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• Loading JSON-encoded AJAX content into jQuery UI tabs

  - by pocketfullofcheese

  We want our of our AJAX calls in our web app to receive JSON-encoded content. In most places this is already done (e.g. in modals) and works fine. However, when using jQueryUI's tabs (http://jqueryui.com/demos/tabs/) and their ajax functionality, only plaintext HTML can be returned (i.e. from the URLs specified in the a tags below). How do I get the tab function to recognize that on each tab's click, it will be receiving JSON-encoded data from the specified URL, and to load in the .content index of that JSON? $(function() { $('div#myTabs').tabs(); }); <div id="mytabs" class="ui-tabs ui-widget ui-widget-content ui-corner-all"> <ul class="ui-tabs-nav ui-helper-reset ui-helper-clearfix ui-widget-header ui-corner-all"> <li class="ui-state-default ui-corner-top"><a href="/url/one">Tab one</a></li> <li class="ui-state-default ui-corner-top"><a href="/url/two">Tab two</a></li> </ul> </div>

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• ASP.NET MembershipProvider and StructureMap

  - by Ben

  I was using the default AspNetSqlMembershipProvider in my application. Authentication is performed via an AuthenticationService (since I'm also supporting other forms of membership like OpenID). My AuthenticationService takes a MembershipProvider as a constructor parameter and I am injecting the dependency using StructureMap like so: For<MembershipProvider>().Use(Membership.Provider); This will use the MembershipProvider configured in web.config. All this works great. However, now I have rolled my own MembershipProvider that makes use of a repository class. Since the MembershipProvider isn't exactly IoC friendly, I added the following code to the MembershipProvider.Initialize method: _membershipRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IMembershipRepository>(); However, this raises an exception, like StructureMap hasn't been initialized (cannot get instance of IMembershipRepository). However, if I remove the code and put breakpoints at my MembershipProvider's initialize method and my StructureMap bootstrapper, it does appear that StructureMap is configured before the MembershipProvider is initialized. My only workaround so far is to add the above code to each method in the MembershipProvider that needs the repository. This works fine, but I am curious as to why I can't get my instance in the Initialize method. Is the MembershipProvider performing some internal initialization that runs before any of my own application code does? Thanks Ben

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• How can I return json from my WCF rest service (.NET 4), using Json.Net, without it being a string,

  - by Samuel Meacham

  The DataContractJsonSerializer is unable to handle many scenarios that Json.Net handles just fine when properly configured (specifically, cycles). A service method can either return a specific object type (in this case a DTO), in which case the DataContractJsonSerializer will be used, or I can have the method return a string, and do the serialization myself with Json.Net. The problem is that when I return a json string as opposed to an object, the json that is sent to the client is wrapped in quotes. Using DataContractJsonSerializer, returning a specific object type, the response is: {"Message":"Hello World"} Using Json.Net to return a json string, the response is: "{\"Message\":\"Hello World\"}" I do not want to have to eval() or JSON.parse() the result on the client, which is what I would have to do if the json comes back as a string, wrapped in quotes. I realize that the behavior is correct; it's just not what I want/need. I need the raw json; the behavior when the service method's return type is an object, not a string. So, how can I have my method return an object type, but not use the DataContractJsonSerializer? How can I tell it to use the Json.Net serializer instead? Or, is there someway to directly write to the response stream? So I can just return the raw json myself? Without the wrapping quotes? Here is my contrived example, for reference: [DataContract] public class SimpleMessage { [DataMember] public string Message { get; set; } } [ServiceContract] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class PersonService { // uses DataContractJsonSerializer // returns {"Message":"Hello World"} [WebGet(UriTemplate = "helloObject")] public SimpleMessage SayHelloObject() { return new SimpleMessage("Hello World"); } // uses Json.Net serialization, to return a json string // returns "{\"Message\":\"Hello World\"}" [WebGet(UriTemplate = "helloString")] public string SayHelloString() { SimpleMessage message = new SimpleMessage() { Message = "Hello World" }; string json = JsonConvert.Serialize(message); return json; } // I need a mix of the two. Return an object type, but use the Json.Net serializer. }

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• Loops inside loops

  - by cozzy

  Hi, I'd like to find easier way to write loops inside loops. Here is example code of 3 levels of 'for' loops: int level = 0; int value = 0; bool next = false; for (int i0 = 0; i0 < 6; i0++) { level = 0; value = i0; method(); if (next) for (int i1 = 0; i1 < 6; i1++) { level = 1; value = i1; method(); if (next) for (int i2 = 0; i2 < 6; i2++) { level = 2; value = i2; method(); if (next) { //Do somethnig } } } } private void method() { //use int 'level' and 'value' //determine bool 'next' } I wonder if it's possible to write the same thing different way. To set number of levels(number of loops) and loop repeats. In this case levels = 3; repeats = 6;. I need it because I am using more than 20 loops inside themselves and than the code is not comprehensible. I hope my explanation was ok and thanks for help.

