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• JPEG artifacts removal in C#

  - by Arcturus

  Hi all I am building a website for a club that is part of a mother organisation. I am downloading (leeching ;) ) the images that where put on profile pages of the mother organisation to show on my own page. But their website has a nice white background, and my website has a nice gray gradient on the background. This does not match nicely. So my idea was to edit the images before saving them to my server. I am using GDI+ to enhance my images, and when I use the method MakeTransparent of Bitmap, it does work, and it does do what its supposed to do, but I still have these white jpeg artifacts all over the place. The artifacts makes the image so bad, I am better off not making the image transparent and just leaving it white, but thats really ugly on my own website. I can always at a nice border with a white background of course, but I rather change the background to transparent. So I was wondering if and how I can remove some simple JPEG artifacts in C#. Has anyone ever done this before? Thanks for your time. Example image: Transformed image:

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• Google App Engine on Google Apps Domain

  - by Bob Ralian

  I'm having trouble getting my domain pointed to my website hosted with google app engine. Here's the background... take care to separate the concepts of "google apps" (domain hosting, email, etc.) and "google app engine" (website framework). I have a domain that's using Google Apps for Your Domain, let's call it company.com. So my login for my google apps account is [email protected]. I have a different domain that is aliased back to my google apps account, let's call it mycompany.com. It's been successfully aliased and registered with my primary google apps account using the cname method, and has updated mx records. We have a ton of domains, and I only want to use one "google apps" account to maintain them all. Now I have a website I've built using google app engine, and the url is effectively mycompany.appspot.com. I want to get mycompany.com to point to my website that currently resides at mycompany.appspot.com. There's a spot in the google app engine dashboard under application settings where you can add a domain. So I click there and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying that domain is not using google apps. If I back up to the page I submitted, there's a note saying I need to register the domain with google apps. So I click the link to do that and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying the domain has been registered and is in the process of ownership verification. But that process is already finished. So... what do I do? Does google app engine not support a domain that is only aliased to a primary google apps account? Does mycompany.com need to have its own primary google apps account?

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• ASPX FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage function is not working anymore

  - by Mike Webb

  Here is my issue. I have an ASPX web site and I have code in there to redirect from the login page with the call to "FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(username, false);" This sends the user from the root website folder to 'website/Admin/'. I have a 'default.aspx' page in 'website/Admin/' and the call to redirect works on a previous version of the website we have running currently, but the one that I am updating on a separate test server is not working. It gives me the error "Directory Listing Denied. This Virtual Directory does not allow contents to be listed." I have this in the config file: <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> under the "authentication" option and... <location path="Admin"> <system.web> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> for the location of Admin. Also, there is no difference in the code between the web.config, Login.aspx, or the default.aspx files on the current server and the one on the test server, so I am confused as to why the redirect will not work on both. It even works in the Visual Studio server environment, for which the code is also identical. Any suggestions and help is appreciated.

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• Diffie-Hellman in Silverlight

  - by cmaduro

  I am trying to devise a security scheme for encrypting the application level data between a silverlight client, and a php webservice that I created. Since I am dealing with a public website the information I am pulling from the service is public, but the information I'm submitting to the webservice is not public. There is also a back end to the website for administration, so naturally all application data being pushed and pulled from the webservice to the silverlight administration back end must also be encrypted. Silverlight does not support asymmetric encryption, which would work for the public website. Symmetric encryption would only work on the back end because users do not log in to the public website, so no password based keys could be derived. Still symmetric encryption would be great, but I cannot securely save the private key in the silverlight client. Because it would either have to be hardcoded or read from some kind of config file. None of that is considered secure. So... plan B. My final alternative would be then to implement the Diffie-Hellman algorithm, which supports symmetric encryption by means of key agreement. However Diffie-Hellman is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks. In other words, there is no guarantee that either side is sure of each others identity, making it possible for communication to be intercepted and altered without the receiving party knowing about it. It is thus recommended to use a private shared key to encrypt the key agreement handshaking, so that the identity of either party is confirmed. This brings me back to my initial problem that resulted in me needing to use Diffie-Hellman, how can I use a private key in a silverlight client without hardcoding it either in the code or an xml file. I'm all out of love on this one... is there any answer to this?

