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  • Troubleshooting FORM POST problems

    - by brettr
    I'm using the following code to submit to a WCF service. I keep getting an error that the key is invalid. I have a webpage on the same server that I submit the same data (but different key) using a FORM POST. It works fine that way. I put the URL below all in a URL (including valid key from server webpage) and get the key is invalid error. I'm thinking the data I'm submitting through the iPhone isn't really going across as a FORM POST but rather as a URL. Is there anything I may be doing wrong in the following code or any other suggestions? NSString *stringForURL = @"https://abc.com/someservice.aspx"; NSURL *URL=[[NSURL alloc] initWithString:stringForURL]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:URL]; NSString *request_body = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"prop1=value1&key=%@", [@"r2xHEuzgDTQEWA5Xe6+k9BSVrgsMX2mWQBW/39nqT4s=" stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSData *postData = [request_body dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; NSString *postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [postData length]]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request setHTTPBody:postData]; NSURLConnection *connection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:self]; [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:1]; self.receivedData = [[NSMutableData data] retain];

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  • Field specific errors for ETL

    - by AaronLS
    I am creating a ETL process in MS SQL Server and I would like to have errors specific to a particular column of a particular row. For example, the data is initially loaded from excel files into a table(we'll call the Initial table) where all columns are varchar(2000) and then I stage the data to another table(the DataTypedTable) that contains more specific data types (datetime,int, etc.) or more tightly constrained varchar lengths. I need to be able to create error messages for a specific field such as: "Jan. 13th" is not a valid date format for the submission date. Please use a format of MM/DD/YYYY These error messages would need to be stored in some way such that later in the process a automated process can create reports with the error messages such that each message references a specific row and field(someone will need to go back and correct the data in the source system and resubmit the excel file). So ideally it would be inserted into a Failures tables of some sort and contain the primary key of the failed row, the column name, and the error message. Question: So I am wondering if this can be accomplished with SSIS, or some open source tool like Talend, and if so, what would be your general approach? Or what hand coded approach you would take? Couple approaches I've thought of using SQL(up until no I have done ETL by hand in SQL procs, but I want to consider other approaches. Possible C# even.): Use a cursor to read through the Initial table, and for each row insert a blank record with only the primary key into the DataTyped table, then use a single update statement for each column, such that if that update fails I can insert a very specific error message specific to that column in the error messages table. Insert all the data as is into the DataTyped table, but have duplicate columns like SubmissionDate and SubmissionDateOld. After the initial insert the *Old columns have data, the rest are blank, and I have a single update for each column that sets the SubmissionDate based on the SubmissionDateOld. In addition to suggesting an approach, I'd like to know if you are using that approach or something similar already in the work you do.

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  • Core Data - How to check if a managed object's properties have been deallocated?

    - by georryan
    I've created a program that uses core data and it works beautifully. I've since attempted to move all my core data methods calls and fetch routines into a class that is self contained. My main program then instantiates that class and makes some basic method calls into that class, and the class then does all the core data stuff behind the scenes. What I'm running into, is that sometimes I'll find that when I grab a managed object from the context, I'll have a valid object, but its properties have been deallocated, and I'll cause a crash. I've played with the zombies and looked for memory leaks, and what I have gathered is it seems that the run loop is probably responsible for deallocating the memory, but I'm not sure. Is there a way to determine if that memory has been deallocated and force the core data to get it back if I need to access it? My managedObjectContext never gets deallocated, and the fetchedResultsController never does, either. I thought maybe I needed to use the [managedObjectContext refreshObject:mergeData:] method, or the [managedObjectContext setRetainsRegisteredObjects:] method. Although, I'm under the impression that last one may not be the best bet since it will be more memory intensive (from what I understand). These errors only popped up when I moved the core data calls into another class file, and they are random when they show up. Any insight would be appreciated. -Ryan

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  • Div click and AUTOCOMPLETE password dialog problem

