Search Results

Search found 6729 results on 270 pages for 'practical answers'.

Page 258/270 | < Previous Page | 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265  | Next Page >

  • How do I add Objective C code to a FireBreath Project?

    - by jmort253
    I am writing a browser plugin for Mac OS that will place a status bar icon in the status bar, which users can use to interface with the browser plugin. I've successfully built a FireBreath 1.6 project in XCode 4.4.1, and can install it in the browser. However, FireBreath uses C++, whereas a large majority of the existing libraries for Mac OS are written in Objective C. In the /Mac/projectDef.make file, I added the Cocoa Framework and Foundation Framework, as suggested here and in other resources I've found on the Internet: target_link_libraries(${PROJECT_NAME} ${PLUGIN_INTERNAL_DEPS} ${Cocoa.framework} # added line ${Foundation.framework} # added line ) I reran prepmac.sh, expecting a new project to be created in XCode with my .mm files, and .m files; however, it seems that they're being ignored. I only see the .cpp and .h files. I added rules for those in the projectDef.make file, but it doesn't seem to make a difference: file (GLOB PLATFORM RELATIVE ${CMAKE_CURRENT_SOURCE_DIR} Mac/[^.]*.cpp Mac/[^.]*.h Mac/[^.]*.m #added by me Mac/[^.]*.mm #added by me Mac/[^.]*.cmake ) Even if I add the files in manually, I get a series of compilation errors. There are about 20 of them, all related to the file NSObjRuntime.h file: Parse Issue - Expected unqualified-id Parse Issue - Unknown type name 'NSString' Semantic Issue - Use of undeclared identifier 'NSString' Parse Issue - Unknown type name 'NSString' ... ... Semantic Issue - Use of undeclared identifier 'aSelectorName' ... ... Semantic Issue - Use of undeclared identifier 'aClassName' ... It continues like this for some time with similar errors... From what I've read, these errors appear because of dependencies on the Foundation Framework, which I believe I've included in the project. I also tried clicking the project in XCode I'm to the point now where I'm not sure what to try next. People say it's not hard to use Objective C in C/C++ code, but being new to XCode and Objective C might contribute to my confusion. This is only day 4 for me in this new platform. What do I need to do to get XCode to compile the Objective C code? Please remember that I'm a little new to this, so I'd appreciate it if you leave detailed answers as opposed to the vague one-liners that are common in the firebreath tag. I'm just a little in over my head, but if you can get me past this hurdle I'm certain I'll be good to go from there. UPDATE: I edited projects/MyPlugin/CMakeLists.txt and added in the .m and .mm rules there too. after running prepmac.sh, the files are included in the project, but I still get the same compile errors. I moved all the .h files and .mm files from the Obj C code to the MyPlugin root folder and reran the prepmac.sh file. Problem still exists. Same compile errors.

    Read the article

  • Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

    - by Ted
    There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

    Read the article

  • How do I create a thread-safe write-once read-many value in Java?

    - by Software Monkey
    This is a problem I encounter frequently in working with more complex systems and which I have never figured out a good way to solve. It usually involves variations on the theme of a shared object whose construction and initialization are necessarily two distinct steps. This is generally because of architectural requirements, similar to applets, so answers that suggest I consolidate construction and initialization are not useful. By way of example, let's say I have a class that is structured to fit into an application framework like so: public class MyClass { private /*ideally-final*/ SomeObject someObject; MyClass() { someObject=null; } public void startup() { someObject=new SomeObject(...arguments from environment which are not available until startup is called...); } public void shutdown() { someObject=null; // this is not necessary, I am just expressing the intended scope of someObject explicitly } } I can't make someObject final since it can't be set until startup() is invoked. But I would really like it to reflect it's write-once semantics and be able to directly access it from multiple threads, preferably avoiding synchronization. The idea being to express and enforce a degree of finalness, I conjecture that I could create a generic container, like so: public class WoRmObject<T> { private T object; WoRmObject() { object=null; } public WoRmObject set(T val) { object=val; return this; } public T get() { return object; } } and then in MyClass, above, do: private final WoRmObject<SomeObject> someObject; MyClass() { someObject=new WoRmObject<SomeObject>(); } public void startup() { someObject.set(SomeObject(...arguments from environment which are not available until startup is called...)); } Which raises some questions for me: Is there a better way, or existing Java object (would have to be available in Java 4)? Is this thread-safe provided that no other thread accesses someObject.get() until after it's set() has been called. The other threads will only invoke methods on MyClass between startup() and shutdown() - the framework guarantees this. Given the completely unsynchronized WoRmObject container, it is ever possible under either JMM to see a value of object which is neither null nor a reference to a SomeObject? In other words, does has the JMM always guaranteed that no thread can observe the memory of an object to be whatever values happened to be on the heap when the object was allocated.