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• Having trouble with extension methods for byte arrays

  - by Dave

  I'm working with a device that sends back an image, and when I request an image, there is some undocumented information that comes before the image data. I was only able to realize this by looking through the binary data and identifying the image header information inside. I've been able to make everything work fine by writing a method that takes a byte[] and returns another byte[] with all of this preamble "stuff" removed. However, what I really want is an extension method so I can write image_buffer.RemoveUpToByteArray(new byte[] { 0x42, 0x4D }); instead of byte[] new_buffer = RemoveUpToByteArray( image_buffer, new byte[] { 0x42, 0x4D }); I first tried to write it like everywhere else I've seen online: public static class MyExtensionMethods { public static void RemoveUpToByteArray(this byte[] buffer, byte[] header) { ... } } but then I get an error complaining that there isn't an extension method where the first parameter is a System.Array. Weird, everyone else seems to do it this way, but okay: public static class MyExtensionMethods { public static void RemoveUpToByteArray(this Array buffer, byte[] header) { ... } } Great, that takes now, but still doesn't compile. It doesn't compile because Array is an abstract class and my existing code that gets called after calling RemoveUpToByteArray used to work on byte arrays. I could rewrite my subsequent code to work with Array, but I am curious -- what am I doing wrong that prevents me from just using byte[] as the first parameter in my extension method?

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• Zendx JQuery Autocomplete

  - by emeraldjava

  I've been trying to get the Zend Jquery autocomplete function working, when i noticed this section in the Zend documentation. The following UI widgets are available as form view helpers. Make sure you use the correct version of jQuery UI library to be able to use them. The Google CDN only offers jQuery UI up to version 1.5.2. Some other components are only available from jQuery UI SVN, since they have been removed from the announced 1.6 release. autoComplete($id, $value, $params, $attribs): The AutoComplete View helper will be included in a future jQuery UI version (currently only via jQuery SVN) and creates a text field and registeres it to have auto complete functionality. The completion data source has to be given as jQuery related parameters 'url' or 'data' as described in the jQuery UI manual. Does anybody know which svn url tag or branch i need to download to get a javascript file with the autocomplete functions available in it? At the moment, my Bootstrap.php has $view->addHelperPath('ZendX/JQuery/View/Helper/', 'ZendX_JQuery_View_Helper'); $view->jQuery()->enable(); $view->jQuery()->uiEnable(); Zend_Controller_Action_HelperBroker::addHelper( new ZendX_JQuery_Controller_Action_Helper_AutoComplete() ); // Add it to the ViewRenderer $viewRenderer = new Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_ViewRenderer(); $viewRenderer->setView($view); Zend_Controller_Action_HelperBroker::addHelper($viewRenderer); In my layout, i define the jquery ui version i want <?php echo $this->jQuery() ->setUiVersion('1.7.2');?> Finally my index.phtml has the autocomplete widget <p><?php $data = array('New York', 'Tokyo', 'Berlin', 'London', 'Sydney', 'Bern', 'Boston', 'Baltimore'); ?> <?php echo $this->autocomplete("ac1", "", array('data' => $data));?></p> I'm using Zend 1.8.3 atm.

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• Any way to identify a redirect when using jQuery's $.ajax() or $.getScript() methods?

  - by Bungle

  Within my company's online application, we've set up a JSONP-based API that returns some data that is used by a bookmarklet I'm developing. Here is a quick test page I set up that hits the API URL using jQuery's $.ajax() method: http://troy.onespot.com/static/3915/index.html If you look at the requests using Firebug's "Net" tab (or the like), you'll see that what's happening is that the URL is requested successfully, but since our app redirects any unauthorized users to a login page, the login page is also requested by the browser and seemingly interpreted as JavaScript. This inevitably causes an exception since the login page is HTML, not JavaScript. Basically, I'm looking for any sort of hook to determine when the request results in a redirect - some way to determine if the URL resolved to a JSONP response (which will execute a method I've predefined in the bookmarklet script) or if it resulted in a redirect. I tried wrapping the $.ajax() method in a try {} catch(e) {} block, but that doesn't trap the exception, I'm assuming because the requests were successful, just not the parsing of the login page as JavaScript. Is there anywhere I could use a try {} catch(e) {} block, or any property of $.ajax() that might allow me to hone in on the exception or otherwise determine that I've been redirected? I actually doubt this is possible, since $.getScript() (or the equivalent setup of $.ajax()) just loads a script dynamically, and can't inspect the response headers since it's cross-domain and not truly AJAX: http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.getScript/ My alternative would be to just fire off the $.ajax() for a period of time until I either get the JSONP callback or don't, and in the latter case, assume the user is not logged in and prompt them to do so. I don't like that method, though, since it would result in a lot of unnecessary requests to the app server, and would also pile up the JavaScript exceptions in the meantime. Thanks for any suggestions!

