation. This was actually some kind of watchpoint, but directly self-handled by the code itself. Now, I would like to reuse the same trick, but on a x86 platform. The problem is that I am very far from understanding how is working the MMU on this platform, and how it is used by Linux, but I wonder if any library/tool/system call already exist to deal with this problem. Note that I am aware that various tools exist like Valgrind or GDB to manage memory problems, but as far as I know, none of these tools car be dynamically reconfigured by the debugged code. I am mainly interested for user space under Linux, but any info on kernel mode or under Windows is also welcome!

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Auto updating (to UI, Grid) binding list in C# Winform?

    - by Dhana
    I'm not even sure if i'm doing this correctly. But basically I have a list of objects that are built out of a class/interface. From there, I am binding the list to a datagrid view that is on a Windows Form (C#) Here the list is a Sync list which will auto update the UI, in this case datagridview. Every thing works fine now, but now i would like to have the List should have an dynamic object, that is the object will have by default two static property (ID, Name), and at run time user will select remaining properties. These should be bind to the data grid. Any update on the list should be auto reflected in the grid. I am aware that, we can use dynamic objects, but i would like to know , how to approach for solution, datagridview.DataSource = myData; // myData is AutoUpdateList<IPersonInfo> Now IPersonInfo is the type of object, need to add dynamic properties for this type at runtime. public class AutoUpdateList<T> : System.ComponentModel.BindingList<T> { private System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke _SyncObject; private System.Action<System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs> _FireEventAction; public AutoUpdateList() : this(null) { } public AutoUpdateList(System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke syncObject) { _SyncObject = syncObject; _FireEventAction = FireEvent; } protected override void OnListChanged(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { try { if (_SyncObject == null) { FireEvent(args); } else { _SyncObject.Invoke(_FireEventAction, new object[] { args }); } } catch (Exception) { // TODO: Log Here } } private void FireEvent(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { base.OnListChanged(args); } } Could you help out on this?

    Read the article

  • How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

    - by Fusspawn
    I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

    Read the article

  • dynamical binding or switch/case?

    - by kingkai
    A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

    Read the article

  • Java Servlet: getInitParameter not work in Service()

    - by Gabriele
    I've added some parameters in my web.xml config file, as follow: <context-param> <param-name>service1</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>service2</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> ... I try to get the parameter in my servlet, in particular in my service method: protected void service(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { System.out.println(this.getServletContext().getInitParameter("service1")); ... but at runtime I have a NullPointerException... How can I get the parameter value included in web.xml? This is the stacktrace: GRAVE: Servlet.service() for servlet DispatcherServlet threw exception java.lang.NullPointerException at javax.servlet.GenericServlet.getServletContext(GenericServlet.java:160) at it.servlethope.DispatcherServlet.service(DispatcherServlet.java:66) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.handleRewrite(RuleChain.java:176) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.doRules(RuleChain.java:145) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriter.processRequest(UrlRewriter.java:92) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriteFilter.doFilter(UrlRewriteFilter.java:381) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:127) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:298) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:852) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:588) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:489) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) DispatcherServlet.java:66 is the line where I try the getInitParameter()

    Read the article

  • AnyCPU/x86/x64 for C# application and it's C++/CLI dependency

    - by Soonts
    I'm Windows developer, I'm using Microsoft visual studio 2008 SP1. My developer machine is 64 bit. The software I'm currently working on is managed .exe written in C#. Unfortunately, I was unable to solve the whole problem solely in C#. That's why I also developed a small managed DLL in C++/CLI. Both projects are in the same solution. My C# .exe build target is "Any CPU". When my C++ DLL build target is "x86", the DLL is not loaded. As far as I understood when I googled, the reason is C++/CLI language, unlike other .NET languages, compiles to the native code, not managed code. I switched the C++ DLL build target to x64, and everything works now. However, AFAIK everything will stop working as soon as my client will install my product on a 32-bit OS. I have to support Windows Vista and 7, both 32 and 64 bit versions of each of them. I don't want to fall back to 32 bits. That 250 lines of C++ code in my DLL is only 2% of my codebase. And that DLL is only used in several places, so in the typical usage scenario it's not even loaded. My DLL implements two COM objects with ATL, so I can't use "/clr:safe" project setting. Is there way to configure the solution and the projects so that C# project builds "Any CPU" version, the C++ project builds both 32 bit and 64 bit versions, then in the runtime when the managed .EXE is starting up, it uses either 32-bit DLL or 64-bit DLL depending on the OS? Or maybe there's some better solution I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • can a webservice load jars during run time