    Read the article

  • Find the closest palindrome number C#

    - by user294837
    Hi All, I am trying to create a console application that reads number from a file all underneath each other like so: 101 9 and then outputs into another file the closest palindrome number. So far what I have is not quite rightm i.e. I don't think I can put the class inside a method which is a bit more Java I was wandering if anyone could help at all? Thanks :) namespace PalidromeC { class Program { static public void Main(string[] args) { #region WriteAnswers try { StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter("C://Temp/PalindromeAnswers.txt"); sw.WriteLine("Answers"); sw.Close(); }//try catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("Exception: " + e.Message); }//catch #endregion #region ReadFile try { string numbers; StreamReader sr = new StreamReader("C://Temp/Palindrome.txt"); numbers = sr.ReadLine(); while (numbers != null) { Console.WriteLine(numbers); numbers = sr.ReadLine(); }//while sr.Close(); Console.ReadLine(); }//try catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("Exception: " + e.Message); }//catch #endregion NearPalindromeFinder f = new NearPalindromeFinder(); int palindrome = f.findNearPalindrome(n); Console.WriteLine("Nearest Palindrome = " + palindrome); }//main public static void testFindNearestPalindrome(int n) { class NearPalindromeFinder { int findNearPalindrome(int start) { if (testPalindrome(start)) return start; else { int neg = start; int pos = start; for (int i = 0; i < start; i++) { if (testPalindrome(start-i)) { neg = start-i; break; }//if if (testPalindrome(start+i)) { pos = start+i; break; }//if }//for return (start == neg) ? pos : neg; }//else }//findNearPalindrome bool testPalindrome(int start) { if (start == 0 || start == 1) return true; String str = String.valueOf(start); String rev = new if (str.equals(rev)) return true; else return false; }//testPalindrome }//NearPalindromeFinder class }//testFindNearestPalindrome }//Program Class

    Read the article

  • Converting C source to C++

    - by Barry Kelly
    How would you go about converting a reasonably large (300K), fairly mature C codebase to C++? The kind of C I have in mind is split into files roughly corresponding to modules (i.e. less granular than a typical OO class-based decomposition), using internal linkage in lieu private functions and data, and external linkage for public functions and data. Global variables are used extensively for communication between the modules. There is a very extensive integration test suite available, but no unit (i.e. module) level tests. I have in mind a general strategy: Compile everything in C++'s C subset and get that working. Convert modules into huge classes, so that all the cross-references are scoped by a class name, but leaving all functions and data as static members, and get that working. Convert huge classes into instances with appropriate constructors and initialized cross-references; replace static member accesses with indirect accesses as appropriate; and get that working. Now, approach the project as an ill-factored OO application, and write unit tests where dependencies are tractable, and decompose into separate classes where they are not; the goal here would be to move from one working program to another at each transformation. Obviously, this would be quite a bit of work. Are there any case studies / war stories out there on this kind of translation? Alternative strategies? Other useful advice? Note 1: the program is a compiler, and probably millions of other programs rely on its behaviour not changing, so wholesale rewriting is pretty much not an option. Note 2: the source is nearly 20 years old, and has perhaps 30% code churn (lines modified + added / previous total lines) per year. It is heavily maintained and extended, in other words. Thus, one of the goals would be to increase mantainability. [For the sake of the question, assume that translation into C++ is mandatory, and that leaving it in C is not an option. The point of adding this condition is to weed out the "leave it in C" answers.]

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Communications Link Failure in Restlet-Hibernate Based Java application powered by MySQL

    - by Vatsala
    Let me describe my question - I have a Java application - Hibernate as the DB interfacing layer over MySQL. I get the communications link failure error in my application. The occurence of this error is a very specific case. I get this error , When I leave mysql server unattended for more than approximately 6 hours (i.e. when there are no queries issued to MySQL for more than approximately 6 hours). I am pasting a top 'exception' level description below, and adding a pastebin link for a detailed stacktrace description. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect the link to the pastebin for further investigation - http://pastebin.com/4KujAmgD What I understand from these exception statements is that MySQL is refusing to take in any connections after a period of idle/nil activity. I have been reading up a bit about this via google search, and came to know that one of the possible ways to overcome this is to set values for c3p0 properties as c3p0 comes bundled with Hibernate. Specifically, I read from here http://www.mchange.com/projects/c3p0/index.html that setting two properties idleConnectionTestPeriod and preferredTestQuery will solve this for me. But these values dont seem to have had an effect. Is this the correct approach to fixing this? If not, what is the right way to get over this? The following are related Communications Link Failure questions at stackoverflow.com, but I've not found a satisfactory answer in their answers. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2121829/java-db-communications-link-failure http://stackoverflow.com/questions/298988/how-to-handle-communication-link-failure Note 1 - i dont get this error when I am using my application continuosly. Note 2 - I use JPA with Hibernate and hence my hibernate.dialect,etc hibernate properties reside within the persistence.xml in the META-INF folder (does that prevent the c3p0 properties from working?)