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• Adapting existing HTML/Javascript model to Titanium's latest release (v 0.9)

  - by Alan Neal

  In pre-0.9 versions of Titanium, one could simply specify an .html file (local or remote) in the tiapp.xml file and interact with it in the same manner as one would on a website. As of version 0.9, that is no the longer case. One creates their entire app dynamically. Unfortunately, this broke my previous implementation and, other than an updated Kitchen Sink, much of the new model and API calls are not covered in the documentation (e.g., createLabel). So, my question is this... What are the simplest steps for re-creating the previous effect (knowingly forgoing some of the advantages of the Titanium's latest approach if necessary)? My previous implementation was exactly as it functions on the website. The website has a single index.html file with no content other than links to JavaScript and style files. The document body's onload event called the first JavaScript function (located in the main script) and, from that point forth, the entire content was dynamically created. How can I set up the latest version of Titanium so that I am poised to do the exact same thing? BTW: Whereas I previously had the choice to keep the files local or remote, I don't believe that remote access (e.g., simply using the webView widget to point to the website) is viable. That's because pages displayed via the webView do not have access to most of the API. Since the iPhone and Safari browsers do not support the file input type, the only means for uploading files (something my app requires) is calling Titanium's function. Thanks in advance.

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• Maintaining session information between 2 asp.net calls programmatically?

  - by Santhosh

  Hi, I'm not sure if I'll be clear enough in my explaination to make you guys understand, but I'll try. Here's my problem: We have an external site which the users in our company connect to by giving their corresponding username and password. The external site is an ASP.NET website. We want to integrate this website into our intranet portal so that the users don't have to enter their UN/Pwd to login to the website. Since the target website has no provision for SSO, we are simulating the POST request to login. So far so good. We are now required to perform an action after the initial login is done, on an another page. We can simulate the corresponding POST request as well. But the problem is since we are not maintaining any session information in our initial POST request, it always redirects to the login screen! Is there any way to maintain ASP.NET session information between multiple calls done programmatically? Can we create an ASP.NET session id cookie programmatically and then pass it along with our initial request? Or this is not possible at all? Any comments are appreciated. Thanks for your help. Regards.

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• Guacamole on KVM

  - by Siem Hermans

  I currently run a deployment where I provide virtual machines to circa 25 users through ESXi over the VMWare WSX web portal. This works, no doubt about it, it is fast, stable and reliable enough for the end users. However I stumbled across the Guacamole project (Link: http://guac-dev.org/) and the KVM project (Link: http://www.linux-kvm.org/). I must say I am no genius when it comes to Linux but I am interested in replacing the ESXi and WSX combination with a Guacamole and KVM deployment. I have seen people across the internet use ESXi in combination with Guacamole (mostly prior to the release of WSX), but I have yet to see someone use it in conjunction with KVM. Considering my amount of knowledge on Linux in general I would like to ask: Is it possible at all to combine the two?

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• one page has more than one url. search engines give penalty please help me out.

  - by Ali Demirtas

  Hi I am using prestashop as the cart for my website. I have a problem; the website used to be in dynamic urls. I enabled friendly url writing. The problem is that one page has more than one url. You can access a same page from the dynamic url and static url. In fact a single page has 9 different urls. This obviously creates problems for seo as search engiones penalize my website for this. What can I do to solve this problem? I have no knowledge of programming. Here is the htaccess for the website. Any sample code or help is really appreciated. URL rewriting module activation RewriteEngine on URL rewriting rules RewriteRule ^([a-z0-9]+)-([a-z0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2$3.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([0-9]+)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]).jpg$ /img/c/$1$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$3&isolang=$1$5 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$2&isolang=$1$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$2&isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$1$3 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^content/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /cms.php?id_cms=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)__([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /supplier.php?id_supplier=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)_([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /manufacturer.php?id_manufacturer=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/(.*)$ /$2?isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] Catch 404 errors ErrorDocument 404 /404.php Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.)$ http://www.*.com/$1 [L,R=301] Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on index.php to / RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]{3,9}\ /.index.php\ HTTP/ RewriteRule ^(.)index.php$ /$1 [R=301,L] Header set Cache-Control: "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0"