    - by KItis
    I have created a simple web-service using Java. i want to load jars related to web-service during runtime. I have done this task for normal Java application. there what I did was JarFile jar = new JarFile(f.getPath()); final Manifest manifest = jar.getManifest(); final Attributes mattr = manifest.getMainAttributes(); // Read the manifset in jar files and get the Name attribute // whare it specified the class that need to load //for (Object a : mattr.keySet()) { for (Iterator iter = mattr.keySet().iterator(); iter.hasNext();) { Object obj = (Object)iter.next(); if ("ServiceName".equals(obj.toString())) className = mattr.getValue((Name) obj); //System.out.println(className); } /* * Create the jar class loader and use the first argument passed * in from the command line as the jar file to use. */ JarClassLoader jarLoader = new JarClassLoader(f.getPath()); /* Load the class from the jar file and resolve it. */ Class c = jarLoader.loadClass(className, true); My problem is can I put jars that need to be loaded during run time in to separate folder rather than putting in to WEBINF folder. do i have to put jars both in axis and web-application. thanks in advance for any contribution for this question.

    Read the article

  • C# custom control to get internal text as string

    - by Ed Woodcock
    ok, I'm working on a custom control that can contain some javascript, and read this out of the page into a string field. This is a workaround for dynamic javascript inside an updatepanel. At the moment, I've got it working, but if I try to put a server tag inside the block: <custom:control ID="Custom" runat="server"> <%= ControlName.ClientID %> </custom:control> The compiler does not like it. I know these are generated at runtime, and so might not be compatible with what I'm doing, but does anyone have any idea how I can get that working? EDIT Error message is: Code blocks are not supported in this context EDIT 2 The control: [DataBindingHandler("System.Web.UI.Design.TextDataBindingHandler, System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"), ControlValueProperty("Text"), DefaultProperty("Text"), ParseChildren(true, "Text"), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal)] public class CustomControl : Control, ITextControl { [DefaultValue(""), Bindable(true), Localizable(true)] public string Text { get { return (string)(ViewState["Text"] ?? string.Empty); } set { ViewState["Text"] = value; } } }

    Read the article

  • Java downcasting and is-A has-A relationship

    - by msharma
    HI, I have a down casting question, I am a bit rusty in this area. I have 2 clasess like this: class A{ int i; String j ; //Getters and setters} class B extends A{ String k; //getter and setter} I have a method like this, in a Utility helper class: public static A converts(C c){} Where C are objects that are retireved from the database and then converted. The problem is I want to call the above method by passing in a 'C' and getting back B. So I tried this: B bClasss = (B) Utility.converts(c); So even though the above method returns A I tried to downcast it to B, but I get a runtime ClassCastException. Is there really no way around this? DO I have to write a separate converts() method which returns a B class type? If I declare my class B like: class B { String k; A a;} // So instead of extending A it has-a A, getter and setters also then I can call my existing method like this: b.setA(Utility.converts(c) ); This way I can reuse the existing method, even though the extends relationship makes more sense. What should I do? Any help much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is the Java classpath final after JVM startup?

    - by Jens
    Hi, I have read a lot about the Java class loading process lately. Often I came across texts that claimed that it is not possible to add classes to the classpath during runtime and load them without class loader hackery (URLClassLoaders etc.) As far as I know classes are loaded dynamically. That means their bytecode representation is only loaded and transformed to a java.lang.Class object when needed. So shouldn't it be possible to add a JAR or *.class file to the classpath after the JVM started and load those classes, provided they haven't been loaded yet? (To be clear: In this case the classpath is simple folder on the filesystem. "Adding a JAR or *.class file" simply means dropping them in this folder.) And if not, does that mean that the classpath is searched on JVM startup and all fully qualified names of the found classes are cached in an internal "list"? It would be nice of you if you could point me to some sources in your answers. Preferably the offical SUN documentation: Sun JVM Spec. I have read the spec but could not find anything about the classpath and if it's finalized on JVM startup. P.s. This is a theoretical question. I just want to know if it is possible. There is nothing practical I want to achieve. There is just my thirst for knowledge :)