    - by ticky
    And what if you want to autocomplete passwords? I am using similar thing here... I am using Div (id=loginButton) and it has some image - I don't want button control in MVC application (), neither image button. I have hidden input control which is hidden button actually (id=submit_btn). So, on div's (id=loginButton) click, I want to call hidden input control (id=submit_btn) and it's submit action. HTML: <div id="loginButton" > </div> <input type="submit" style="display:none" name="submit" id="submit_btn" /> And JQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $('#loginButton').click(function() { $('#LoginForm').submit(); }); $("form[action$='HandleLoginForm']").submit(function() { Login(); return false; }); return false; }); Function Login() is working with Ajax, without downloading file dialog, but I need also auto complete passwords dialog. function Login() { var urlData = $("#LoginForm").serialize(); if (returnUrl != "") { urlData = $("#LoginForm").serialize() + "&returnUrl=" + returnUrl; } $.ajax({ url: $("#LoginForm").attr("action"), type: "POST", data: urlData, dataType: "json", success: function(result) { if (result.Content != null) { if (result.Valid) { window.location = result.Content.toString(); } else { document.body.innerHTML = result.Content.toString(); } } } }); return false; } It is easy when you use only <input type="submit"> instead of DIV. Form knows that it is for auto completing passwords, but if I use div and force hidden button click like in the code from below, it doesn't show autocomplete password dialog. $('#submit_btn').click(); It will not work. User is logged in, but no reminding for browser to store password. I need this.

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  • ASP.MVC 2 RTM + ModelState Error at Id property

    - by Zote
    I have this classes: public class GroupMetadata { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(GrupoMetadata))] public partial class Group { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } And this action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Logic to save return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(group); } That's my view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Group>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%=Html.ActionLink("Back", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> But ModelState is always invalid! As I can see, for MVC validation 0 is invalid, but for me is valid. How can I fix it since, I didn't put any kind of validation in Id property? UPDATE: I don't know how or why, but renaming Id, in my case to PK, solves this problem. Do you know if this an issue in my logic/configuration or is an bug or expected behavior? Thank you

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  • Zend: Fetching row from session db table after generating session id

    - by Nux
    Hi, I'm trying to update the session table used by Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable directly after authenticating the user and writing the session to the DB. But I can neither update nor fetch the newly inserted row, even though the session id I use to check (Zend_Session::getId()) is valid and the row is indeed inserted into the table. Upon fetching all session ids (on the same request) the one I newly inserted is missing from the results. It does appear in the results if I fetch it with something else. I've checked whether it is a problem with transactions and that does not seem to be the problem - there is no active transaction when I'm fetching the results. I've also tried fetching a few seconds after writing using sleep(), which doesn't help. $auth->getStorage()->write($ident); //sleep(1) $update = $this->db->update('session', array('uid' => $ident->user_id), 'id='.$this->db->quote(Zend_Session::getId())); $qload = 'SELECT id FROM session'; $load = $this->db->fetchAll($qload); echo $qload; print_r($load); $update fails. $load doesn't contain the row that was written with $auth-getStorage()-write($identity). $qload does contain the correct query - copying it to somewhere else leads to the expected result, that is the inserted row is included in the results. Database used is MySQL - InnoDB. If someone knows how to directly fix this (i.e. on the same request, not doing something like updating after redirecting to another page) without modifying Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable: Thank you very much!

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  • nhibernate - mapping with contraints

    - by Tobias Müller
    Hello everybody, I am having a Problem with my nhibernate-mapping and I can't find a solution by searching on stackoverflow/google/documentation. The database I am using has (amongst others) two tables. One is unit with the following fields: id enduring_id starts ends damage_enduring_id [...] The other one is damage, which has the following fields: id enduring_id starts ends [...] The units are assigned to a damage and one damage can have zero, one or more units working on it. Every time a unit moves to annother damage, the dataset is copied. The field "ends" of the old record and "starts" of the new record are set to the current time stamp, enduring_id stays the same. So if I want to know which units were working on a damage at a certain time, I do the following select: select * from unit join damage on damage.enduring_id = unit.damage_enduring_id where unit.starts <= 'time' and unit.ends = 'time' (This is not an actualy query from the database, I made it up to make clear what I mean. The the real database is a little more complex) Now I want to map it that way, so I can load all the damages which are valid at one time (starts <= wanted time <= ends) and that each of them has a Bag with all the attached units at that time (again starts <= wanted time <= ends). Is this possible within the mapping? Sorry if this is a stupid question, but I am pretty new to nhibernate and I have no clue how to do it. Thanks a lot for reading my post! Bye, Tobias