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• Not able to save Global navigation - SharePoint 2007

  - by Ryan

  I have migrated my sitecollection(migsitecollection) to different farm using content deployment job. http://vsmoss/sites/migsitecollection I used collaboration portal to create it.Its working fine from where I migrated it but after running content deployment jobs my new migrated site global navigation settings are not getting saved when I am trying ot change them by going in settings-Navigation and in logs I can see this error The SPNavigation store is likely corrupt. I saw on net the solution for this problem is changing onet.xml and running script on sql database for the site, I am eager to better answer than this but if its the same I have few doubts on it: First,As my site template is not customised its the collobartion portal so I am not sure where exactly to change the onet.xml. Second, I am using the same database as of my webapplication running that script would not affect anything else on the main site of mine?

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• Run Rails 3 app on a Rails 2 server/machine?

  - by chucknelson

  I'm trying to run a Rail 3 (3.0.10) app on a shared joyent smartmachine server (I don't have root access) which has Rails 2 (2.3.11) installed , and I'm not sure what to do after I freeze my Rails 3 app with bundle install --deployment. It seems like with the Rails 3 and bundler gems not being installed on the server locally, my app isn't even recognizing the local version of Rails I have frozen with my app. Has anyone gotten this to work, or have any advice? The server runs Apache, and I think I can get lighttpd installed too - but I'd rather stay with Apache if I can. Also, if it matters, Passenger is not an installed gem either...and I'm not sure I can freeze that with my app. Update 11/30/2011 12:30 PM EST Bundler is not installed on this server, either. Not sure if having that would enable the new Rails 3 "freeze" (bundle --deployment) to work or not...

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• I want to install an MSI twice

  - by don.vince

  I have a peculiar wish to install an msi twice on a machine. The purpose of the double install is to first install under the pre-production folder, run the deployment in a safe environment prior to deploying in the production folder. We typically use separate machines to represent these different environments however in this case I need to use the same box. The two scenarios I get are as follows: I've installed pre-production, I'm happy, I want to install production, I run the msi, it asks whether I want to repair or remove the installation I've production installed, I want to install the new version of the msi, it tells me I already have a version of the product installed and I must first un-install the current version The first scenario isn't too bad as we can at that point sensibly un-install and re-install under the production folder, but the second scenario is a pain as we don't want to un-install the live production deployment. Is there a setting I can give to msiexec that will allow this? Is there a more suitable different approach I could use?

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• A few questions about a Rails model for a simple addressbook app

  - by user284194

  I have a Rails application that lists information about local services. My objectives for this model are as follows: 1. Require the name and tag_list fields. 2. Require one or more of the tollfreephone, phone, phone2, mobile, fax, email or website fields. 3. If the paddress field has a value, then encode it with the Geokit plugin. Here is my entry.rb model: class Entry < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :name, :tag_list validates_presence_of :tollfreephone or :phone or :phone2 or :mobile or :fax or :email or :website acts_as_taggable_on :tags acts_as_mappable :auto_geocode=>{:field=>:paddress, :error_message=>'Could not geocode physical address'} before_save :geocode_paddress validate :required_info def required_info unless phone or phone2 or tollfreephone or mobile or fax or email or website errors.add_to_base "Please have at least one form of contact information." end end private def geocode_paddress #if paddress_changed? geo=Geokit::Geocoders::MultiGeocoder.geocode (paddress) errors.add(:paddress, "Could not Geocode address") if ! geo.success self.lat, self.lng = geo.lat,geo.lng if geo.success #end end end Requiring name and tag_list work, but requiring one (or more) of the tollfreephone, phone, phone2, mobile, fax, email or website fields does not. As for encoding with Geokit, in order to save a record with the model I have to enter an address. Which is not the behavior I want. I would like it to not require the paddress field, but if the paddress field does have a value, it should encode the geocode. As it stands, it always tries to geocode the incoming entry. The commented out "if paddress_changed?" was not working and I could not find something like "if paddress_exists?" that would work. Help with any of these issues would be greatly appreciated. I posted three questions pertaining to my model because I'm not sure if they are preventing each other from working. Thank you for reading my questions.

