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  • Setting acquired location to a text view: How to maintain?

    - by Mark
    Hi, I have built an app for the Motorola Droid which should automatically update a server with the phone's location. After the user performs a particular task on the main activity screen, an alarm is set to update the user's location periodically, using a service. The alarm is explicitly stopped when the user completes another task. Thing is, I have set up a location manager within the main activity's onCreate() method which is supposed to place the first acquired lat/long into two textview fields. Even though the manifest is set up for acquiring coarse and fine coords and I'm using requestLocationUpdates (String provider, long minTime, float minDistance, LocationListener listener), with minTime and minDistance set to zero, I'm not seeing the coords coming up on the screen. With that, I'm not recording any locations on the server. When I seed the textviews with sample coords, they are being recorded fine on the server. I am not at a computer that can run the IDE, so don't currently have the code, but am desperate for some help on this. One other thing is that the main activity screen calls a photography app before the user manually clicks "send data". I'm suspicious that I may need to override the main activity's onResume() method to do this location acquisition. Please help, thanks. Mark.

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  • question about jQuery droppable/draggable.

    - by FALCONSEYE
    I modified a sample photo manager application. photo manager application Instead of photos, I have employee records coming from a query. My version will let managers mark employees as on vacation, or at work. One of the things I did is to include employee ids like <a href="123">. I get the ids from event.target. This works for the click function but not for the "droppable" function. This is what I have for the click function: $('ul.gallery > li').click(function(ev) { var $item = $(this); var $unid = ev.target; var $target = $(ev.target); if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-suitcase')) { deleteImage($item,$unid); } else if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-arrowreturnthick-1-w')) { recycleImage($item,$unid); } return false; }); ev.target correctly gives the employee id. when i try the same in one of the droppable functions: $gallery.droppable({ accept: '#suitcase li', activeClass: 'custom-state-active', drop: function(ev, ui) { var $unid = ev.target; alert($unid); recycleImage(ui.draggable,$unid); } }); the alert(ui) gives me [object]. What's in this object? How do i get the href out of this? thanks

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  • How to wait until location is completely found? (Core Location)

    - by sudo rm -rf
    Hello. I have a problem within my app. I'm trying to find the user's location to the best preciseness in order to determine their zip-code. Currently I have a button that, when pressed, starts a method named locateMe. -(IBAction)locateMe; { self.locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; locationManager.delegate = self; locationManager.desiredAccuracy = kCLLocationAccuracyBest; [locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; Then I've implemented didUpdateToLocation: -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation; { NSLog(@"Found location! %f,%f",newLocation.coordinate.latitude,newLocation.coordinate.longitude); } I had previously done much more complicated stuff in didUpdateToLocation but as I tested some things I realized that the first location it found was not precise in the least. So, I put the NSLog call in there and it gave me an output similar to below... Found location! 39.594093,-98.614834 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 As you can see, it first gives me a value which is not correct, which was causing problems within my app because it wasn't giving the correct location. So, here's my question. Is there any way I can wait for the location manager to finish finding the most precise location? Thanks in advance! EDIT: I'm wanting something like this: if (newLocation.horizontalAccuracy <= locationManager.desiredAccuracy) { } But it never gets called!

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  • How do I build a class that shares a table with multiple columns in MVC3?

    - by Barrett Kuethen
    I have a Job table public class Job { public int JobId { get; set; } public int SalesManagerId { get; set; } public int SalesRepId { get; set; } } and a Person table public class Person { public int PersonId { get; set; } public int FirstName { get; set; } public int LastName { get; set; } } My question is, how do I link the SalesManagerId to the Person (or PersonId) as well as the SalesRepId to the Person (PersonId)? The Sales Manager and Sales Rep are independent of each other. I just don't want to make 2 different lists to support the Sales Manager and Sales Rep roles. I'm new to MVC3, but it seems public virtual Person Person {get; set; } would be the way to go, but that doesn't work. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks!

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  • How to write a flexible modular program with good interaction possibilities between modules?