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  • Android: Unable to make httprequest behind firewall

    - by Yang
    The standard getUrlContent works welll when there is no firewall. But I got exceptions when I try to do it behind a firewall. I've tried to set "http proxy server" in AVD manager, but it didn't work. Any idea how to correctly set it up? protected static synchronized String getUrlContent(String url) throws ApiException { if(url.equals("try")){ return "thanks"; } if (sUserAgent == null) { throw new ApiException("User-Agent string must be prepared"); } // Create client and set our specific user-agent string HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet request = new HttpGet(url); request.setHeader("User-Agent", sUserAgent); try { HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); // Check if server response is valid StatusLine status = response.getStatusLine(); if (status.getStatusCode() != HTTP_STATUS_OK) { throw new ApiException("Invalid response from server: " + status.toString()); } // Pull content stream from response HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); InputStream inputStream = entity.getContent(); ByteArrayOutputStream content = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); // Read response into a buffered stream int readBytes = 0; while ((readBytes = inputStream.read(sBuffer)) != -1) { content.write(sBuffer, 0, readBytes); } // Return result from buffered stream return new String(content.toByteArray()); } catch (IOException e) { throw new ApiException("Problem communicating with API", e); } }

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  • Manually start session with specific id / transitioning session cookie between domains

    - by deceze
    My host requires me to use a different domain for SSL secured access (shared SSL), so I need to transition the user session between two domains. One part of the page lives at http://example.com, while the SSL'd part is at https://example.hosting.com. As such I can't set a domain-spanning cookie. What I'm trying to do is to transition the session id over and re-set the cookie like this: http://example.com/normal/page, user clicks link to secure area and goes to: http://example.com/secure/page, which causes a redirect to: https://example.hosting.com/secure/page?sess=ikub..., which resurrects the session and sets a new cookie valid for the domain, then redirects to: https://example.hosting.com/secure/page This works up to the point where the session should be resurrected. I'm doing: function beforeFilter() { ... $this->Session->id($_GET['sess']); $this->Session->activate(); ... } As far as I can tell this should start the session with the given ID. It actually generates a new session ID though and this session is empty, the data is not restored. This is on CakePHP 1.2.4. Do I need to do something else, or is there a better way to do what I'm trying to do?

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  • Enumerating a string

    - by JamesB
    I have a status which is stored as a string of a set length, either in a file or a database. I'm looking to enumerate the possible status' I have the following type to define the possible status' Type TStatus = (fsNormal = Ord('N'),fsEditedOnScreen = Ord('O'), fsMissing = Ord('M'),fsEstimated = Ord('E'),fsSuspect = Ord('s'), fsSuspectFromOnScreen = Ord('o'),fsSuspectMissing = Ord('m'), fsSuspectEstimated = Ord('e')); Firstly is this really a good idea? or should I have a seperate const array storing the char conversions? That would mean more than one place to update. Now convert a string to a status array I have the following, but how can I check if a char is valid without looping through the enumeration? Function StrToStatus(Value : String):TStatusArray; var i: Integer; begin if Trim(Value) = '' then begin SetLength(Result,0); Exit; end; SetLength(Result,Length(Value)); for i := 1 to Length(Value) do begin Result[i] := TStatus(Value[i]); // I don't think this line is safe. end; end; AFAIK this should be fine for converting back again. Function StatusToStr(Value : TStatusArray):String; var i: Integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(Value) - 1 do Result := Result + Chr(Ord(Value[i])) end; I'm using Delphi 2007

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  • Dealing with a null datetime element within xml using linq

