Search Results

Search found 64605 results on 2585 pages for 'net questions'.

Page 261/2585 | < Previous Page | 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268  | Next Page >

• Using ASP.NET session state with Silverlight (PRISM)

  - by Jon Andersen

  Hi, The scenario: I have a PRISM application developed in Silverlight (4), and I'm using a ASP.NET server side application to host several web-services (which, in turn, accesses WCF-services, but that's not really important here). The Silverlight application must be able to call the web services cross-domain (meaning that the web services isn't necessarily on the same server hosting the silverlight application). The Silverlight application consists of several modules, each accessing the ASP.NET web-services. I do not have much experience with Silverlight and PRISM, but as far as I can see, this is not a very unusual scenario... The problem: My challange is, that when 2 different modules access the web-services, I get 2 new sessions on the web-server. I would have thought that since both modules live on the same HTML-page (and then also in the same browser session), they would get the same session on the web-server...? I have tried to make the web-service Proxy-client globally available in the container (using Unity), by registering an instance (using Container.RegisterInstance), and then getting this instance whenever a module needs to make a web-service call (using Container.Resolve), but this doesn't seem to help. However, any calls made within the same module always gets the same session on the server. Can anyone see what I'm missing here...? Thanks! Jon

  Read the article

• MSSQL in ASP.NET application getting unstable after a certain period

  - by Barslett

  Hello, I have an ASP.NET 2.0 application that I made to keep track of disruption reports about our public transport system. The architecture is pretty straight-forward; an MSSQL Express 2008 database, ADO.NET and a DataSet/DAL with a few methods to access the database. There is a set of .aspx pages for the UI in use by our dispatchers and on our public website, as well as a set of SOAP and REST webservices and an RSS feed. Everything worked just fine for more than a year, until two weeks ago. Now and then, it seems as the database enters an unstable mode, and the application starts responding something right, something wrong. The typical error is that apparently, an empty DataTable is returned to the public disruption overview or to the RSS generator. Thus, the user gets e.g. an empty GridView, but no exception is thrown AFAIK, and nothing is written to the Windows Application log. After a restart of the MSSQL Express service, the situation is back to normal. It has to be said that the situation first time appeared a few days after I made a new minor upgrade of the application. The RSS generator was slightly rewritten, and I added a WCF REST service. But the DAL and the database schema were untouched... Any hints of how we could keep the database stable? It is a bit annoying not to have a clue ;-)

  Read the article

• General String Encryption in .NET

  - by cryptospin

  I am looking for a general string encryption class in .NET. (Not to be confused with the 'SecureString' class.) I have started to come up with my own class, but thought there must be a .NET class that already allows you to encrypt/decrypt strings of any encoding with any Cryptographic Service Provider. Public Class SecureString Private key() As Byte Private iv() As Byte Private m_SecureString As String Public ReadOnly Property Encrypted() As String Get Return m_SecureString End Get End Property Public ReadOnly Property Decrypted() As String Get Return Decrypt(m_SecureString) End Get End Property Public Sub New(ByVal StringToSecure As String) If StringToSecure Is Nothing Then StringToSecure = "" m_SecureString = Encrypt(StringToSecure) End Sub Private Function Encrypt(ByVal StringToEncrypt As String) As String Dim result As String = "" Dim bytes() As Byte = Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(StringToEncrypt) Using provider As New AesCryptoServiceProvider() With provider .Mode = CipherMode.CBC .GenerateKey() .GenerateIV() key = .Key iv = .IV End With Using ms As New IO.MemoryStream Using cs As New CryptoStream(ms, provider.CreateEncryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write) cs.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length) cs.FlushFinalBlock() End Using result = Convert.ToBase64String(ms.ToArray()) End Using End Using Return result End Function Private Function Decrypt(ByVal StringToDecrypt As String) As String Dim result As String = "" Dim bytes() As Byte = Convert.FromBase64String(StringToDecrypt) Using provider As New AesCryptoServiceProvider() Using ms As New IO.MemoryStream Using cs As New CryptoStream(ms, provider.CreateDecryptor(key, iv), CryptoStreamMode.Write) cs.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length) cs.FlushFinalBlock() End Using result = Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()) End Using End Using Return result End Function End Class