    Read the article

  • what to do with a flawed C++ skills test

    - by Mike Landis
    In the following gcc.gnu.org post, Nathan Myers says that a C++ skills test at SANS Consulting Services contained three errors in nine questions: Looking around, one of fthe first on-line C++ skills tests I ran across was: http://www.geekinterview.com/question_details/13090 I looked at question 1... find(int x,int y) { return ((x<y)?0:(x-y)):} call find(a,find(a,b)) use to find (a) maximum of a,b (b) minimum of a,b (c) positive difference of a,b (d) sum of a,b ... immediately wondering why would anyone write anything so obtuse. Getting past the absurdity, I didn't really like any of the answers, immediately eliminating (a) and (b) because you can get back zero (which is neither a nor b) in a variety of circumstances. Sum or difference seemed more likely, except that you could also get zero regardless of the magnitudes of a and b. So... I put Matlab to work (code below) and found: when either a or b is negative you get zero; when b a you get a; otherwise you get b, so the answer is (b) min(a,b), if a and b are positive, though strictly speaking the answer should be none of the above because there are no range restrictions on either variable. That forces test takers into a dilemma - choose the best available answer and be wrong in 3 of 4 quadrants, or don't answer, leaving the door open to the conclusion that the grader thinks you couldn't figure it out. The solution for test givers is to fix the test, but in the interim, what's the right course of action for test takers? Complain about the questions? function z = findfunc(x,y) for i=1:length(x) if x(i) < y(i) z(i) = 0; else z(i) = x(i) - y(i); end end end function [b,d1,z] = plotstuff() k = 50; a = [-k:1:k]; b = (2*k+1) * rand(length(a),1) - k; d1 = findfunc(a,b); z = findfunc(a,d1); plot( a, b, 'r.', a, d1, 'g-', a, z, 'b-'); end

    Read the article

  • How to preserve sibling element position when one sibling is absolutely positioned?

    - by Casey
    In the snippet below, the child div is normally positioned until it is :hovered , when it becomes absolutely positioned. The reasoning behind this markup is to simulate a popup style in a limited environment where I can't use a <select> (among other limitations). When child is hovered, the sibling elements jump around, which is expected, as the contents of the block have changed. But how can I preserve their positioning? That is, what CSS can I add to prevent the siblings from jumping around when child is hovered. Javascript is also not allowed, so please no answers using JS. HTML: <div class="container"> <div class="child"> <span class="d4"></span> <label><input type="radio" name="radio" value="1"/>One</label> <label><input type="radio" name="radio" value="2"/>Two</label> </div> <input type="text" name="sibling"/> <button name="sibling2">Button</button> </div> CSS: .container, .child, button { display:inline-block; } .child { vertical-align: middle; width: 35px; height: 35px; } .child:hover { background: gray; position:absolute; width: 100px; height: auto; } .child:hover > .d4 { display: none; } .child label { display:none; } .child:hover label { display: inline-block; } .d4 { background-position: -411px -1px; width: 35px; height: 35px; background-image: url("https://i.imgur.com/zkgyBOi.png"); background-repeat: no-repeat; color: transparent; display: inline-block; } Here's a fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/cpctZ/1/

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC Ajax form with jQuery validation

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I have an MVC view with a form built with the Ajax.BeginForm() helper method, and I'm trying to validate user input with the jQuery Validation plugin. I get the plugin to highlight the inputs with invalid input data, but despite the invalid input the form is posted to the server. How do I stop this, and make sure that the data is only posted when the form validates? My code The form: <fieldset> <legend>leave a message</legend> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Post", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "GBPostList", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.InsertBefore, OnSuccess = "getGbPostSuccess", OnFailure = "showFaliure" })) { %> <div class="column" style="width: 230px;"> <p> <label for="Post.Header"> Rubrik</label> <%= Html.TextBox("Post.Header", null, new { @style = "width: 200px;", @class="text required" }) %></p> <p> <label for="Post.Post"> Meddelande</label> <%= Html.TextArea("Post.Post", new { @style = "width: 230px; height: 120px;" }) %></p> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="OK!" /></p> </fieldset> The JavaScript validation: $(document).ready(function() { // for highlight var elements = $("input[type!='submit'], textarea, select"); elements.focus(function() { $(this).parents('p').addClass('highlight'); }); elements.blur(function() { $(this).parents('p').removeClass('highlight'); }); // for validation $("form").validate(); }); EDIT: As I was getting downvotes for publishing follow-up problems and their solutions in answers, here is also the working validate method... function ajaxValidate() { return $('form').validate({ rules: { "Post.Header": { required: true }, "Post.Post": { required: true, minlength: 3 } }, messages: { "Post.Header": "Please enter a header", "Post.Post": { required: "Please enter a message", minlength: "Your message must be 3 characters long" } } }).form(); }

    Read the article

  • What's the C strategy to "imitate" a C++ template ?