    Read the article

  • problem adding object to hashtable

    - by daemonkid
    I am trying to call a class method dynamically depending on a condition. This is how I am doing it I have three classes implement a single interface interface IReadFile { string DoStuff(); } The three classes A,B,C implement the interface above. I am trying to add them to a hashtable with the code below _HashT.Add("a", new classA()); _HashT.Add("b", new classB()); _HashT.Add("c", new classC()); This compiles fine, but gives a runtime error.{Object reference not set to an instance of an object.} I was planning to return the correct class to the interface type depending on a parameter that matches the key value. say if I send in a. ClassA is returned to the interface type and the method is called. IReadFile Obj = (IReadFile )_HashT["a"].GetType(); obj.DoStuff(); How do I correct the part above where the objects need to be added to the hashtable? Or do I need to use a different approach? All the classes are in the same assembly and namespace. Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • A generic error occurred in GDI+, JPEG Image to MemoryStream

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, This seems to be a bit of an infamous error all over the web. So much so that I have been unable to find an answer to my problem as my scenario doesn't fit. An exception gets thrown when I save the image to the stream. Weirdly this works perfectly with a png but gives the above error with jpg and gif which is rather confusing. Most similar problem out there relate to saving images to files without permissions. Ironically the solution is to use a memory stream as I am doing.... public static byte[] ConvertImageToByteArray(Image imageToConvert) { using (var ms = new MemoryStream()) { ImageFormat format; switch (imageToConvert.MimeType()) { case "image/png": format = ImageFormat.Png; break; case "image/gif": format = ImageFormat.Gif; break; default: format = ImageFormat.Jpeg; break; } imageToConvert.Save(ms, format); return ms.ToArray(); } } More detail to the exception. The reason this causes so many issues is the lack of explanation :( System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException was unhandled by user code Message="A generic error occurred in GDI+." Source="System.Drawing" ErrorCode=-2147467259 StackTrace: at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageCodecInfo encoder, EncoderParameters encoderParams) at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageFormat format) at Caldoo.Infrastructure.PhotoEditor.ConvertImageToByteArray(Image imageToConvert) in C:\Users\Ian\SVN\Caldoo\Caldoo.Coordinator\PhotoEditor.cs:line 139 at Caldoo.Web.Controllers.PictureController.Croppable() in C:\Users\Ian\SVN\Caldoo\Caldoo.Web\Controllers\PictureController.cs:line 132 at lambda_method(ExecutionScope , ControllerBase , Object[] ) at System.Web.Mvc.ActionMethodDispatcher.Execute(ControllerBase controller, Object[] parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ReflectedActionDescriptor.Execute(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethod(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeActionMethodWithFilters>b__7() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethodFilter(IActionFilter filter, ActionExecutingContext preContext, Func`1 continuation) InnerException: OK things I have tried so far. Cloning the image and working on that. Retrieving the encoder for that MIME passing that with jpeg quality setting. Please can anyone help.

    Read the article

  • getting CS1502 compiler error on dev environment but not production.

    - by nw
    When I try to run my ASP.NET app from my development environment I get the following error message: Compiler Error Message: CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'mmars.Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(mmars.contextInfo, ref mmars.Printing.printObjSummary)' has some invalid arguments. When I publish and run on our production server I don't get this error. It seems to compile fine when I build from the build menu (in fact if I change the second argument of the bolded function call below, i get a compiler error in visual studio), but now i've suddenly started getting this error message at runtime. So another question I have in addition to getting rid of the error is why is the .NET development server even trying to do JIT compilation on my project if it is already compiled into a DLL? Printing.printObjSummary myPrintObj = new Printing.printObjSummary(); Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(ci, ref myPrintObj); printObjects.Add(myPrintObj); This seems to have just suddenly appeared from nowhere today and it's extremely frustrating. Also, though there are no warnings at compile-time, when I get redirected to the page with that first compilation error there are many warnings like the following: Warning: CS0436: The type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs' conflicts with the imported type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\assembly\dl3\7179c19a\345f948c_ece7ca01\mmars.DLL'. Using the type defined in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs'. What's the deal with that? Is the webserver complaining about name conflicts in the source file and dll resulting from the source file?