  Read the article

• Good web hosting for ASP.NET MVC 1.0 app

  - by magellings

  I'm looking for hosting for an ASP.NET MVC 1.0 app. I've narrowed down with research to either asphostportal, asphostcentral, godaddy, or 1&1. I've ruled out crystaltech and softsyshosting due to price with better plans. Will be running a small e-commerce site written with ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and want to be sure it will work, as well as looking for cheapest price with best value in regards to disk space/bandwidth. And bandwidth is basically how much data can be sent from your site per month right? Any opinions appreciated as I'm finding this tough to narrow down. I know you can bin deploy MVC but heard full trust mode is required as well as some routing rules in IIS. 1&1 says they can't enable full trust. This is what I was looking at: name data(disk space/bandwidth) price MVCenabled crystal tech 500MB/50GB 7.95 + 7.95 setup 2000MB/200GB 16.95 softsyshosting 500MB/5GB 3.50 + 12/year domain 1000MB/10GB 5.84 3000MB/30GB 13.33 asphostportal 5GB/50GB 5.75 + 8.99/year yes 10GB/100GB 10.25 asphostcentral 2GB/15GB 4.99 yes 3GB/30GB 7.99/month domain free 5GB/40GB 11.99 godaddy 10GB/300GB 10.69 + 4.74/month 150GB/1500GB 6.99/month 1&1 10GB/unlimited 3.99 + free domain 150GB/unlimited 6.99 1&1 seems to be best value if MVC app will work. I'm a bit confused on bandwidth being unlimited. May seem like a good thing, but what if one website on the server is a resource hog because of this?

  Read the article

• Regular input in ASP.NET

  - by coffeeaddict

  Here's an example of a regular standard HTML input for my radiobuttonlist: <label><input type="radio" name="rbRSelectionGroup" checked value="0" />None</label> <asp:Repeater ID="rptRsOptions" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <div> <label><input type="radio" name="rbRSelectionGroup" value='<%# ((RItem)Container.DataItem).Id %>' /><%# ((RItem)Container.DataItem).Name %></label> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I removed some stuff for this thread, one being I put an r for some name that I do not want to expose here so just an fyi. Now, I would assume that this would or should happen: Page loads the first time, the None radio button is checked / defaulted I go and select a different radiobutton in this radiobutton list I do an F5 refresh in my browser The None radio button is pre-selected again after it has come back from the refresh but #4 is not happening. It's retaining the radiobutton that I selected in #2 and I don't know why. I mean in regular HTML it's stateless. So what could be holding this value? I want this to act like a normal input button. I know the question of "why not use an ASP.NET control" will come up. Well there are 2 reasons: The stupid radiobuttonlist bug that everyone knows about I just want to brush up more on standard input tags We are not moving to MVC so this is as close as I'll get and it's ok, because the rest of the team is on par with having mixed ASP.NET controls with standard HTML controls in our pages Anyway my main question here is I'm surprised that it's retaining the change in selection after postback.

  Read the article

• Connect to a remote Oracle 11g server using OracleClient of .NET 2.0

  - by Raghu M

  I have to connect to a Oracle server on the network using a .NET / C# (Winform) application. I am trying to use System.Data.OracleClient but in vain. Here are the details I can possibly think of (that might help someone reading this question): Platform: Visual Studio 2005 / .NET 2.0 with C# on Windows Vista Home Premium Library: System.Data.OracleClient Server: Oracle 11g (located on the same LAN) Please note that I don't have Oracle installed locally and I have hunted every discussion forum possible for help - but most of them assume local Oracle installation! Here is my connection string: "User Id=TSUSER;Password=ts12TS;Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=MyServerIP)(PORT=1521))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVICE_NAME=ORCL)));" And I get this error: OCIEnvCreate failed with return code -1 but error message text was not available. Stack trace: at System.Data.OracleClient.OciHandle..ctor(OciHandle parentHandle, HTYPE handleType, MODE ocimode, HANDLEFLAG handleflags) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection.OpenOnLocalTransaction(String userName, String password, String serverName, Boolean integratedSecurity, Boolean unicode, Boolean omitOracleConnectionName) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection..ctor(OracleConnectionString connectionOptions) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnection.Open() at DGKit.Util.DataUtil.Generate() in D:\SVNRoot\sandbox\DGDev\Util\DataUtil.cs:line 68