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• Asynchronous NSURLConnection Throws EXC_BAD_ACCESS

  - by Sheehan Alam

  I'm not really sure why my code is throwing a EXC_BAD_ACCESS, I have followed the guidelines in Apple's documentation: -(void)getMessages:(NSString*)stream{ NSString* myURL = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.someurl.com"]; NSURLRequest *theRequest = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:myURL]]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if (theConnection) { receivedData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection Failed!"); } } And my delegate methods #pragma mark NSURLConnection Delegate Methods - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { // This method is called when the server has determined that it // has enough information to create the NSURLResponse. // It can be called multiple times, for example in the case of a // redirect, so each time we reset the data. // receivedData is an instance variable declared elsewhere. [receivedData setLength:0]; } - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { // Append the new data to receivedData. // receivedData is an instance variable declared elsewhere. [receivedData appendData:data]; } - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error { // release the connection, and the data object [connection release]; // receivedData is declared as a method instance elsewhere [receivedData release]; // inform the user NSLog(@"Connection failed! Error - %@ %@", [error localizedDescription], [[error userInfo] objectForKey:NSErrorFailingURLStringKey]); } - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { // do something with the data // receivedData is declared as a method instance elsewhere NSLog(@"Succeeded! Received %d bytes of data",[receivedData length]); // release the connection, and the data object [connection release]; [receivedData release]; } I get an EXC_BAD_ACCESS on didReceiveData. Even if that method simply contains an NSLog, I get the error. Note: receivedData is an NSMutableData* in my header file

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• Should a Perl constructor return an undef or a "invalid" object?

  - by DVK

  Question: What is considered to be "Best practice" - and why - of handling errors in a constructor?. "Best Practice" can be a quote from Schwartz, or 50% of CPAN modules use it, etc...; but I'm happy with well reasoned opinion from anyone even if it explains why the common best practice is not really the best approach. As far as my own view of the topic (informed by software development in Perl for many years), I have seen three main approaches to error handling in a perl module (listed from best to worst in my opinion): Construct an object, set an invalid flag (usually "is_valid" method). Often coupled with setting error message via your class's error handling. Pros: Allows for standard (compared to other method calls) error handling as it allows to use $obj->errors() type calls after a bad constructor just like after any other method call. Allows for additional info to be passed (e.g. 1 error, warnings, etc...) Allows for lightweight "redo"/"fixme" functionality, In other words, if the object that is constructed is very heavy, with many complex attributes that are 100% always OK, and the only reason it is not valid is because someone entered an incorrect date, you can simply do "$obj->setDate()" instead of the overhead of re-executing entire constructor again. This pattern is not always needed, but can be enormously useful in the right design. Cons: None that I'm aware of. Return "undef". Cons: Can not achieve any of the Pros of the first solution (per-object error messages outside of global variables and lightweight "fixme" capability for heavy objects). Die inside the constructor. Outside of some very narrow edge cases, I personally consider this an awful choice for too many reasons to list on the margins of this question. UPDATE: Just to be clear, I consider the (otherwise very worthy and a great design) solution of having very simple constructor that can't fail at all and a heavy initializer method where all the error checking occurs to be merely a subset of either case #1 (if initializer sets error flags) or case #3 (if initializer dies) for the purposes of this question. Obviously, choosing such a design, you automatically reject option #2.