    - by PeterK
    I went through answers on similar topics here on SO but could't find a satisfying answer. Since i know this is a rather large topic, i will try to be more specific. I want to write a program which processes files. The processing is nontrivial, so the best way is to split different phases into standalone modules which then would be used as necessary (since sometimes i will be only interested in the output of module A, sometimes i would need output of five other modules, etc). The thing is, that i need the modules to cooperate, because the output of one might be the input of another. And i need it to be FAST. Moreover i want to avoid doing certain processing more than once (if module A creates some data which then need to be processed by module B and C, i don't want to run module A twice to create the input for modules B,C ). The information the modules need to share would mostly be blocks of binary data and/or offsets into the processed files. The task of the main program would be quite simple - just parse arguments, run required modules (and perhaps give some output, or should this be the task of the modules?). I don't need the modules to be loaded at runtime. It's perfectly fine to have libs with a .h file and recompile the program every time there is a new module or some module is updated. The idea of modules is here mainly because of code readability, maintaining and to be able to have more people working on different modules without the need to have some predefined interface or whatever (on the other hand, some "guidelines" on how to write the modules would be probably required, i know that). We can assume that the file processing is a read-only operation, the original file is not changed. Could someone point me in a good direction on how to do this in C++ ? Any advice is wellcome (links, tutorials, pdf books...).

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  • When to drop an IT job

    - by Nippysaurus
    In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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  • Processing more than one button click at Android Widget

    - by dive
    Hi, all. I saw this topic and implement IntentService as describes, but what if I want more that one button? How can I distinguish button from each other? I'm trying to setFlags, but cannot read it at onHandleIntent() method: public static class UpdateService extends IntentService { ... @Override public void onHandleIntent(Intent intent) { ComponentName me = new ComponentName(this, ExampleProvider.class); AppWidgetManager manager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(this); manager.updateAppWidget(me, buildUpdate(this)); } private RemoteViews buildUpdate(Context context) { RemoteViews updateViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.main_layout); Intent i = new Intent(this, ExampleProvider.class); PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, i, 0); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button_refresh, pi); i = new Intent(this, ExampleProvider.class); pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, i, 0); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button_about, pi); return updateViews; } } At this little piece of code I have two PendingIntent linked with setOnClickPendingIntent, can I distinguish this intent for different actions and processing? Thanks for help

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  • Error copying file from app bundle

    - by Michael Chen
    I used the FireFox add-on SQLite Manager, created a database, which saved to my desktop as "DB.sqlite". I copied the file into my supporting files for the project. But when I run the app, immediately I get the error "Assertion failure in -[AppDelegate copyDatabaseIfNeeded], /Users/Mac/Desktop/Note/Note/AppDelegate.m:32 2014-08-19 23:38:02.830 Note[28309:60b] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Failed to create writable database file with message 'The operation couldn’t be completed. (Cocoa error 4.)'.' First throw call stack: "... Here is the App Delegate Code where the error takes place -(void) copyDatabaseIfNeeded { NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSError *error; NSString *dbPath = [self getDBPath]; BOOL success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:dbPath]; if (!success) { NSString *defaultDBPath = [[ [NSBundle mainBundle ] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"DB.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager copyItemAtPath:defaultDBPath toPath:dbPath error:&error]; if (!success) NSAssert1(0, @"Failed to create writable database file with message '%@'.", [error localizedDescription]); } } I am very new to Sqlite, so I maybe I didn't create a database correctly in the FireFox Sqlite manager, or maybe I didn't "properly" copy the .sqlite file in? (I did check the target membership in the sqlite and it correctly has my project selected. Also, the .sqlite file names all match up perfectly.)

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  • Alternative to using c:out to prevent XSS

    - by lynxforest
    I'm working on preventing cross site scripting (XSS) in a Java, Spring based, Web application. I have already implemented a servlet filter similar to this example http://greatwebguy.com/programming/java/simple-cross-site-scripting-xss-servlet-filter/ which sanitizes all the input into the application. As an extra security measure I would like to also sanitize all output of the application in all JSPs. I have done some research to see how this could be done and found two complementary options. One of them is the use of Spring's defaultHtmlEscape attribute. This was very easy to implement (a few lines in web.xml), and it works great when your output is going through one of spring's tags (ie: message, or form tags). The other option I have found is to not directly use EL expressions such as ${...} and instead use <c:out value="${...}" /> That second approach works perfectly, however due to the size of the application I am working on (200+ JSP files). It is a very cumbersome task to have to replace all inappropriate uses of EL expressions with the c:out tag. Also it would become a cumbersome task in the future to make sure all developers stick to this convention of using the c:out tag (not to mention, how much more unreadable the code would be). Is there alternative way to escape the output of EL expressions that would require fewer code modifications? Thank you in advance.