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• How Search Engine Bots Crawl Forums?

  - by Waleed Eissa

  If I have a forums site with a large number of threads, will the search engine bot crawl the whole site every time? Say I have over 1,000,000 threads in my site, will they get crawled every time the bot crawls my site? or how does it work? I want my website to be indexed but I don't want the bot to kill my website! In other words I don't want the bot to keep crawling the old threads again and again every time it crawls my website. Also, what about the pages crawled before? Will the bot request them every time it crawls my website to make sure they are still on the site? I'm asking this because I only link to the latest threads, i.e. there's a page that contains a list of all the latest threads, but I don't link to the older threads, they have to be explicitly requested by URL, e.g. http://www.mysite.com/showthread.aspx?threadid=7 , will this work to stop the bot from bringing my site down and consuming all my bandwidth? P.S. The site is still under development but I want to know in order to design the site so that search engine bots don't bring it down. Thanks

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• How do I add a default namespace with no prefix using XMLSerializer

  - by OldBob

  Hi Using C# and .Net 3.5; I am trying to generate an XML document that contains the default namespace without a prefix using XMLSerializer. eg. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <MyRecord ID="9266" xmlns="http://www.website.com/MyRecord"> <List> <SpecificItem> using the following code string xmlizedString = null; MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(ExportMyRecord)); XmlSerializerNamespaces xmlnsEmpty = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); xmlnsEmpty.Add(string.Empty, string.Empty); XmlTextWriter xmlTextWriter = new XmlTextWriter(memoryStream, Encoding.UTF8); xs.Serialize(xmlTextWriter, myRecord, xmlnsEmpty); memoryStream = (MemoryStream)xmlTextWriter.BaseStream; xmlizedString = this.UTF8ByteArrayToString(memoryStream.ToArray()); and class structure [Serializable] [XmlRoot("MyRecord")] public class ExportMyRecord { [XmlAttribute("ID")] public int ID { get; set; } Now, I've tried various options XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(ExportMyRecord),"http://www.website.com/MyRecord"); or [XmlRoot(Namespace = "http://www.website.com/MyRecord", ElementName="MyRecord")] gives me <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <q1:MylRecord ID="9266" xmlns:q1="http://www.website.com/MyRecord"> <q1:List> <q1:SpecificItem> I need the XML to have the namespace without the prefix as it's going to a third party provider and they reject all other alternatives. Any suggestions? No responses so far. Has anyone experienced this or know how to solve it?

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• Connect from java mobile application to webservice to read messages.

  - by Alexandru Trandafir Catalin

  Hello, I have a website where users can send personal messages between them, now I want them to recieve the messages also on their mobile phone but without having to send them a SMS. I am thinking about providing them with a mobile phone with internet access over GPRS or 3G, then develop a Java application that will connect to the website and retrieve the messages. On the website I am thinking to make a webservice where the phone will login, get new messages, and also be able to answer back to messages. Does anyone know any mobile application tutorial that will do that? Or do you recommend me where to start? I never done a java mobile application before, I only work with websites and PHP. I also tried to use ICQ, the client is already done for java and for iphone, and I've also found a script that will send ICQ messages from PHP, but ICQ server bans you for 20 minutes when you do many reconnections, so I have to develop some kind of ICQ bot always online that will check for new messages to send from the mySQL database and then send them, one per 2-3 seconds, so the server won't ban me for flooding. Well any advice or recommendation is welcome about how to have users connected to the website messaging system from their phones. Thank you!