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• Defining jUnit Test cases Correctly

  - by Epitaph

  I am new to Unit Testing and therefore wanted to do some practical exercise to get familiar with the jUnit framework. I created a program that implements a String multiplier public String multiply(String number1, String number2) In order to test the multiplier method, I created a test suite consisting of the following test cases (with all the needed integer parsing, etc) @Test public class MultiplierTest { Multiplier multiplier = new Multiplier(); // Test for 2 positive integers assertEquals("Result", 5, multiplier.multiply("5", "1")); // Test for 1 positive integer and 0 assertEquals("Result", 0, multiplier.multiply("5", "0")); // Test for 1 positive and 1 negative integer assertEquals("Result", -1, multiplier.multiply("-1", "1")); // Test for 2 negative integers assertEquals("Result", 10, multiplier.multiply("-5", "-2")); // Test for 1 positive integer and 1 non number assertEquals("Result", , multiplier.multiply("x", "1")); // Test for 1 positive integer and 1 empty field assertEquals("Result", , multiplier.multiply("5", "")); // Test for 2 empty fields assertEquals("Result", , multiplier.multiply("", "")); In a similar fashion, I can create test cases involving boundary cases (considering numbers are int values) or even imaginary values. 1) But, what should be the expected value for the last 3 test cases above? (a special number indicating error?) 2) What additional test cases did I miss? 3) Is assertEquals() method enough for testing the multiplier method or do I need other methods like assertTrue(), assertFalse(), assertSame() etc 4) Is this the RIGHT way to go about developing test cases? How am I "exactly" benefiting from this exercise? 5)What should be the ideal way to test the multiplier method? I am pretty clueless here. If anyone can help answer these queries I'd greatly appreciate it. Thank you.

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• Function syntax puzzler in scalaz

  - by oxbow_lakes

  Following watching Nick Partidge's presentation on deriving scalaz, I got to looking at this example, which is just awesome: import scalaz._ import Scalaz._ def even(x: Int) : Validation[NonEmptyList[String], Int] = if (x % 2 ==0) x.success else "not even: %d".format(x).wrapNel.fail println( even(3) <|*|> even(5) ) //prints: Failure(NonEmptyList(not even: 3, not even: 5)) I was trying to understand what the <|*|> method was doing, here is the source code: def <|*|>[B](b: M[B])(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[(A, B)] = <**>(b, (_: A, _: B)) OK, that is fairly confusing (!) - but it references the <**> method, which is declared thus: def <**>[B, C](b: M[B], z: (A, B) => C)(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[C] = a(t.fmap(value, z.curried), b) So I have a few questions: How come the method appears to take a monad of one type parameter (M[B]) but can get passed a Validation (which has two type paremeters)? How does the syntax (_: A, _: B) define the function (A, B) => C which the 2nd method expects? It doesn't even define an output via =>

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• What is the best way to update an unattached entity on Entity Framework?

  - by Carlos Loth

  Hi, In my project I have some data classes to retrieve data from the database using the Entity Framework. We called these classes *EntityName*Manager. All of them have a method to retrieve entities from database and they behave most like this: static public EntityA SelectByName(String name) { using (var context = new ApplicationContext()) { var query = from a in context.EntityASet where a.Name == name select a; try { var entityA = query.First(); context.Detach(entityA); return entityA; } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { throw new DataLayerException( String.Format("The entityA whose name is '{0}' was not found.", name), ex); } } } You can see that I detach the entity before return it to the method caller. So, my question is "what is the best way to create an update method on my *EntityA*Manager class?" I'd like to pass the modified entity as a parameter of the method. But I haven't figured out a way of doing it without going to the database and reload the entity and update its values inside a new context. Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Carlos Loth.

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• F# Active Pattern List.filter or equivalent

  - by akaphenom

  I have a records of types type tradeLeg = { id : int ; tradeId : int ; legActivity : LegActivityType ; actedOn : DateTime ; estimates : legComponents ; entryType : ShareOrDollarBased ; confirmedPrice: DollarsPerShare option; actuals : legComponents option ; type trade = { id : int ; securityId : int ; ricCode : string ; tradeActivity : TradeType ; enteredOn : DateTime ; closedOn : DateTime ; tradeLegs : tradeLeg list ; } Obviously the tradeLegs are a type off of a trade. A leg may be settled or unsettled (or unsettled but price confirmed) - thus I have defined the active pattern: let (|LegIsSettled|LegIsConfirmed|LegIsUnsettled|) (l: tradeLeg) = if Helper.exists l.actuals then LegIsSettled elif Helper.exists l.confirmedPrice then LegIsConfirmed else LegIsUnsettled and then to determine if a trade is settled (based on all legs matching LegIsSettled pattern: let (|TradeIsSettled|TradeIsUnsettled|) (t: trade) = if List.exists ( fun l -> match l with | LegIsSettled -> false | _ -> true) t.tradeLegs then TradeIsSettled else TradeIsUnsettled I can see some advantages of this use of active patterns, however i would think there is a more efficient way to see if any item of a list either matches (or doesn't) an actie pattern without having to write a lambda expression specifically for it, and using List.exist. Question is two fold: is there a more concise way to express this? is there a way to abstract the functionality / expression (fun l - match l with | LegIsSettled - false | _ - true) Such that let itemMatchesPattern pattern item = match item with | pattern -> true | _ -> false such I could write (as I am reusing this design-pattern): let curriedItemMatchesPattern = itemMatchesPattern LegIsSettled if List.exists curriedItemMatchesPattern t.tradeLegs then TradeIsSettled else TradeIsUnsettled Thoughts?