    - by Andrei Ciobanu
    After reading some examples on stackoverflow, and following some of the answers for my previous questions (1), I've eventually come with a "strategy" for this. I've come to this: 1) Have a declare section in the .h file. Here I will define the data-structure, and the accesing interface. Eg.: /** * LIST DECLARATION. (DOUBLE LINKED LIST) */ #define NM_TEMPLATE_DECLARE_LIST(type) \ typedef struct nm_list_elem_##type##_s { \ type data; \ struct nm_list_elem_##type##_s *next; \ struct nm_list_elem_##type##_s *prev; \ } nm_list_elem_##type ; \ typedef struct nm_list_##type##_s { \ unsigned int size; \ nm_list_elem_##type *head; \ nm_list_elem_##type *tail; \ int (*cmp)(const type e1, const type e2); \ } nm_list_##type ; \ \ nm_list_##type *nm_list_new_##type##_(int (*cmp)(const type e1, \ const type e2)); \ \ (...other functions ...) 2) Wrap the functions in the interface inside MACROS: /** * LIST INTERFACE */ #define nm_list(type) \ nm_list_##type #define nm_list_elem(type) \ nm_list_elem_##type #define nm_list_new(type,cmp) \ nm_list_new_##type##_(cmp) #define nm_list_delete(type, list, dst) \ nm_list_delete_##type##_(list, dst) #define nm_list_ins_next(type,list, elem, data) \ nm_list_ins_next_##type##_(list, elem, data) (...others...) 3) Implement the functions: /** * LIST FUNCTION DEFINITIONS */ #define NM_TEMPLATE_DEFINE_LIST(type) \ nm_list_##type *nm_list_new_##type##_(int (*cmp)(const type e1, \ const type e2)) \ {\ nm_list_##type *list = NULL; \ list = nm_alloc(sizeof(*list)); \ list->size = 0; \ list->head = NULL; \ list->tail = NULL; \ list->cmp = cmp; \ }\ void nm_list_delete_##type##_(nm_list_##type *list, \ void (*destructor)(nm_list_elem_##type elem)) \ { \ type data; \ while(nm_list_size(list)){ \ data = nm_list_rem_##type(list, tail); \ if(destructor){ \ destructor(data); \ } \ } \ nm_free(list); \ } \ (...others...) In order to use those constructs, I have to create two files (let's call them templates.c and templates.h) . In templates.h I will have to NM_TEMPLATE_DECLARE_LIST(int), NM_TEMPLATE_DECLARE_LIST(double) , while in templates.c I will need to NM_TEMPLATE_DEFINE_LIST(int) , NM_TEMPLATE_DEFINE_LIST(double) , in order to have the code behind a list of ints, doubles and so on, generated. By following this strategy I will have to keep all my "template" declarations in two files, and in the same time, I will need to include templates.h whenever I need the data structures. It's a very "centralized" solution. Do you know other strategy in order to "imitate" (at some point) templates in C++ ? Do you know a way to improve this strategy, in order to keep things in more decentralized manner, so that I won't need the two files: templates.c and templates.h ?

    Read the article

  • Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

    - by gWiz
    I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

    Read the article

  • Why i get everytime the error-message that i've already sent the headers

    - by mikep
    Hey, i've another question about web-programming. I programmed a login script, but everytime when i try to login it says that i've send the header informations already. Here are the 2 files: <?php if($_GET['logout'] == 1) { setcookie('authorized', 1, time()-3600); } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Login - photoAdminSite</title> </head> <style type="text/css"> body { text-align: center; font-family: helvetica; } #loginForm { padding: 1em; background: #e3e3e3; width: 260px; margin: 3em auto 0; text-align: left; } </style> <body> <div id="loginForm"> <form method="post" action="confirm_login_credentials.php"> <h2>LOGIN</h2> <p>Username: <input type="text" name="username" /></p> <p>Password: <input type="password" name="password" /></p> <p><input type="submit" value="Login" name="submit" /></p> </form> </div> </body> </html> <?php $username = $_POST['username']; $password = $_POST['password']; require 'database.php'; $q = "SELECT id FROM users_photoadminsite WHERE user_name = '$username' AND password = '$password'"; $result = $mysqli->query($q) or die(mysqli_error()); if (mysqli_num_rows($result) == 1) { setcookie('authorized', 1, 0); header("Location: index.php"); } else { header("Location: login.php"); } ?> i would be really happy about some helpful answers.