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• How to Manage CSS Explosion

  - by Jason

  I have been heavily relying on CSS for a website that I am working on (currently, everything is done as property values within each tag on the website and I'm trying to get away from that to make updates significantly easier). The problem I am running into, is I'm starting to get a bit of "CSS explosion" going on. It is becoming difficult for me to decide how to best organize and abstract data within the CSS file. For example: I am using a large number of div tags within the website (previously it was completely tables based). So I'm starting to get a lot of CSS that looks like this... div.title { background-color: Blue; color: White; text-align: center; } div.footer { /* Stuff Here */ } div.body { /* Stuff Here */ } etc. It's not too bad yet, but since I am learning here, I was wondering if recommendations could be made on how best to organize the various parts of a CSS file. What I don't want to get to is where I have a separate CSS attribute for every single thing on my website (which I have seen happen), and I always want the CSS file to be fairly intuitive. (P.S. I do realize this is a very generic, high-level question. My ultimate goal is to make it easy to use the CSS files and demonstrate their power to increase the speed of web development so other individuals that may work on this site in the future will also get into the practice of using them rather than hard-coding values everywhere.)

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• Can't get virtual desktops to show up on RDWeb for Server 2012 R2

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I built a test lab using the Windows Server 2012 R2 Preview. The initial test lab has the following configuration (I have replaced our name with "OurCompanyName" because I would like it if Google searches for our name did not cause people to come to this site, please do the same in any responses) Physical hardware running Windows Server 2012 R2 Preview full GUI, acting as Hyper-V host (joined to the test domain as testVwHost.testVw.OurCompanyName.com) with the following VM's running on it VM running 2012 R2 Core acting as domain controller for the forest testVw.OurCompanyName.com (testDC.testVw.OurCompanyName.com) VM running 2012 R2 Core with nothing running on it joined to the test domain as testIIS.testVw.OurCompanyName.com A clean install of Windows 7, all that was done to it was all windows updates where loaded and sysprep /generalize /oobe /shutdown /mode:vm was run on it A clean install of Windows 8, all that was done to it was all windows updates where loaded and sysprep /generalize /oobe /shutdown /mode:vm was run on it I then ran "Add Roles and Features" from testVwHost and chose the "Remote Desktop Services Installation", "Standard Deployment", "Virtual machine-based desktop deployment". I choose testIIS for the roles "RD Connection Broker" and "RD Web Access" and testVwHost as "RD Virtualization Host" The Install of the roles went fine, I then went to Remote Desktop Services in server manager and wet to setup Deployment Properties. I set the certificate for all 3 roles to our certificate signed by a CA for *.OurCompanyName.com. I then created a new Virtual Desktop Collection for Windows 7 and Windows 8 and both where created without issue. On the Windows 7 pool I added RemoteApp to launch WordPad, For windows 8 I did not add any RemoteApp programs. Everything now appears to be fine from a setup perspective however if I go to https://testIIS.testVw.OurCompanyName.com/RDWeb and log in as the use Administrator (or any orher user) I don't see the virtual desktops I created nor the RemoteApp publishing of WordPad. I tried adding a licensing server, using testDC as the server but that made no difference. What step did I miss in setting this up that is causing this not to show up on RDWeb? If any additional information is needed pleas let me know. I have tried every possible thing I can think of and I am just groping around in the dark now. The virtual machines running on testVwHost The configuration screen for RD Services The Windows 7 Pool The Windows 8 Pool This is logged in as testVw\Administrator

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• Distributed Message Ordering