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• Wizard form in Struts

  - by Kuntal Basu

  I am creating a wizard in Struts. It cotains 4 steps. For Each step I have separate ActionClass say:- Step1Action.java Step2Action.java Step3Action.java Step4Action.java and in each class there are 2 methods input() and process(). input() method is for showing the page in input mode process() method is will be use for processing the submitted data (if validation is ok) I am carrying all data upto the last step in a session. And saving all of them in database in the last step Similaly 4 action tags in struts.xml like :- <action name="step1" class="com.mycomp.myapp.action.Step1Action1" method="input"> <result name="success" type="redirectAction">step2</result> <result name="input">/view/step1.jsp</result> </action> <action name="step2" class="com.mycomp.myapp.action.Step1Action2" method="input"> <result name="success" type="redirectAction">step3</result> <result name="input">/view/step2.jsp</result> </action> But I think I am going wrong. Please Tell me How will I handle This case?

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• Unittesting Url.Action (using Rhino Mocks?)

  - by Kristoffer Ahl

  I'm trying to write a test for an UrlHelper extensionmethod that is used like this: Url.Action<TestController>(x => x.TestAction()); However, I can't seem set it up correctly so that I can create a new UrlHelper and then assert that the returned url was the expected one. This is what I've got but I'm open to anything that does not involve mocking as well. ;O) [Test] public void Should_return_Test_slash_TestAction() { // Arrange RouteTable.Routes.Add("TestRoute", new Route("{controller}/{action}", new MvcRouteHandler())); var mocks = new MockRepository(); var context = mocks.FakeHttpContext(); // the extension from hanselman var helper = new UrlHelper(new RequestContext(context, new RouteData()), RouteTable.Routes); // Act var result = helper.Action<TestController>(x => x.TestAction()); // Assert Assert.That(result, Is.EqualTo("Test/TestAction")); } I tried changing it to urlHelper.Action("Test", "TestAction") but it will fail anyway so I know it is not my extensionmethod that is not working. NUnit returns: NUnit.Framework.AssertionException: Expected string length 15 but was 0. Strings differ at index 0. Expected: "Test/TestAction" But was: <string.Empty> I have verified that the route is registered and working and I am using Hanselmans extension for creating a fake HttpContext. Here's what my UrlHelper extentionmethod look like: public static string Action<TController>(this UrlHelper urlHelper, Expression<Func<TController, object>> actionExpression) where TController : Controller { var controllerName = typeof(TController).GetControllerName(); var actionName = actionExpression.GetActionName(); return urlHelper.Action(actionName, controllerName); } public static string GetControllerName(this Type controllerType) { return controllerType.Name.Replace("Controller", string.Empty); } public static string GetActionName(this LambdaExpression actionExpression) { return ((MethodCallExpression)actionExpression.Body).Method.Name; } Any ideas on what I am missing to get it working??? / Kristoffer

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• How to avoid "Illegal type in constant pool" using "ldc_w <classname>" in Jasmin?

  - by jazzdev

  I'm writing a compiler that generates Jasmin code and want to invoke a method that takes a Class as a parameter. public class CTest { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { java.lang.reflect.Array.newInstance(CTest.class, 0); } } So in Jasmin, I think that should be: .class public CTest2 .super java/lang/Object .method public static main([Ljava/lang/String;)V .limit stack 2 .limit locals 1 ldc_w CTest2 iconst_0 invokestatic java/lang/reflect/Array/newInstance(Ljava/lang/Class;I)Ljava/lang/Object; pop return .end method When I assemble it and run it I get: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.VerifyError: (class: CTest2, method: main signature: ([Ljava/lang/String;)V) Illegal type in constant pool Looking at the disassembled code for both CTest.class (the Java version) and CTest2.class (the Jasmin version) with "javap -c -verbose" they both appear to set up the constant pool the same way: const #2 = class #16; // CTest const #16 = Asciz CTest; 0: ldc_w #2; //class CTest const #14 = Asciz CTest2; const #17 = class #14; // CTest2 0: ldc_w #17; //class CTest2 I've fixed two bugs in Jasmin already, but I can't see what it's doing wrong when putting the class in the constant pool for "ldc_w" it puts classes in the constant pool for other instructions, like "new" and "anewarray" correctly. I've tried looking at the .class files with TraceClassVisitor in ASM, but it doesn't dump the constant pool. Any ideas what I can try next?