    Read the article

  • Using JavaScript to parse an XML file

    - by Chris Clouten
    I am new to Stack OverFlow and coding in general. I am trying to take an XML file and render it in the browser using JavaScript. I have looked around at some sample code of how to do this and came up with the following code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <body> <script> if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.open("GET","social.xml",false); xmlhttp.send(); xmlDoc=xmlhttp.responseXML; document.write("<table border='1'>"); var x=xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("CD"); for (i=0;i<x.length;i++) { document.write("<tr><td>"); document.write(x[i].getElementsByTagName("c_id")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.write("</td><td>"); document.write(x[i].getElementsByTagName("facebook_id")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.write("</td></tr>"); } document.write("</table>"); </script> </body> </html> Anyway, when I run this on my local server none of the data that I am trying to display in the table appears. My .html file and .xml file are in the same folder, so I believe I have the correct file pathway. I could just be making a rookie mistake here, but I can't for the life of me figure out why a table listing the c_id and facebook_id values is not being created. I looked around for answers and haven't been able to find any. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Nested Execution Flow Control

    - by chris
    I've read tens of answers related to callbacks, promises and other ways to control flow, but I can't still wrap my head around this task, obviously due to my lack of competence. I have a nested problem: In test_1() (and the other functions) I would like to ensure that the rows are added to the table according to the order in which the elements are in the object; I would like to execute either test_2 or test_3 (or both after each other) only after test_1 has finished completely. Actually the right sequence will only be known at runtime (there will be a switch with the possible sequences, like 1,2,3 or 1,3,2 or 1,2,1,3 or 1,3,3,2, etc...) Code: $(function () { // create table tbl = document.createElement('table'); tbl.className = "mainTbl"; $("body").append(tbl); }); function test_1() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } function test_2() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } function test_3() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } I know that calling the functions in sequence doesn't work as they don't wait for each other... I think promises are they way to go but I can't find the right combination and the documentation is way too complex for my skills. What's the best way to structure the code so that it's executed in the right order?

    Read the article

  • Using JSON Data to Populate a Google Map with Database Objects

    - by MikeH
    I'm revising this question after reading the resources mentioned in the original answers and working through implementing it. I'm using the google maps api to integrate a map into my Rails site. I have a markets model with the following columns: ID, name, address, lat, lng. On my markets/index view, I want to populate a map with all the markets in my markets table. I'm trying to output @markets as json data, and that's where I'm running into problems. I have the basic map displaying, but right now it's just a blank map. I'm following the tutorials very closely, but I can't get the markers to generate dynamically from the json. Any help is much appreciated! Here's my setup: Markets Controller: def index @markets = Market.filter_city(params[:filter]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render :json => @market} format.xml { render :xml => @market } end end Markets/index view: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=GOOGLE KEY REDACTED, BUT IT'S THERE" > </script> <script type="text/javascript"> var markets = <%= @markets.to_json %>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> google.load("maps", "2.x"); google.load("jquery", "1.3.2"); </script> </head> <body> <div id="map" style="width:400px; height:300px;"></div> </body> Public/javascripts/application.js: function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible() && typeof markets != 'undefined') { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(40.7371, -73.9903), 13); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); function createMarker(latlng, market) { var marker = new GMarker(latlng); var html="<strong>"+market.name+"</strong><br />"+market.address; GEvent.addListener(marker,"click", function() { map.openInfoWindowHtml(latlng, html); }); return marker; } var bounds = new GLatLngBounds; for (var i = 0; i < markets.length; i++) { var latlng=new GLatLng(markets[i].lat,markets[i].lng) bounds.extend(latlng); map.addOverlay(createMarker(latlng, markets[i])); } } } window.onload=initialize; window.onunload=GUnload;

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • How much time should it take to find the sum of all prime numbers less than 2 million?