  - by sbanwart

  I have an architectural question on handling message ordering. For purposes of this question, the transport is irrelevant, so I'm not going to specify one. Say we have three systems, a website, a CRM and an ERP. For this example, the ERP will be the "master" system in terms of data ownership. The website and the CRM can both send a new customer message to the ERP system. The ERP system then adds a customer and publishes the customer with the newly assigned account number so that the website and CRM can add the account number to their local customer records. This is a pretty straight forward process. Next we move on to placing orders. The account number is required in order for the CRM or website to place an order with the ERP system. However the CRM will permit the user to place an order even if the customer lacks an account number. (For this example assume we can't modify the CRM behavior) This creates the possibility that a user could create a new customer, and place an order before the account number gets updated in the CRM. What is the best way to handle this scenario? Would it be best to send the order message sans account number and let it go to an error queue? Would it be better to have the CRM endpoint hold the message and wait until the account number is updated in the CRM? Maybe something completely different that I haven't thought of? Thanks in advance for any help.

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• How to solve the problem of not being informed of successful payments by the 3rd party system used b

  - by user68759

  I have a subscription based website that interacts with a 3rd party system to handle the payments. The steps to process a new subscriber registration are as follow: The subscriber enters his/her details in the subscription form and click on the submit button. Assuming the details specified are valid, a new record is created in the database to store these details. The subscriber is then redirected to the website of the 3rd party system (similar to paypal) to process the payment. Once the payment is succesful, the 3rd party website then redirect the subscriber back to our website. At this time, I know that the payment was succesful, so the record in the database is updated to indicate that payment has been made successfully. A problem that I have found occurring quite often is that if a subscriber pays but does not complete the process correctly (e.g. uses the back browser, closes the window), his/her record in the database doesn't get updated about this. Accordingly, I don't know if s/he has paid by just looking the record and need to wait for the report from the 3rd party system to find this out. How do you solve this problem? PS. One of the main reasons to store their details into the database before the payment process is done is so they can come back to complete the payment without re-entering their details again. For example, when their credit cards were rejected by the 3rd party system and they need to sort this out with their financial institution which may take a while.

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• IIS site always returns 404 to WinMo emulator

  - by Derick Bailey

  I'm running Win7x64 Ultimate with Visual Studio 2008. I have a website built in ASP.NET 3.5 and hosted via IIS on my box. I can run the website perfectly fine and I can hit all of the web services that I have built in the website, using a web browser. When I pull up my Windows Mobile 6 emulator and hit the site (using my IP address) it always returns a 404 error. I have the emulator cradled w/ Device Emulator Manager and I can interact with the emulated device normally. I am also able to get out to google.com and other websites w/ the emulated device. I have also verified that the emulator is hitting my box by stopping the IIS website and seeing that the WinMo emulator cannot get any response. Then when I start the site again, I get a 404 error. When I pull up my site on my local dev box via FireFox or IE using the IP address it works perfectly fine. The worst part is this worked perfectly fine a few weeks ago, when I used it last. I don't know that I've changed anything since then - I'm just trying to use the emulator to hit my site again. Help?! Update: my http requests comign from the WinMo emulator are not getting logged in the IIS log files, while my requests from FireFox on my local box are getting logged. Not sure if that helps in figuring out the problem... Update 2: I can use the ruby Webbrick server on my local box and hit that server from my emulator just fine. is in IIS not allowing me to hit the IIS site from the emu? UPdate 3: I cradled an actual WinMo device to my box with it's networking turned off and was able to hit the IIS site just fine. that makes me think it's something set up wrong in the emulator.