  Read the article

• Taking my ASP.NET from my local comp to the server

  - by Andrew G. Johnson

  Hi All, So I have been developing a small ASP.NET web app in C# for my company over the past few weeks and now I am trying to push it onto our Rackspace server. First step was to create a virtual directory because we want it to be www.ourdomain.com/appname/ and most of the stuff on ourdomain.com is currently in classic ASP. So I did this and then uploaded my stuff to the new folder. I *think* I did this at least semi-right because the error message I am getting is that nice puke color (ASP.NET style instead of classic ASP style) -- problem is it is generic and just saying runtime error. I tried just copy/pasting <customErrors mode="On" /> into the web.config file in the /appname/ directory but nothing changed So the actual questions are: How can I get a more descriptive error, when I was developing locally I just pushed the "play button" in VS2010 and it would either show me the app or tell me where I screwed up Is there anything else I'm doing wrong that may be causing this? If there's things I need to check lemme know!

  Read the article

• .NET consumer of ActiveX throwing TargetParameterCountException

  - by DevSolo

  I have a .NET (3.5 w/ Dev Studio 2008) app that hosts a visual Active X (written in C++ w/ Dev Studio 2003). Have access to all sources, but can't easily move the Active X control up to 2008. This as worked fine in the past. Made some changes to the Active X control and now, when calling one method on the Active X, I'm getting a TargetParameterCountException 100% of the time. The signature of the Active X method is: LONG CMyActive::License(LPCTSTR string1, LPCTSTR string2, LONG long1, LPCTSTR string3, LPCTSTR string4); When viewing the method in object browser of reflector, .NET sees it as: public virtual int License(string string1, string string2, int long1, string string3, string string4) I renamed the parameters for demonstration purpose (boss gets twitchy about any code). I left the method name, as it could be relevant. There are method calls prior that work. I just can't seen to figure out why I'm all of a sudden getting this exception. The HRESULT is 0x8002000e and a quick search seems to indicate that's a general one. Thanks to all for reading.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET Login Control rejects users who exist

  - by rsteckly

  Hi, I'm having some trouble with the ASP.NET 2.0 Login Control. I've setup a database with the aspI.net regsql tool. I've checked the application name. It is set to "/". The application can access the SQL Server. In fact, when I go to retrieve the password, it will even send me the password. Despite this, the login control continues to reject logins. I added this to the web.config: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetSqlProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="AspNetSqlProvider" connectionStringName="LocalSqlServer" applicationName="/" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"/> </providers> And I added the following to my connection strings: <remove name="LocalSqlServer" /> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Data Source=IDC-4\EXCALIBUR;Initial Catalog=allied_nr;Integrated Security=True;Asynchronous Processing=True"/> (Note the "remove name" is to get rid of the default connection string in the App_Data directory.) Why won't the login control authenticate users?

  Read the article

• asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation with web content

  - by Eyla

  I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); }); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

  Read the article

• Implementing MEF with ASP.NET MVC?

  - by mark smith

  I am trying to find out if anyone has any experience or ideas of using MEF (Managed Extensible Framework (Microsoft's new plugin framework) with ASP.NET MVC. I need to create a standard ASP.NET MVC, which I have. But I need to offer additional functionality i.e. Views and Controllers, etc, depending on if I add a plugin. It doesn't need to be dynamically compiled i.e. source code... but a DLL that i put into the system.. Is there any way to dynamically load a DLL when the app starts, and then MERGE a VIEWS and CONTROLLERS with the main system? I don't know if i am on the right track here. Then, I suppose in the "STANDARD" views that come with the app, I can use an "IF THEN" to find out if a plugin is loaded and MERGE in a user control. Well, I'm talking out loud here, but I think you understand what I am getting at. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation wormith web content