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  • Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

    - by user340202
    Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

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  • How can I send rich emails using the user's mail client ?

    - by Brann
    I need my .net program to send rich emails (usually containing table data, around 20 columns x 10 rows) using the user's mail infrastructure, allowing him to review/edit the mail before sending it, and storing the mail in his 'sent items' folder. mailto: seems the obvious choice, but unfortunately, it doesn't support neither attachments nor html bodies. It seems some clients support some extra features (e.g. Outlook 97 used to support a &Attach tag, but this is not the case for more recent versions). I could use mailto and try to format the text body to look nice (using tabs, etc), but this isn't really elegant and wouldn't support huge data. using automation seems a very huge task, as I would need to automate dozens of clients (4 or 5 versions of outlook, lotusnotes, thunderbid, etc.) ... This would be a huge task and it's not really my core business ... I could send emails through code and write my own mail form to let the user edit the mail, but this would have a lot of drawbacks : the user would need to manually configure the mail server settings he wouldn't have access to his contact directory the mail wouldn't be sent in his sent items folder This seems a quite common issue, but I haven't found any satisfying solution yet ; does someone knows of a library supporting this (ie containing automation logic for most mainstream email clients?). Or an alternative to mailto ?

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  • one two-directed tcp socket OR two one-directed? (linux, high volume, low latency)

    - by osgx
    Hello I need to send (interchange) a high volume of data periodically with the lowest possible latency between 2 machines. The network is rather fast (e.g. 1Gbit or even 2G+). Os is linux. Is it be faster with using 1 tcp socket (for send and recv) or with using 2 uni-directed tcp sockets? The test for this task is very like NetPIPE network benchmark - measure latency and bandwidth for sizes from 2^1 up to 2^13 bytes, each size sent and received 3 times at least (in teal task the number of sends is greater. both processes will be sending and receiving, like ping-pong maybe). The benefit of 2 uni-directed connections come from linux: http://lxr.linux.no/linux+v2.6.18/net/ipv4/tcp_input.c#L3847 3847/* 3848 * TCP receive function for the ESTABLISHED state. 3849 * 3850 * It is split into a fast path and a slow path. The fast path is 3851 * disabled when: ... 3859 * - Data is sent in both directions. Fast path only supports pure senders 3860 * or pure receivers (this means either the sequence number or the ack 3861 * value must stay constant) ... 3863 * 3864 * When these conditions are not satisfied it drops into a standard 3865 * receive procedure patterned after RFC793 to handle all cases. 3866 * The first three cases are guaranteed by proper pred_flags setting, 3867 * the rest is checked inline. Fast processing is turned on in 3868 * tcp_data_queue when everything is OK. All other conditions for disabling fast path is false. And only not-unidirected socket stops kernel from fastpath in receive

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  • How to specify MQ channel table location for .net web application using web.config

    - by Matt
    I've been going around in circles for a while on this one now. I'm trying to connect to a distributed queue manager using a supplied channel table file. I can get this to work if I specify the environmental variable MQCHLLIB and MQCHLTAB on my server. However the IBM documentation states that the .net config file can override these variables. Here is what I have placed in my web.config file: ... <configSections> <section name="CHANNELS" type="System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler" /> </configSections> <CHANNELS> <add key="ChannelDefinitionDirectory" value="C:\temp"></add> <add key="ChannelDefinitionFile" value="DSM_MOM_TEST.tab"></add> </CHANNELS> ... And here is the code that is executing: Hashtable properties = new Hashtable(); //Add managed connection type to parameters. const String connectionType = MQC.TRANSPORT_MQSERIES_CLIENT; properties.Add(MQC.TRANSPORT_PROPERTY, connectionType); return new MQQueueManager(queueManagerName, properties); queueManagerName is set to the generic queue manager "*Q101T". However this isn't working and I get an error returned: 2058 MQRC_Q_MGR_NAME_ERROR I've been unable to find any more documentation on how to get this to work other than the environmental variables and the standard mqclient.ini should be overriden by the channels stanza in the web.config. Is there something that I've missed in the code? Any tips would be greatly appreciated.