    - by Shahensha
    I was trying to solve this Project Euler Question. I implemented the sieve of euler as a helper class in java. It works pretty well for the small numbers. But when I input 2 million as the limit it doesn't return the answer. I use Netbeans IDE. I waited for a lot many hours once, but it still didn't print the answer. When I stopped running the code, it gave the following result Java Result: 2147483647 BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 2,097 minutes 43 seconds) This answer is incorrect. Even after waiting for so much time, this isn't correct. While the same code returns correct answers for smaller limits. Sieve of euler has a very simple algo given at the botton of this page. My implementation is this: package support; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; /** * * @author admin */ public class SieveOfEuler { int upperLimit; List<Integer> primeNumbers; public SieveOfEuler(int upperLimit){ this.upperLimit = upperLimit; primeNumbers = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = 2 ; i <= upperLimit ; i++) primeNumbers.add(i); generatePrimes(); } private void generatePrimes(){ int currentPrimeIndex = 0; int currentPrime = 2; while(currentPrime <= Math.sqrt(upperLimit)){ ArrayList<Integer> toBeRemoved = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = currentPrimeIndex ; i < primeNumbers.size() ; i++){ int multiplier = primeNumbers.get(i); toBeRemoved.add(currentPrime * multiplier); } for(Integer i : toBeRemoved){ primeNumbers.remove(i); } currentPrimeIndex++; currentPrime = primeNumbers.get(currentPrimeIndex); } } public List getPrimes(){ return primeNumbers; } public void displayPrimes(){ for(double i : primeNumbers) System.out.println(i); } } I am perplexed! My questions is 1) Why is it taking so much time? Is there something wrong in what I am doing? Please suggest ways for improving my coding style, if you find something wrong.

    Read the article

  • Race condition for thread startup

    - by Ozzah
    A similar question was asked here, but the answers generally all seem to relate to the lambda notation. I get a similar result without the lambda so I thought I'd ask for some clarification: Say I have something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); One would expect the following output: Thread 0 Thread 1 Thread 2 Thread 3 Thread 4 Now I realise that the threads aren't started in any particular order, so let's just assume that the above lines can come out in any order. But that is not what happens. What instead happens: Thread 3 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 or something similar, which leads me to believe that rather than passing the value if i, it is passing the reference. (Which is weird, since an int is a value type). Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { int j = i; Console.WriteLine("Thread " + j); }))).Start(); does not help either, even though we have made a copy of i. I am assuming the reason is that it hasn't made a copy of i in time. Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) { (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); Thread.Sleep(50); } seems to fix the problem, however it is extremely undesirable as we're wasting 50ms on each iteration, not to mention the fact that if the computer is heavily loaded then maybe 50ms may not be enough. Here is a sample with my current, specific problem: Thread t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(delgate() { threadLogic(param1, param2, param3, param4); })); t.Start(); param1 = param2 = param3 = param4 = null; with: void threadLogic(object param1, object param2, object param3, object param4) { // Do some stuff here... } I want threadLogic() to run in its own thread, however the above code gives a null reference exception. I assume this is because the values are set to null before the thread has had a chance to start. Again, putting a Thread.Sleep(100) works, but it is an awful solution from every aspect. What do you guys recommend for this particular type of race condition?

    Read the article

  • Python and displaying HTML

    - by Tyler Seymour
    I've gotten pretty comfortable with Python and now I'm looking to make a rudimentary web application. I was somewhat scared of Django and the other Python frameworks so I went caveman on it and decided to generate the HTML myself using another Python script. Maybe this is how you do it anyways - but I'm just figuring this stuff out. I'm really looking for a tip-off on, well, what to do next. My Python script PRINTS the HTML (is this even correct? I need it to be on a webpage!), but now what? Thanks for your continued support during my learning process. One day I will post answers! -Tyler Here's my code: from SearchPhone import SearchPhone phones = ["Iphone 3", "Iphone 4", "Iphone 5","Galaxy s3", "Galaxy s2", "LG Lucid", "LG Esteem", "HTC One S", "Droid 4", "Droid RAZR MAXX", "HTC EVO", "Galaxy Nexus", "LG Optimus 2", "LG Ignite", "Galaxy Note", "HTC Amaze", "HTC Rezound", "HTC Vivid", "HTC Rhyme", "Motorola Photon", "Motorola Milestone", "myTouch slide", "HTC Status", "Droid 3", "HTC Evo 3d", "HTC Wildfire", "LG Optimus 3d", "HTC ThunderBolt", "Incredible 2", "Kyocera Echo", "Galaxy S 4g", "HTC Inspire", "LG Optimus 2x", "Samsung Gem", "HTC Evo Shift", "Nexus S", "LG Axis", "Droid 2", "G2", "Droid x", "Droid Incredible" ] print """<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>table of phones</title> </head> <body> </body> </html> """ #table print '<table width="100%" border="1">' for x in phones: y = SearchPhone(x) print "\t<tr>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[0]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[1]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[2]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[3]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[4]) + "</td>" print "\t</tr>" print "</table>