    - by diver-d
    HI I have an example document that looks like <ItemEntry> <PurchaseDate>2010-03-18T20:36:32.81108+13:00</PurchaseDate> <StoreGUID>0a0324ad-5f99-486a-a2d0-870bc6991e9f</StoreGUID> <ExpiryDate /> <CardID>111111</CardID> <PurchaseAmount>0</PurchaseAmount> <RedeemedAmount /> <EntryType>1</EntryType> <RedeemedDate /> <SalesAssistantID>0</SalesAssistantID> </ItemEntry> As you can see there are couple of elements ExpiryDate and RedeemedDate are are empty. var q = from c in xml.Elements("ItemEntry") select new mdDetail { PurchaseDate = (DateTime)c.Element("PurchaseDate"), StoreGUID = (Guid)c.Element("StoreGUID"), ExpiryDate = (DateTime?)c.Element("ExpiryDate")??DateTime.MinValue, CardID = (int)c.Element("CardID"), PurchaseAmount = (double)c.Element("PurchaseAmount"), RedeemedAmount = (double?)c.Element("RedeemedAmount"), EntryType = (int)c.Element("EntryType"), RedeemedDate = (DateTime?)c.Element("RedeemedDate") ??DateTime.MinValue, SalesAssistantID = (int)c.Element("SalesAssistantID"), } ; foreach (var item in q) { } I am not sure how to deal with the null element value, I have tried ??DateTime.MinValue and ??null however both give me a " String was not recognized as a valid DateTime." error. Any suggestions? Thank you

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  • Need help in tuning a sql-query

    - by Viper
    Hello, i need some help to boost this SQL-Statement. The execution time is around 125ms. During the runtime of my program this sql (better: equally structured sqls for different tables) will be called 300.000 times. The average row count in the tables lies around 10.000.000 rows and new rows (updates/inserts) will be added with a timestamp each day. Data which are interesting for this particular export-program lies in the last 1-3 days. Maybe this is helpful for an index to create. The data i need is the current valid row for a given id and the forerunner datarow to get the updates (if exists). We use a Oracle 11g database and Dot.Net Framework 3.5 SQL-Statement to boost: select ID_SOMETHING, -- Number(12) ID_CONTRIBUTOR, -- Char(4 Byte) DATE_VALID_FROM, -- DATE DATE_VALID_TO -- DATE from TBL_SOMETHING XID where ID_SOMETHING = :ID_INSTRUMENT and ID_CONTRIBUTOR = :ID_CONTRIBUTOR and DATE_VALID_FROM <= :EXPORT_DATE and DATE_VALID_TO >= :EXPORT_DATE order by DATE_VALID_FROM asc; Here i uploaded the current Explain-Plan for this query. I'm not a database expert so i don't know which index-type would fit best for this requirement. I have seen that there are many different possible index-types which could be applied. Maybe Oracle Optimizer Hints are helpful, too. Does anyone has a good idea for tuning this sql or can point me in a right direction?

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  • How to print "Hello, world!" (in every possible way)

    - by Attila Oláh
    Here's what I', trying to do: 1 language: (Python < 3): print "Hello, world!" 2 languages: (Python < 3 & Windows Shell, aka .bat file): rem=""" echo "Hello, world!" exit """ print "Hello, world!" Next step could be something like bash. Since the above one raises an exception, I tried to make it not raise exceptions, like this: rem=""" echo "Hello, world!" exit """ exit="" exit print "Hello, world!" The only issue is, of course, it won't print the hello world. And I really want it to print that hello world for me. Anyone can help with this? Also, any other language would do it, just don't break the previous ones (i.e. the answer still has to be valid Python code and print out the nice hello world greeting when run with Python.) Any ideas are welcome. I'm making this a community wiki so feel free to add ideas to the list.