    Read the article

  • How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

    - by Daniel Schneller
    In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

    Read the article

  • How to determine one to many column name from entity type

    - by snicker
    I need a way to determine the name of the column used by NHibernate to join one-to-many collections from the collected entity's type. I need to be able to determine this at runtime. Here is an example: I have some entities: namespace Entities { public class Stable { public virtual int Id {get; set;} public virtual string StableName {get; set;} public virtual IList<Pony> Ponies { get; set; } } public class Dude { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string DudesName { get; set; } public virtual IList<Pony> PoniesThatBelongToDude { get; set; } } public class Pony { public virtual int Id {get; set;} public virtual string Name {get; set;} public virtual string Color { get; set; } } } I am using NHibernate to generate the database schema, which comes out looking like this: create table "Stable" (Id integer, StableName TEXT, primary key (Id)) create table "Dude" (Id integer, DudesName TEXT, primary key (Id)) create table "Pony" (Id integer, Name TEXT, Color TEXT, Stable_id INTEGER, Dude_id INTEGER, primary key (Id)) Given that I have a Pony entity in my code, I need to be able to find out: A. Does Pony even belong to a collection in the mapping? B. If it does, what are the column names in the database table that pertain to collections In the above instance, I would like to see that Pony has two collection columns, Stable_id and Dude_id.

    Read the article

  • Cannot call DLL import entry in C# from C++ project. EntryPointNotFoundException

    - by kriau
    I'm trying to call from C# a function in a custom DLL written in C++. However I'm getting the warning during code analysis and the error at runtime: Warning: CA1400 : Microsoft.Interoperability : Correct the declaration of 'SafeNativeMethods.SetHook()' so that it correctly points to an existing entry point in 'wi.dll'. The unmanaged entry point name currently linked to is SetHook. Error: System.EntryPointNotFoundException was unhandled. Unable to find an entry point named 'SetHook' in DLL 'wi.dll'. Both projects wi.dll and C# exe has been compiled in to the same DEBUG folder, both files reside here. There is only one file with the name wi.dll in the whole file system. C++ function definition looks like: #define WI_API __declspec(dllexport) bool WI_API SetHook(); I can see exported function using Dependency Walker: as decorated: bool SetHook(void) as undecorated: ?SetHook@@YA_NXZ C# DLL import looks like (I've defined these lines using CLRInsideOut from MSDN magazine): [DllImport("wi.dll", EntryPoint = "SetHook", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] [return: MarshalAsAttribute(UnmanagedType.I1)] internal static extern bool SetHook(); I've tried without EntryPoint and CallingConvention definitions as well. Both projects are 32-bits, I'm using W7 64 bits, VS 2010 RC. I believe that I simply have overlooked something.... Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC3 - Bug using Javascript

    - by ebb
    Hey there, I'm trying to use Ajax.BeginForm() to POST A Json result from my controller (I'm using MVC3). When the Json result is called it should be sent to a javascript function and extract the object using "var myObject = content.get_response().get_object();", However it just throws a "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" when trying to invoke the Ajax POST. My code: Controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string message) { return Json(new { Success = true, Message = message }); } View: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function JsonAdd_OnComplete(mycontext) { var myObject = mycontext.get_response().get_object(); alert(mycontext.Message); } </script> </head> <body> <div> @using(Ajax.BeginForm("Index", "Home", new AjaxOptions() { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "JsonAdd_OnComplete" })) { @Html.TextBox("message") <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT" /> } </div> </body> </html> The strange thing is that the exactly same code works in MVC2 - Is this a bug, or have I forgot something? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Deleting dynamic pageviews using Javascript

    - by user203127
    Hi, I created dynamic tab creation application using telerik radstrip. I can delete the tabs that are creating dynamically using crossbar option. When i am deleting the tabs its just deleting the tabs but not pageview corresponding to the tab. I have tried to delete the pageviews but i am getting error like "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" and pointing to multiPage.get_pageViews().remove(pageView); code. Can anyone help me how to delete pageviews. Thanks in advance. Javascript code. <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ function deleteTab(tabText) { var tabStrip = $find("<%= RadTabStrip1.ClientID %>"); var multiPage = $find("<%= RadMultiPage1.ClientID %>"); var tab = tabStrip.findTabByText(tabText); var pageView = tab.get_pageView(); var tabToSelect = tab.get_nextTab(); if (!tabToSelect) tabToSelect = tab.get_previousTab(); tabStrip.get_tabs().remove(tab); multiPage.get_pageView().remove(pageView); multiPage.get_pageViews().remove(pageView); if (tabToSelect) tabToSelect.set_selected(true); } /* ]]> */ </script>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253  | Next Page >