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• WCF service reference namespace differs from original

  - by Thorarin

  I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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• Silverlight ClientAccessPolicy issue...I think

  - by Terrence

  Fisrt of all I have my ClientAccessPolicy.xml file in the root of my website. If I access my website using the public domain name like this: h t t p://www.mydomain.com and then go to the page where my SL control is, I get the spinning % numbers up until about 98%, then it quits and my SL control does not appear on the page. If I access my website using the machine name (website is at datacenter, we have vpn setup) like this: h t t p://machinename and then go to the page where my SL control is everything works fine. this must be a ClientAccess Policy issue don't your think? Or what DO you thnik the issue is? Thanks in advance. Here is the contents of my ClientAccessPolicy.xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*" /> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true" /> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy>

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• DOM manipulation in PHP

  - by bluedaniel

  Hello everyone, Im trying to use the DOM in PHP to do a pretty specific job and Ive got no luck so far, the objective is to take a string of HTML from a Wordpress blog post (from the DB, this is a wordpress plugin). And then out of that HTML replace <div id="do_not_edit">old content</div>" with <div id="do_not_edit">new content</div>" in its place. Saving anything above and below that div in its structure. Then save the HTML back into the DB, should be simple really, I have read that a regex wouldnt be the right way to go here so Ive turned to the DOM instead. The problem is I just cant get it to work, cant extract the div or anything. Help me!! UPDATE The HTML coming out of the wordpress table looks like: Congratulations on finding us here on the world wide web, we are on a mission to create a website that will show off your culinary skills better than any other website does. <div id="do_not_edit">blah blah</div> We want this website to be fun and easy to use, we strive for simple elegance and incredible functionality.We aim to provide a 'complete package'. By this we want to create a website where people can meet, share ideas and help each other out. After several different (incorrect) workings all Ive got below is: $content = ($wpdb->get_var( "SELECT `post_content` FROM $wpdb->posts WHERE ID = {$article[post_id]}" )); $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->validateOnParse = true; $doc->loadHTMLFile($content); $element = $doc->getElementById('do_not_edit'); echo $element;

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• C#; On casting to the SAME class that came from another assembly

  - by G. Stoynev

  For complete separation/decoupling, I've implemented a DAL in an assebly that is simply being copied over via post-build event to the website BIN folder. The website then on Application Start loads that assembly via System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFile. Again, using reflection, I construct a couple of instances from classes in that assembly. I then store a reference to these instances in the session (HttpContext.Current.Items) Later, when I try to get the object stored in the session, I am not able to cast them to their own types (was trying interfaces initially, but for debugging tried to cast to THEIR OWN TYPES), getting this error: [A]DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder cannot be cast to [B] DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder. Type A originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'Default' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\ad6e8bff\70fa2384\assembly\dl3\aaf7a5b0\84f01b09_b10acb01\DAL_QSYSCamper.DLL'. Type B originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\Documents\Projects\QSYS\Deleteme\UI\MVCClient\bin\DAL_QSYSCa mper.DLL'. This is happening while debugging in VS - VS manages to stop into the source DAL project even though I've loaded from assembly and the project is not refferenced by the website project (they're both in the solution). I do understand the error, but I don't understand how and why the assembly is being used/loaded from two locations - I only load it once from the file and there's no referrence to the project. Should mention that I also use Windsor for DI. The object that tries to extract the object from the session is A) from a class from that DAL assembly; B) is injected into a website class by Windsor. I will work on adding some sample code to this question, but wanted to put it out in case it's obvious what I do wrong.

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• how to manage credentials/access to multiple ssh servers

  - by geoaxis

  I would like to make a script which can maintain multiple servers via SSH. I want to control the authentication/authorization in such a manner that authentication is done by gateway and any other access is routed through this ssh server to internal services without any further authentication/authorization requirements. So if a user A can log into server_1 for example. He can then ssh to server_2 without any other authentication and do what ever he is allowed to do on server_2 (like shut down mysql, upgrade it and restart it. This could be done via some remote shell script). The problem that I am trying to solve is to come up with a deployment script for a JavaEE system which involves databases and tomcat instances. They need to be shutdown and re-spawned. The requirement is to have a deployment script which has minimal human interaction as possible for both developers and operation.

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