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  • Shoulda and Paperclip testing

    - by trobrock
    I am trying to test a couple models that have an attachment with Paperclip. I have all of my validations passing except for the content-type check. # myapp/test/unit/project_test.rb should_have_attached_file :logo should_validate_attachment_presence :logo should validate_attachment_size(:logo).less_than(1.megabyte) should_validate_attachment_content_type :logo, :valid => ["image/png", "image/jpeg", "image/pjpeg", "image/x-png"] # myapp/app/models/project.rb has_attached_file :logo, :styles => { :small => "100x100>", :medium => "200x200>" } validates_attachment_presence :logo validates_attachment_size :logo, :less_than => 1.megabyte validates_attachment_content_type :logo, :content_type => ["image/png", "image/jpeg", "image/pjpeg", "image/x-png"] The errors I am getting: 1) Failure: test: Client should validate the content types allowed on attachment logo. (ClientTest) [/Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/assertions.rb:55:in `assert_accepts' vendor/plugins/paperclip/shoulda_macros/paperclip.rb:44:in `__bind_1276100387_499280' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:351:in `call' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/thoughtbot-shoulda-2.10.2/lib/shoulda/context.rb:351:in `test: Client should validate the content types allowed on attachment logo. ']: Content types image/png, image/jpeg, image/pjpeg, image/x-png should be accepted and rejected by logo This happens on two different models that are set up the same way.

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  • C# 4.0: casting dynamic to static

    - by Kevin Won
    This is an offshoot question that's related to another I asked here. I'm splitting it off because it's really a sub-question: I'm having difficulties casting an object of type dynamic to another (known) static type. I have an ironPython script that is doing this: import clr clr.AddReference("System") from System import * def GetBclUri(): return Uri("http://google.com") note that it's simply newing up a BCL System.Uri type and returning it. So I know the static type of the returned object. now over in C# land, I'm newing up the script hosting stuff and calling this getter to return the Uri object: dynamic uri = scriptEngine.GetBclUri(); System.Uri u = uri as System.Uri; // casts the dynamic to static fine Works no problem. I now can use the strongly typed Uri object as if it was originally instantiated statically. however.... Now I want to define my own C# class that will be newed up in dynamic-land just like I did with the Uri. My simple C# class: namespace Entity { public class TestPy // stupid simple test class of my own { public string DoSomething(string something) { return something; } } } Now in Python, new up an object of this type and return it: sys.path.append(r'C:..path here...') clr.AddReferenceToFile("entity.dll") import Entity.TestPy def GetTest(): return Entity.TestPy(); // the C# class then in C# call the getter: dynamic test = scriptEngine.GetTest(); Entity.TestPy t = test as Entity.TestPy; // t==null!!! here, the cast does not work. Note that the 'test' object (dynamic) is valid--I can call the DoSomething()--it just won't cast to the known static type string s = test.DoSomething("asdf"); // dynamic object works fine so I'm perplexed. the BCL type System.Uri will cast from a dynamic type to the correct static one, but my own type won't. There's obviously something I'm not getting about this...

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  • Thinking Sphinx with a date range

    - by Leddo
    Hi, I am implementing a full text search API for my rails apps, and so far have been having great success with Thinking Sphinx. I now want to implement a date range search, and keep getting the "bad value for range" error. Here is a snippet of the controller code, and i'm a bit stuck on what to do next. @search_options = { :page => params[:page], :per_page => params[:per_page]||50 } unless params[:since].blank? # make sure date is in specified format - YYYY-MM-DD d = nil begin d = DateTime.strptime(params[:since], '%Y-%m-%d') rescue raise ArgumentError, "Value for since parameter is not a valid date - please use format YYYY-MM-DD" end @search_options.merge!(:with => {:post_date => d..Time.now.utc}) end logger.info @search_options @posts = Post.search(params[:q], @search_options) When I have a look at the log, I am seeing this bit which seems to imply the date hasn't been converted into the same time format as the Time.now.utc. withpost_date2010-05-25T00:00:00+00:00..Tue Jun 01 17:45:13 UTC 2010 Any ideas? Basically I am trying to have the API request pass in a "since" date to see all posts after a certain date. I am specifying that the date should be in the YYYY-MM-DD format. Thanks for your help. Chris EDIT: I just changed the date parameters merge statement to this @search_options.merge!(:with = {:post_date = d.to_date..DateTime.now}) and now I get this error undefined method `to_i' for Tue, 25 May 2010:Date So obviously there is something still not setup right...