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• Replacing/Extending Visual Studio's Generate Stub in Visual Studio 2010

  - by devoured elysium

  When we write the name of a method that doesn't exist, Visual Studio 2010 asks us if we'd like to generate a method stub with that name. What I'd like to know if is it possible to replace that same code stub generating command with one made by myself. I never did any kind of extensibility programming for Visual Studio so I have a couple of questions: How hard is it? Is it something I can learn in a couple of nights, or is it something that'll make me "lose" a lot of time? It seems to me that there isn't a lot of support for that kind of programming, as generally people are not that interested in developing solutions that extend the Visual Studio IDE. I searched on SO and it doesn't appear to have many threads about extending Visual Studio. I don't know how the generate method stub thing works in Visual Studio, but I just wanted to turn it into something a bit more flexible and useful. Has anyone dealt with these kind of things before, that can give me a pointer to where to start? I know of MS VSX site but that has a lot of resources and can be overwhelming for someone new to the subject as I am. What technology will I need to use? T4? Maybe I'll need to know a lot about the code, like Visual Studio does, so I can know other method's type arguments, names, etc. Is that what T4 is for? Thanks

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• iPhone SDK background thread image loading problem

  - by retailevolved

  I have created a grid view that displays six "cells" of content. In each cell, an image is loaded from the web. There are a multiple pages of this grid (the user moves through them by swiping up / down to see the next set of cells). Each cell has its own view controller. When these view controllers load, they use an ImageLoader class that I made to load and display an image. These view controllers implement an ImageLoaderDelegate that has a single method that gets called when the image is finished loading. ImageLoader does its work on a background thread and then simply notifies its delegate when it is done loading, passing the image to the delegate method. Trouble is that if the user moves on to the next page of grid content before the image has finished loading (releasing the GridCellViewControllers that use the ImageLoaders), the app crashes. I suspect that this is because along the line, an asynchronous method finishes and attempts to notify its delegate but can't because it's been released. Here's some code to give a better picture: GridCellViewController.m: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // ImageLoader _loader = [[ProductImageLoader alloc] init]; _loader.delegate = self; if(_boundObject) [_loader loadImageForProduct:_boundObject]; } //ImageLoaderDelegate method - (void) imageDidFinishLoading: (UIImage *)image { [_imgController setImage:image]; } ProductImageLoader.m - (void) loadImageForProduct: (Product *) product { // Get image on another thread [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(getImageForProductInBackground:) toTarget:self withObject:product]; } - (void) getImageForProductInBackground: (Product *) product { NSAutoreleasePool *tempPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; HttpRequestLoader *tempLoader = [[HttpRequestLoader alloc] init]; NSURL *tempUrl = [product getImageUrl]; NSData *imageData = tempUrl ? [tempLoader loadSynchronousDataFromAddress:[tempUrl absoluteString]] : nil; UIImage *image = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:imageData]; [tempPool release]; if(delegate) [delegate imageDidFinishLoading:image]; } The app crashes with EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Disclaimer: The code has been slightly modified to focus on the issue at hand.

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• Is there added overhead to looking up a column in a DataTable by name rather than by index?

  - by Ben McCormack

  In a DataTable object, is there added overhead to looking up a column value by name thisRow("ColumnA") rather than by the column index thisRow(0)? In which scenarios might this be an issue. I work on a team that has lots of experience writing VB6 code and I noticed that didn't do column lookups by name for DataTable objects or data grids. Even in .NET code, we use a set of integer constants to reference column names in these types of objects. I asked our team lead why this was so, and he mentioned that in VB6, there was a lot of overhead in looking up data by column name rather than by index. Is this still true for .NET? Example code (in VB.NET, but same applies to C#): Public Sub TestADOData() Dim dt As New DataTable 'Set up the columns in the DataTable ' dt.Columns.Add(New DataColumn("ID", GetType(Integer))) dt.Columns.Add(New DataColumn("Name", GetType(String))) dt.Columns.Add(New DataColumn("Description", GetType(String))) 'Add some data to the data table ' dt.Rows.Add(1, "Fred", "Pitcher") dt.Rows.Add(3, "Hank", "Center Field") 'Method 1: By Column Name ' For Each r As DataRow In dt.Rows Console.WriteLine( _ "{0,-2} {1,-10} {2,-30}", r("ID"), r("Name"), r("Description")) Next Console.WriteLine() 'Method 2: By Column Name ' For Each r As DataRow In dt.Rows Console.WriteLine("{0,-2} {1,-10} {2,-30}", r(0), r(1), r(2)) Next End Sub Is there an case where method 2 provides a performance advantage over method 1?