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  • one two-directed tcp socket of two one-directed? (linux, high volume, low latency)

    - by osgx
    Hello I need to send (interchange) a high volume of data periodically with the lowest possible latency between 2 machines. The network is rather fast (e.g. 1Gbit or even 2G+). Os is linux. Is it be faster with using 1 tcp socket (for send and recv) or with using 2 uni-directed tcp sockets? The test for this task is very like NetPIPE network benchmark - measure latency and bandwidth for sizes from 2^1 up to 2^13 bytes, each size sent and received 3 times at least (in teal task the number of sends is greater. both processes will be sending and receiving, like ping-pong maybe). The benefit of 2 uni-directed connections come from linux: http://lxr.linux.no/linux+v2.6.18/net/ipv4/tcp_input.c#L3847 3847/* 3848 * TCP receive function for the ESTABLISHED state. 3849 * 3850 * It is split into a fast path and a slow path. The fast path is 3851 * disabled when: ... 3859 * - Data is sent in both directions. Fast path only supports pure senders 3860 * or pure receivers (this means either the sequence number or the ack 3861 * value must stay constant) ... 3863 * 3864 * When these conditions are not satisfied it drops into a standard 3865 * receive procedure patterned after RFC793 to handle all cases. 3866 * The first three cases are guaranteed by proper pred_flags setting, 3867 * the rest is checked inline. Fast processing is turned on in 3868 * tcp_data_queue when everything is OK. All other conditions for disabling fast path is false. And only not-unidirected socket stops kernel from fastpath in receive

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  • How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

    - by theog
    I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

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  • Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

    - by Leonardo
    Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

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  • I am not able to kill a child process using TerminateProcess

    - by user1681210
    I have a problem to kill a child process using TerminateProcess. I call to this function and the process still there (in the Task Manager) This piece of code is called many times launching the same program.exe many times and these process are there in the task manager which i think is not good. sorry, I am quiet new in c++ I will really appreciate any help. thanks a lot!! the code is the following: STARTUPINFO childProcStartupInfo; memset( &childProcStartupInfo, 0, sizeof(childProcStartupInfo)); childProcStartupInfo.cb = sizeof(childProcStartupInfo); childProcStartupInfo.hStdInput = hFromParent; // stdin childProcStartupInfo.hStdOutput = hToParent; // stdout childProcStartupInfo.hStdError = hToParentDup; // stderr childProcStartupInfo.dwFlags = STARTF_USESTDHANDLES | STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW; childProcStartupInfo.wShowWindow = SW_HIDE; PROCESS_INFORMATION childProcInfo; /* for CreateProcess call */ bOk = CreateProcess( NULL, // filename pCmdLine, // full command line for child NULL, // process security descriptor */ NULL, // thread security descriptor */ TRUE, // inherit handles? Also use if STARTF_USESTDHANDLES */ 0, // creation flags */ NULL, // inherited environment address */ NULL, // startup dir; NULL = start in current */ &childProcStartupInfo, // pointer to startup info (input) */ &childProcInfo); // pointer to process info (output) */ CloseHandle( hFromParent ); CloseHandle( hToParent ); CloseHandle( hToParentDup ); CloseHandle( childProcInfo.hThread); CloseHandle( childProcInfo.hProcess); TerminateProcess( childProcInfo.hProcess ,0); //this is not working, the process thanks

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  • How do you program a windows service in C# to start an application for a user?