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  • Django ModelForm is giving me a validation error that doesn't make sense

    - by River Tam
    I've got a ModelForm based on a Picture. class Picture(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=100) pub_date = models.DateTimeField('date published') tags = models.ManyToManyField('Tag', blank=True) content = models.ImageField(upload_to='instaton') def __unicode__(self): return self.name class PictureForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = Picture exclude = ('pub_date','tags') That's the model and the ModelForm, of course. def submit(request): if request.method == 'POST': # if the form has been submitted form = PictureForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): return HttpResponseRedirect('/django/instaton') else: form = PictureForm() # blank form return render_to_response('instaton/submit.html', {'form': form}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) That's the view (which is being correctly linked to by urls.py) Right now, I do nothing when the form submits. I just check to make sure it's valid. If it is, I forward to the main page of the app. <form action="/django/instaton/submit/" method="post"> {% csrf_token %} {{ form.as_p }} <input type="submit" value"Submit" /> </form> And there's my template (in the correct location). When I try to actually fill out the form and just validate it, even if I do so correctly, it sends me back to the form and says "This field is required" between Name and Content. I assume it's referring to Content, but I'm not sure. What's my problem? Is there a better way to do this?

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  • PHP mySQL Error

    - by happyCoding25
    Hello, Im new to php so I decided to follow this tutorial for a simple login screen. I got the code setup but when I try login I get this error: Warning: mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in (a long file path to the script) on line 27 The code I got from the tutorial is: <?php ob_start(); $host="thehost"; // Host name $username="myusername"; // Mysql username $password="mypass"; // Mysql password $db_name="test"; // Database name $tbl_name="members"; // Table name // Connect to server and select databse. mysql_connect("$host", "$username", "$password")or die("cannot connect"); mysql_select_db("$db_name")or die("cannot select DB"); // Define $myusername and $mypassword $myusername=$_POST['myusername']; $mypassword=$_POST['mypassword']; // To protect MySQL injection (more detail about MySQL injection) $myusername = stripslashes($myusername); $mypassword = stripslashes($mypassword); $myusername = mysql_real_escape_string($myusername); $mypassword = mysql_real_escape_string($mypassword); $sql="SELECT * FROM $tbl_name WHERE username='$myusername' and password='$mypassword'"; $result=mysql_query($sql); // Mysql_num_row is counting table row $count=mysql_num_rows($result); // If result matched $myusername and $mypassword, table row must be 1 row if($count==1){ // Register $myusername, $mypassword and redirect to file "login_success.php" session_register("myusername"); session_register("mypassword"); header("location:login_success.php"); } else { echo "Wrong Username or Password"; } ob_end_flush(); ?> (Note: All of the mySQL database info is filled in on my version) Aslo, the author gives a php5 version and a normal php version. I have tried both and gotten the same error. If anyone knows why this is happening help is really appreciated.

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  • NHibernate: how to handle entity-based validation using session-per-request pattern, without control

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    What is the best way to do entity-based validation (each entity class has an IsValid() method that validates its internal members) in ASP.NET MVC, with a "session-per-request" model, where the controller has zero (or limited) knowledge of the ISession? Here's the pattern I'm using: Get an entity by ID, using an IFooRepository that wraps the current NH session. This returns a connected entity instance. Load the entity with potentially invalid data, coming from the form post. Validate the entity by callings its IsValid() method. If valid, call IFooRepository.Save(entity). Otherwise, display error message. The session is currently opened when the request begins and flushed when the request ends. Since my entity is connected to a session, flushing the session attempts to save the changes even if the object is invalid. What's the best way to keep validation logic in the entity class, limit controller knowledge of NH, and avoid saving invalid changes at the end of a request? Option 1: Explicitly evict on validation failure, implicitly flush: if the validation fails, I could manually evict the invalid object in the action method. If successful, I do nothing and the session is automatically flushed. Con: error prone and counter-intuitive ("I didn't call .Save(), why are my invalid changes being saved anyways?") Option 2: Explicitly flush, do nothing by default: By default I can dispose of the session on request end, only flushing if the controller indicates success. I'd probably create a SaveChanges() method in my base controller that sets a flag indicating success, and then query this flag when closing the session at request end. Pro: More intuitive to troubleshoot if dev forgets this step [relative to option 1] Con: I have to call IRepository.Save(entity)' and SaveChanges(). Option 3: Always work with disconnected objects: I could modify my repositories to return disconnected/transient objects, and modify the Repo.Save() method to re-attach them. Pro: Most intuitive, given that controllers don't know about NH. Con: Does this defeat many of the benefits I'd get from NH?