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• JQuery-UI Drag, Drop and Re-Drag Clones on Re-Drag

  - by amarcy

  I am using the following code to extend the JQuery-UI demos included with the download. I am trying to set up a container that the user can drag items into and then move the items around within the container. I incorporated the answer from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/867469/jquery-draggable-clone which works with one problem. <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#droppable").droppable({ accept: '.ui-widget-content', drop: function(event, ui) { if($(ui).parent(":not(:has(#id1))")){ $(this).append($(ui.helper).clone().attr("id", "id1")); } $("#id1").draggable({ containment: 'parent', }); } }); $(".ui-widget-content").draggable({helper: 'clone'}); }); </script> div class="demo"> <div id="draggable" class="ui-widget-content"> <p>Drag me around</p> </div> <div id="droppable" class="ui-widget-header"> <p>Drop here</p> </div> When an item is dropped onto the droppable container it can be dragged one time and when it is dropped after that drag it loses its dragging capability. How do I allow for the item to be dragged multiple times after it has been added to the droppable container?

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• (C#) Get index of current foreach iteration

  - by Graphain

  Hi, Is there some rare language construct I haven't encountered (like the few I've learned recently, some on Stack Overflow) in C# to get a value representing the current iteration of a foreach loop? For instance, I currently do something like this depending on the circumstances: int i=0; foreach (Object o in collection) { ... i++; } Answers: @bryansh: I am setting the class of an element in a view page based on the position in the list. I guess I could add a method that gets the CSSClass for the Objects I am iterating through but that almost feels like a violation of the interface of that class. @Brad Wilson: I really like that - I've often thought about something like that when using the ternary operator but never really given it enough thought. As a bit of food for thought it would be nice if you could do something similar to somehow add (generically to all IEnumerable objects) a handle on the enumerator to increment the value that an extension method returns i.e. inject a method into the IEnumerable interface that returns an iterationindex. Of course this would be blatant hacks and witchcraft... Cool though... @crucible: Awesome I totally forgot to check the LINQ methods. Hmm appears to be a terrible library implementation though. I don't see why people are downvoting you though. You'd expect the method to either use some sort of HashTable of indices or even another SQL call, not an O(N) iteration... (@Jonathan Holland yes you are right, expecting SQL was wrong) @Joseph Daigle: The difficulty is that I assume the foreach casting/retrieval is optimised more than my own code would be. @Jonathan Holland: Ah, cheers for explaining how it works and ha at firing someone for using it.

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• C# Taking a element off each time (stack)

  - by Sef

  Greetings, Have a question considering a program that stimulates a stack.(not using any build in stack features or any such) stack2= 1 2 3 4 5 //single dimension array of 5 elements By calling up a method "pop" the stack should look like the following: Basically taking a element off each time the stack is being "called" up again. stack2= 1 2 3 4 0 stack2= 1 2 3 0 0 stack2= 1 2 0 0 0 stack2= 1 0 0 0 0 stack2= 0 0 0 0 0 - for (int i = 1; i <= 6; i++) { number= TryPop(s2); //use number ShowStack(s2, "s2"); } Basically I already have code that fills my array with values (trough a push method). The pop method should basically take the last value and place it on 0. Then calls up the next stack and place the following on 0 (like shown above in stack2). The current pop method that keeps track of the top index (0 elements = 0 top, 1 element = 1 top etc..). Already includes a underflow warning if this goes on 0 or below (which is correct). public int Pop() { if(top <= 0) { throw new Exception("Stack underflow..."); } else { for (int j = tabel.Length - 1; j >= 0; j--) { //...Really not sure what to do here. } } return number; }/*Pop*/ Since in the other class I already have a loop (for loop shown above) that simulates 6 times the s2 stack. (first stack: 1 2 3 4 0, second stack 1 2 3 0 0 and so on.) How exactly do I take a element off each time? Either I have the entire display on 0 or the 0 in the wrong places / out of index errors. Thanks in advance!