    Read the article

  • c++ global operator not playing well with template class

    - by John
    ok, i found some similar posts on stackoverflow, but I couldn't find any that pertained to my exact situation and I was confused with some of the answers given. Ok, so here is my problem: I have a template matrix class as follows: template <typename T, size_t ROWS, size_t COLS> class Matrix { public: template<typename, size_t, size_t> friend class Matrix; Matrix( T init = T() ) : _matrix(ROWS, vector<T>(COLS, init)) { /*for( int i = 0; i < ROWS; i++ ) { _matrix[i] = new vector<T>( COLS, init ); }*/ } Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> & operator+=( const T & value ) { for( vector<T>::size_type i = 0; i < this->_matrix.size(); i++ ) { for( vector<T>::size_type j = 0; j < this->_matrix[i].size(); j++ ) { this->_matrix[i][j] += value; } } return *this; } private: vector< vector<T> > _matrix; }; and I have the following global function template: template<typename T, size_t ROWS, size_t COLS> Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> operator+( const Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> & lhs, const Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> & rhs ) { Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> returnValue = lhs; return returnValue += lhs; } To me, this seems to be right. However, when I try to compile the code, I get the following error (thrown from the operator+ function): binary '+=' : no operator found which takes a right-hand operand of type 'const matrix::Matrix<T,ROWS,COLS>' (or there is no acceptable conversion) I can't figure out what to make of this. Any help if greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How can a C/C++ program put itself into background?

    - by Larry Gritz
    What's the best way for a running C or C++ program that's been launched from the command line to put itself into the background, equivalent to if the user had launched from the unix shell with '&' at the end of the command? (But the user didn't.) It's a GUI app and doesn't need any shell I/O, so there's no reason to tie up the shell after launch. But I want a shell command launch to be auto-backgrounded without the '&' (or on Windows). Ideally, I want a solution that would work on any of Linux, OS X, and Windows. (Or separate solutions that I can select with #ifdef.) It's ok to assume that this should be done right at the beginning of execution, as opposed to somewhere in the middle. One solution is to have the main program be a script that launches the real binary, carefully putting it into the background. But it seems unsatisfying to need these coupled shell/binary pairs. Another solution is to immediately launch another executed version (with 'system' or CreateProcess), with the same command line arguments, but putting the child in the background and then having the parent exit. But this seems clunky compared to the process putting itself into background. Edited after a few answers: Yes, a fork() (or system(), or CreateProcess on Windows) is one way to sort of do this, that I hinted at in my original question. But all of these solutions make a SECOND process that is backgrounded, and then terminate the original process. I was wondering if there was a way to put the EXISTING process into the background. One difference is that if the app was launched from a script that recorded its process id (perhaps for later killing or other purpose), the newly forked or created process will have a different id and so will not be controllable by any launching script, if you see what I'm getting at. Edit #2: fork() isn't a good solution for OS X, where the man page for 'fork' says that it's unsafe if certain frameworks or libraries are being used. I tried it, and my app complains loudly at runtime: "The process has forked and you cannot use this CoreFoundation functionality safely. You MUST exec()." I was intrigued by daemon(), but when I tried it on OS X, it gave the same error message, so I assume that it's just a fancy wrapper for fork() and has the same restrictions. Excuse the OS X centrism, it just happens to be the system in front of me at the moment. But I am indeed looking for a solution to all three platforms.

    Read the article

  • BufferedReader no longer buffering after a while?

    - by BobTurbo
    Sorry I can't post code but I have a bufferedreader with 50000000 bytes set as the buffer size. It works as you would expect for half an hour, the HDD light flashing every two minutes or so, reading in the big chunk of data, and then going quiet again as the CPU processes it. But after about half an hour (this is a very big file), the HDD starts thrashing as if it is reading one byte at a time. It is still in the same loop and I think I checked free ram to rule out swapping (heap size is default). Probably won't get any helpful answers, but worth a try. OK I have changed heap size to 768mb and still nothing. There is plenty of free memory and java.exe is only using about 300mb. Now I have profiled it and heap stays at about 200MB, well below what is available. CPU stays at 50%. Yet the HDD starts thrashing like crazy. I have.. no idea. I am going to rewrite the whole thing in c#, that is my solution. Here is the code (it is just a throw-away script, not pretty): BufferedReader s = null; HashMap<String, Integer> allWords = new HashMap<String, Integer>(); HashSet<String> pageWords = new HashSet<String>(); long[] pageCount = new long[78592]; long pages = 0; Scanner wordFile = new Scanner(new BufferedReader(new FileReader("allWords.txt"))); while (wordFile.hasNext()) { allWords.put(wordFile.next(), Integer.parseInt(wordFile.next())); } s = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("wikipedia/enwiki-latest-pages-articles.xml"), 50000000); StringBuilder words = new StringBuilder(); String nextLine = null; while ((nextLine = s.readLine()) != null) { if (a.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (b.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (c.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (d.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { nextLine = s.readLine(); if (e.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { if (f.matcher(s.readLine()).matches()) { pageWords.addAll(Arrays.asList(words.toString().toLowerCase().split("[^a-zA-Z]"))); words.setLength(0); pages++; for (String word : pageWords) { if (allWords.containsKey(word)) { pageCount[allWords.get(word)]++; } else if (!word.isEmpty() && allWords.containsKey(word.substring(0, word.length() - 1))) { pageCount[allWords.get(word.substring(0, word.length() - 1))]++; } } pageWords.clear(); } } } else if (g.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } words.append(nextLine); words.append(" "); }

    Read the article

  • Why is this statement treated as a string instead of its result?