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  • MVC Localization of Default Model Binder

    - by Dai Bok
    Hi, I am currently trying to figure out how to localize the error messages generated by MVC. Let me use the default model binder as an example, so I can explain the problem. Assuming I have a form, where a user enters thier age. The user then enters "ten" in to the form, but instead of getting the expected error of "Age must be beween 18 and 25." the message "The value 'ten' is not valid for Age." is displayed. The entity's age property is defined below: [Range(18, 25, ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof (Errors), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Age", ErrorMessage = "Range_ErrorMessage")] public int Age { get; set; } After some digging, I notice that this error text comes from the System.Web.Mvc.Resources.DefaultModelBinder_ValueInvalid in the MvcResources.resx file. Now, how can create localized versions of this file? As A solution, for example, should I download MVC source and add MvcResources.en_GB.resx, MvcResources.fr_FR.resx, MvcResources.es_ES.resx and MvcResources.de_DE.resx, and then compile my own version of MVC.dll? But I don't like this idea. Any one else know a better way?

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  • what exactly is the danger of an uninitialized pointer in C

    - by akh2103
    I am trying get a handle on C as I work my way thru Jim Trevor's "Cyclone: A safe dialect of C" for a PL class. Trevor and his co-authors are trying to make a safe version of C, so they eliminate uninitialized pointers in their language. Googling around a bit on uninitialized pointers, it seems like un-initialized pointers point to random locations in memory. It seems like this alone makes them unsafe. If you reference an un-itilialized pointer, you jump to an unsafe part of memory. Period. But the way Trevor talks about them seems to imply that it is more complex. He cites the following code, and explains that when the function FrmGetObjectIndex dereferences f, it isn’t accessing a valid pointer, but rather an unpredictable address — whatever was on the stack when the space for f was allocated. What does Trevor mean by "whatever was on the stack when the space for f was allocated"? Are "un-initialized" pointers initialized to random locations in memory by default? Or does their "random" behavior have to do with the memory allocated for these pointers getting filled with strange values (that are then referenced) because of unexpected behavior on the stack. Form *f; switch (event->eType) { case frmOpenEvent: f = FrmGetActiveForm(); ... case ctlSelectEvent: i = FrmGetObjectIndex(f, field); ... }

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  • Converting Makefile to Visual Studio Terminology Questions (First time using VS)

    - by Ukko
    I am an old Unix guy who is converting a makefile based project over to Microsoft Visual Studio, I got tasked with this because I understand the Makefile which chokes VS's automatic import tools. I am sure there is a better way than what I am doing but we are making things fit into the customer's environment and that is driving my choices. So gmake is not a valid answer, even if it is the right one ;-) I just have a couple of questions on terminology that I think will be easy for an experienced (or junior) user to answer. Presently, a make all will generate several executables and a shared library. How should I structure this? Is it one "solution" with multiple projects? There is a body of common code (say 50%) that is shared between the various executable targets that is not in a formal library, if that matters. I thought I could just set up the first executable and then add targets for the others, but that does not seem to work. I know I am working against the tool, so what is the right way? I am also using Visual C++ 2010 Express to try and do this so that may also be a problem if support for multiple targets is not supported without using Visual C++ 2010 (insert superlative). Thanks, this is really one of those questions that should be answerable by a quick chat with the resident Windows Developer at the water cooler. So, I am asking at the virtual water cooler, I also spring for a virtual frosty beverage after work.