    - by Swoop
    Is it possible to start a program so that it is available to a user with a windows service? I have been working with the Process.Start() in C#. I can get the service to kickoff some sort of process that appears in the Task Manager list under processes. However, the program nevers appears on the screen. By default, it runs under the user name "SYSTEM". I have adjusted the "Log On" option in the service manager to match the person logged into the computer, but this does not cause a window to appear either. I feel like I am either missing a simple setting, or need to take a different direction for this. Below is the code I have been working with to start up Firefox as a test app. private void startRunDap() { ProcessStartInfo startInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); startInfo.FileName = "Firefox"; startInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Normal; startInfo.UseShellExecute = true; Process.Start(startInfo); //Process.Start("Firefox"); }

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  • Java: design for using many executors services and only few threads

    - by Guillaume
    I need to run in parallel multiple threads to perform some tests. My 'test engine' will have n tests to perform, each one doing k sub-tests. Each test result is stored for a later usage. So I have n*k processes that can be ran concurrently. I'm trying to figure how to use the java concurrent tools efficiently. Right now I have an executor service at test level and n executor service at sub test level. I create my list of Callables for the test level. Each test callable will then create another list of callables for the subtest level. When invoked a test callable will subsequently invoke all subtest callables test 1 subtest a1 subtest ...1 subtest k1 test n subtest a2 subtest ...2 subtest k2 call sequence: test manager create test 1 callable test1 callable create subtest a1 to k1 testn callable create subtest an to kn test manager invoke all test callables test1 callable invoke all subtest a1 to k1 testn callable invoke all subtest an to kn This is working fine, but I have a lot of new treads that are created. I can not share executor service since I need to call 'shutdown' on the executors. My idea to fix this problem is to provide the same fixed size thread pool to each executor service. Do you think it is a good design ? Do I miss something more appropriate/simple for doing this ?

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  • YQL + PHP : how to make a facebook login

    - by Jonathan
    Hi! I was reading some stuff about the YQL api that Yahoo! has provided, I am not sure, but it appears to be a collection of lots of third party api into one common language, right? what I don't get is how to make the facebook login through it so I can get the user profile data... My project is to add a facebook(and other social networks) form login, because the website won't have his own login, people will have to use a social network to link in. Then I thought the YQL would help me out with this task so I wouldn't have to develop lots of functions to each one of the networks. Reading this http://developer.yahoo.com/yql/guide/yql-code-examples.html#sdk_yql, I understood how to make a Yahoo login so I can access some private data, but couldn't find how I could do it with facebook and others So my question... Can YQL help me with this? Can you give me a simple example of a facebook session using it within PHP? Are there alternatives to aid me in this task? thanks, Jonathan

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  • High precision event timer

    - by rahul jv
    #include "target.h" #include "xcp.h" #include "LocatedVars.h" #include "osek.h" /** * This task is activated every 10ms. */ long OSTICKDURATION; TASK( Task10ms ) { void XCP_FN_TYPE Xcp_CmdProcessor( void ); uint32 startTime = GetQueryPerformanceCounter(); /* Trigger DAQ for the 10ms XCP raster. */ if( XCPEVENT_DAQ_OVERLOAD & Xcp_DoDaqForEvent_10msRstr() ) { ++numDaqOverload10ms; } /* Update those variables which are modified every 10ms. */ counter16 += slope16; /* Trigger STIM for the 10ms XCP raster. */ if( enableBypass10ms ) { if( XCPEVENT_MISSING_DTO & Xcp_DoStimForEvent_10msRstr() ) { ++numMissingDto10ms; } } duration10ms = (uint32)( ( GetQueryPerformanceCounter() - startTime ) / STOPWATCH_TICKS_PER_US ); } What would be the easiest (and/or best) way to synchronise to some accurate clock to call a function at a specific time interval, with little jitter during normal circumstances, from C++? I am working on WINDOWS operating system now. The above code is for RTAS OSEK but I want to call a function at a specific time interval for windows operating system. Could anyone assist me in c++ language ??

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  • MSBuild: automate collecting of db migration scripts?