    - by reve_etrange
    I am trying to perform some composition-based filtering on a large collection of strings (protein sequences). I wrote a group of three subroutines in order to take care of it, but I'm running into trouble in two ways - one minor, one major. The minor trouble is that when I use List::MoreUtils 'pairwise' I get warnings about using $a and $b only once and them being uninitialized. But I believe I'm calling this method properly (based on CPAN's entry for it and some examples from the web). The major trouble is an error "Can't use string ("17/32") as HASH ref while "strict refs" in use..." It seems like this can only happen if the foreach loop in &comp is giving the hash values as a string instead of evaluating the division operation. I'm sure I've made a rookie mistake, but can't find the answer on the web. The first time I even looked at perl code was last Wednesday... use List::Util; use List::MoreUtils; my @alphabet = ( 'A', 'R', 'N', 'D', 'C', 'Q', 'E', 'G', 'H', 'I', 'L', 'K', 'M', 'F', 'P', 'S', 'T', 'W', 'Y', 'V' ); my $gapchr = '-'; # Takes a sequence and returns letter = occurrence count pairs as hash. sub getcounts { my %counts = (); foreach my $chr (@alphabet) { $counts{$chr} = ( $[0] =~ tr/$chr/$chr/ ); } $counts{'gap'} = ( $[0] =~ tr/$gapchr/$gapchr/ ); return %counts; } # Takes a sequence and returns letter = fractional composition pairs as a hash. sub comp { my %comp = getcounts( $[0] ); foreach my $chr (@alphabet) { $comp{$chr} = $comp{$chr} / ( length( $[0] ) - $comp{'gap'} ); } return %comp; } # Takes two sequences and returns a measure of the composition difference between them, as a scalar. # Originally all on one line but it was unreadable. sub dcomp { my @dcomp = pairwise { $a - $b } @{ values( %{ comp( $[0] ) } ) }, @{ values( %{ comp( $[1] ) } ) }; @dcomp = apply { $_ ** 2 } @dcomp; my $dcomp = sqrt( sum( 0, @dcomp ) ) / 20; return $dcomp; } Much appreciation for any answers or advice!

    Read the article

  • Are there any platforms where using structure copy on an fd_set (for select() or pselect()) causes p

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    The select() and pselect() system calls modify their arguments (the 'struct fd_set *' arguments), so the input value tells the system which file descriptors to check and the return values tell the programmer which file descriptors are currently usable. If you are going to call them repeatedly for the same set of file descriptors, you need to ensure that you have a fresh copy of the descriptors for each call. The obvious way to do that is to use a structure copy: struct fd_set ref_set_rd; struct fd_set ref_set_wr; struct fd_set ref_set_er; ... ...code to set the reference fd_set_xx values... ... while (!done) { struct fd_set act_set_rd = ref_set_rd; struct fd_set act_set_wr = ref_set_wr; struct fd_set act_set_er = ref_set_er; int bits_set = select(max_fd, &act_set_rd, &act_set_wr, &act_set_er, &timeout); if (bits_set > 0) { ...process the output values of act_set_xx... } } My question: Are there any platforms where it is not safe to do a structure copy of the struct fd_set values as shown? I'm concerned lest there be hidden memory allocation or anything unexpected like that. (There are macros/functions FD_SET(), FD_CLR(), FD_ZERO() and FD_ISSET() to mask the internals from the application.) I can see that MacOS X (Darwin) is safe; other BSD-based systems are likely to be safe, therefore. You can help by documenting other systems that you know are safe in your answers. (I do have minor concerns about how well the struct fd_set would work with more than 8192 open file descriptors - the default maximum number of open files is only 256, but the maximum number is 'unlimited'. Also, since the structures are 1 KB, the copying code is not dreadfully efficient, but then running through a list of file descriptors to recreate the input mask on each cycle is not necessarily efficient either. Maybe you can't do select() when you have that many file descriptors open, though that is when you are most likely to need the functionality.) There's a related SO question - asking about 'poll() vs select()' which addresses a different set of issues from this question.

    Read the article

  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265  | Next Page >