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  • NSDate out of scope

    - by therealtkd
    Having problems with out of scope for NSDate in an iphone app. I have an interface defined like this: @interface MyObject : NSoObject { NSMutableArray *array; BOOL checkThis; NSDate *nextDue; } Now in the implementation I have this: -(id) init { if( (self=[super init]) ) { checkThis = NO; array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; nextDue = [[NSDate date] retain]; NSDate *testDate = [NSDate date]; } return self; } Now, if I trace through the init, before I actually assign the variables checkThis shows as boolean. array shows as pointer 0x0 because it hasn't ben assigned. But the nextDue is showing as 'out of scope'. I don't understand why this is out of scope but the other variables aren't. If I trace through the code until after the variables are assigned, array now shows as being correctly assigned but nextDue is still out of scope. Interestingly, the testDate variable is assigned just fine and the debugger shows this as a valid date. Further interesting point is if I move the mouse over the testDate variable while I am debugging, it shows as an 'NSDate *' type which I would expect since that's its definition. Yet the nextDue, which to me is defined the same way is showing as a '_NSCFDate *'. Any googling I did on the subject said that the retain is the problem, but its actually out of scope before I even try to assign the variable. However, in another class, the same definition for NSDate work ok. It shows as nil before a value is assigned to it. Arghhh

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  • Reading and writing XML over an SslStream

    - by Mark
    I want to read and write XML data over an SslStream. The data (written and read) consists of objects serialized by an XmlSerializer. I have tried the following; (left some details out for clarity!) TcpClient tcpClient = new TcpClient(server, port); SslStream sslStream = new SslStream(tcpClient.GetStream(), true, new RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(ValidateServerCertificate), null); sslStream.AuthenticateAsClient(server); XmlReader xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(sslStream,readerSettings); XmlWriter xmlWriter = XmlWriter.Create(sslStream,writerSettings); myClass c = new myClass (); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(myClass)); serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, c); myClass c2 = (myClass )serializer.Deserialize(xmlReader); First of all, it appears that writing to the stream succeeds. But the XmlSerializer throws an error because of invalid XML. It appears that the first character read from the stream is '00' or a null-character. (I have googled this problem, and see a million people with the same 'problem', but no viable solution.) I can work around this 'issue' by using a StreamReader, read everything into a string and then use that string as input for another stream that the serializer can use. (Very dirty, but it works.) Second problem is, that when I try to use the same SslStream to write a second request, I do not get a response from the Reader. (The server DOES send a valid XML response though!) So the serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, c3) works, but reading from the stream yields no results. I have tried several different classes that implement Stream. (StreamReader, XmlTextReader, etc.) Anyone has an idea how reading and writing XML data to and from an SslStream is supposed to work? Thanks in advance!

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  • Development/runtime Licensing mechanism for a C# class library?

    - by Darryl
    I'm developing a .Net class library (a data provider) and I'm starting to think about how I would handle licensing the library to prospective purchasers. By licensing, I mean the mechanics of trying to prevent my library from being used by those who haven't purchased it, not the software license (i.e., Apache, Gnu, etc). I've never dealt with licensing, and in the past, I've always developed apps, not libraries. I don't want to make things difficult for my customers; know it is not possible to make it ironclad. Just some mechanism that gives me decent protection without making the customer jump through hoops or gnash their teeth. I think the mechanism would check for a valid license when the class is being used in development mode, and not in runtime mode (when the customer's software is released to their customers). I think libraries are typically sold per developer, but I'm not sure how that could be accomplished without making the mechanism odious for my customers; maybe that gets left to the honor system. I Googled this and found many approaches. Ideally, I'd like to do something that is generally accepted and common, the "right" way class libraries are licensed, if that exists, rather than making my customers deal with yet another license mechanism. A firm push in the right direction will be greatly appreciated!

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