    - by P Dub
    Summary of environment. Asp.net web application (source stored in svn) sqlserver database. (Database schema (tables/sprocs) stored in svn) db version is synced with web application assembly version. (stored in table 'CurrentVersion') CI hudson server that checks out web app from repo and runs custom msbuild file to publish/package app. My msbuild script updates the assembly version of the web app (Major.Minor.Revision.Build) on each build. The 'Revision' is set to the currently checked out svn revision and the 'Build' to the hudson build number (incremented on each automated build). This way i can match the app to a specific trunk revision also get other build stats from the hudson build number. I'd like to automate the collecting of migration scripts (updated sprocs etc) to add to the zip package. I guess by comparing the svn revision of the db that has yet to be deployed to, to the revision being deployed, i can find what db files have changed in the trunk since the last deployment to that database/environment. This could easily be achieved by manually calling the svn diff -r REVNO:REVNO command to list changed .sql files. These files could then manually have to be added to the package. It would be great if this could be automated. Firstly i'd imagine I'll have to write a custom task to check the version of the db that has yet to be deployed to. After that I'm quite unsure. Does anyone have any suggestion on how this would be achieved through an msbuild task either existing or custom? Finally I'll have to autogen a script to add to the package that updates the database version table so as to be in sync with the application.

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  • Running Different Modules on Tomcat/Server

    - by umesh awasthi
    Hi All, I have started working on my own project idea but on the starting i have strucked in the structure decision may be lack of knowledge is the promary factor. i am wondering how we can make 2 different modules to co-operate on the server.Here is is explanation of what i am trying to ask as per my design i need 2 modules for my application 1. Back end handling where i can do all content handling as well as other admin task a console which will be capable of handling everything from ceating importing contents to everything. 2 USer end which is only an interface to the end user to use the application. to visualize the things its kinda e-commerce application one is back office management and other is user end of web-shop. since these two module will be very much interlinked but i don't want them to mix up i want them to develop independently since admin is one which is core and it will also going to serve user interface. my question is how i can develop two module independently but on the other hand i want them to co-operate to accomplish the task as a whole. Really sorry in advance if i am not making any sense. Thanks in advance

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  • How do i set the Transaction Isolation in EJB?

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I am not able to find a way to set TransactionIsolation in ejb. Can anybody tell me how do i set it? I am using persistence. I have looked the following classes : EntityManager , EntityManagerFactory, UserTransaction. None of them seems to have any method like setTransactionIsolation or such. Do we need to change persistence.xml? I just read a book named Mastering EJB 3.0 4th edition. They gave a full 10 page theory about Isolation level that this problems occur and that occurs and such things but at the end they gave this paragraph :- "As we now know, the EJB standard does not deal with isolation levels directly, and rightly so. EJB is a component specification. It defines the behavior and contracts of a business component with clients and middleware infrastructure (containers) such that the component can be rendered as various middleware services properly. EJBs therefore are transactional components that interact with resource managers, such as the JDBC resource manager or JMS resource manager, via JTS, as part of a transaction. They are not, hence, resource components in themselves. Since isolation levels are very specific to the behavior and capabilities of the underlying resources, they should therefore be specified at the resource API levels. " What exactly does it mean? What is meant by resource level APIs? Please help me. If persistence has no way to set Isolation Level then why do they give such huge theory in an EJB book and make it heavy in weight unnecessarily :(

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  • What is the best way to find a processed memory allocations in terms of C# objects

    - by Shantaram
    I have written various C# console based applications, some of them long running some not, which can over time have a large memory foot print. When looking at the windows perofrmance monitor via the task manager, the same question keeps cropping up in my mind; how do I get a break down of the number objects by type that are contributing to this footprint; and which of those are f-reachable and those which aren't and hence can be collected. On numerous occasions I've performed a code inspection to ensure that I am not unnecessarily holding on objects longer than required and disposing of objects with the using construct. I have also recently looked at employing the CG.Collect method when I have released a large number of objects (for example held in a collection which has just been cleared). However, I am not so sure that this made that much difference, so I threw that code away. I am guessing that there are tools in sysinternals suite than can help to resolve these memory type quiestions but I am not sure which and how to use them. The alternative would be to pay for a third party profiling tool such as JetBrains dotTrace; but I need to make sure that I've explored the free options first before going cap in hand to my manager.

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