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• How to embed multiple jQuery line of code in custom HtmlHelpers ASP.NET MVC

  - by embarus

  I 've tried to create my own HTML Helper which work fine for my need but I can't embed many lines of jQuery code in my extension HtmlHelpers class. I've tried @ literal for jQuery code I doesn't work or I need to escape every line of code that I thing I not good for multiple line of code. I don't know if there is another way to achieve this problem like << Therefore, I need to include jQuery plugin file and put implement script after HTML tag. I find it would be convenience if I could put every in HTML helper and put a single line of code in aspx page for example <%= Html.ParentChildSelectList(string parentName, string childName, IEnumerable parentViewData, IEnumerable childViewData, int parentSize, in childSize) % The following code is the way that I used now. the .aspx page Category model.CategoryID)% , new { size = 10 })% model.SubcategoryID,"subcategory") % model.SubcategoryID)% , new { size = 10 })% <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.sarapadchang.parentChildSelectList( { parentId : "CategoryID" , childId : "SubcategoryID", actionName : "GetSubcategoryList", controllerName : "Json" } ); </script> I put in head tag to include ParentChildSelectList.js the following code for ParentChildSelectList.js (function($) { $.sarapadchang = { parentChildSelectList: function(options) { // $("#CategoryID option").click(function() $("#" + options.parentId).find("option").click(function() { $("#" + options.childId).empty(); //clear data $("#" + options.childId).append('<option>loading...</option>'); $.post("/" + options.controllerName + "/" + options.actionName + "/" + $(this).attr('value'), "", function(data) { var html = ""; $.each(data, function(index, entry) { html += '<option value="' + entry['Value'] + '">' + entry['Text'] + '</option>'; } ); $("#" + options.childId).empty() $("#" + options.childId).append(html); }, "json"); //end getJson }); })(jQuery); To illustrate you, I've attached simple solution, please follow this link. http://www.thaileaguefc.net/ParentChildSelectList.rar Please accept my apologies if my English is difficult to understand. I am looking forward to hearing from you. Your faithfully, Theeranit

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• Codeigniter: Base_url doesn't seem to be working

  - by Dwayne

  I have developed a simple site that fetches tweets from the Twitter public timeline, caches them for 60 seconds and so on. I have recently moved hosts from Hostgator to Mediatemple and my site was previously working fine on Hostgator. My application doesn't use a database connection, nor does it use any form of flat-file database either. Tweets are cached in an XML file stored in the root directory, not that most of that is important. The url helper is being included as can be seen below (this is my helpers line from autoload.php): $autoload['helper'] = array('url'); I have also removed my index.php file from the URL using .htaccess directives and once again this was previously working on Hostgator (see my .htaccess code below): RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(application) - [F,L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule .* index.php/$0 [PT,L] In my home.php view file which is in the views folder inside of application, I am using the function base_url() which was previously working on Hostgator inside of my view files and appending it a base href value in my header: <base href="<?php echo base_url(); ?>" /> Here is what my base_url value looks like in the config.php file: $config['base_url'] = "http://threetune.com/"; Although what appears to be happening is that the base_url is not to be seen at all. It doesn't appear to be echoing out the value of base_url as it appears to be empty for some reason. What makes things weirder is that I have a link in another view file called 'fetch.php' and for some reason it appears to be stripping out the value (XSS filtering is off): <a href="threetune/show"><img src="assets/images/cookie.jpg" /></a> The threetune/show part is not to be seen and I only see an empty href value like this <a href=""><img src="assets/images/cookie.jpg" /></a> Can anyone possibly see anything wrong that I may have done, some kind of Mediatemple server limitation or PHP.ini flag that needs to be set? Thank you and I hope I was descriptive enough.

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• Problem with dropdownbox length

  - by vikitor

  Hello, I'm creating a javascript method that populates lists depending on a radio button selected previously. As it depends on animals or plants to populate it, my problem comes when I have to populate it after it's already been populated. I mean, the plants dropdownlist has 88 elements, and the animals is 888, when I try to come back from animals to plants, I get some of the animals. I know that my controller method is working properly because it returns the values I select, so the problem is the javascript method. Here is the code: if(selector == "sOrder") alert(document.getElementById(selector).options.length); for (i = 0; i < document.getElementById(selector).options.length; i++) { document.getElementById(selector).remove(i); } if (selector == "sOrder") alert(document.getElementById(selector).options.length); document.getElementById(selector).options[0] = new Option("-select-", "0", true, true); for (i = 1; i <= data.length; i++) { document.getElementById(selector).options[i] = new Option(data[i - 1].taxName, data[i - 1].taxRecID);} Here is the strange thing, when I enter the method I try to erase all the elements of the dropdownlist in order to populate it afterwards. As sOrder is the same selector I had previously selected, I get the elements, the thing is that the first alert I get the proper result, 888, but in the second alert, I should get a 0 right? It shows 444, so when I populate it again it just overrides the first 88 plants and then animals till 444. What am I doing wrong? Thank you all in advance, Victor

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