  - by Eyla

  I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

  Read the article

• Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

  - by Kannabiran

  I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

  Read the article

• VB.NET 2008, Windows 7 and saving files

  - by James Brauman

  Hello, We have to learn VB.NET for the semester, my experience lies mainly with C# - not that this should make a difference to this particular problem. I've used just about the most simple way to save a file using the .NET framework, but Windows 7 won't let me save the file anywhere (or anywhere that I have found yet). Here is the code I am using to save a text file. Dim dialog As FolderBrowserDialog = New FolderBrowserDialog() Dim saveLocation As String = dialog.SelectedPath ... Build up output string ... Try ' Try to write the file. My.Computer.FileSystem.WriteAllText(saveLocation, output, False) Catch PermissionEx As UnauthorizedAccessException ' We do not have permissions to save in this folder. MessageBox.Show("Do not have permissions to save file to the folder specified. Please try saving somewhere different.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error) Catch Ex As Exception ' Catch any exceptions that occured when trying to write the file. MessageBox.Show("Writing the file was not successful.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error) End Try The problem is that this using this code throws an UnauthorizedAccessException no matter where I try to save the file. I've tried running the .exe file as administrator, and the IDE as administrator. Is this just Windows 7 being overprotective? And if so, what can I do to solve this problem? The requirements state that I be able to save a file! Thanks.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET - Webservice not being called from javascript

  - by Robert

  Ok I'm stumped on this one. I've got a ASMX web service up and running. I can browse to it (~/Webservice.asmx) and see the .NET generated page and test it out.. and it works fine. I've got a page with a Script Manager with the webservice registered... and i can call it in javascript (Webservice.Method(...)) just fine. However, I want to use this Webservice as part of a jQuery Autocomplete box. So I have use the url...? and the Webservice is never being called. Here's the code. [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class User : System.Web.Services.WebService { public User () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public string Autocomplete(string q) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); //doStuff return sb.ToString(); } web.config <system.web> <webServices> <protocols> <add name="HttpGet"/> <add name="HttpPost"/> </protocols> </webServices> And the HTML $(document).ready(function() { User.Autocomplete("rr", function(data) { alert(data); });//this works ("#<%=txtUserNbr.ClientID %>").autocomplete("/User.asmx/Autocomplete"); //doesn't work $.ajax({ url: "/User.asmx/Autocomplete", success: function() { alert(data); }, error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); //just to test... calls "error" function });

  Read the article

• Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

  - by vIceBerg

  I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

  Read the article

• ASP.Net : Error in sending EMail from Google Apps hosted at Godaddy

  - by user279244

  Hello, I want to send EMail from my Website hosted at GoDaddy, and we are using Google Apps for Emails. Here is my code in ASP.Net/ C# MailMessage mMailMessage = new MailMessage(); mMailMessage.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "GotFeedback", System.Text.Encoding.UTF8); mMailMessage.To.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]")); mMailMessage.Subject = "subject"; mMailMessage.SubjectEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; mMailMessage.Body = body; mMailMessage.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; mMailMessage.IsBodyHtml = true; mMailMessage.Priority = MailPriority.Normal; SmtpClient mSmtpClient = new SmtpClient(); mSmtpClient.UseDefaultCredentials = false; mSmtpClient.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("[email protected]", "mypassword"); mSmtpClient.Host = "SMTP.GOOGLE.COM"; mSmtpClient.Port = 587; mSmtpClient.EnableSsl = true; try { mSmtpClient.Send(mMailMessage); } catch(Exception e) { string edsf = e.ToString(); } But I am getting Exception that it is unable to connect to remote server. Please help. Thanks

  Read the article

• Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework Sports Store tutorial

  - by gary7

  Following the tutorial in the book "Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework" in Chapter 9 - Image Uploads section; asks that the Product class be updated with two new columns - public byte ImageData, and public string ImageType. It also directs that the database be updated with these two columns via the server explorer. After these updates, the discussion directs that the Entity Framework Conceptual Model be updated via the SportsStore.EDMX file. This file does not exist in the source code for the project, and was not used in the project to begin with. Obvious errata for the book. Adding the ADO.NET Entity Data Model to the Project then overrides the EFProduct reposistory (conceptual model used throughout the project) which inherits from the interface IProductsRepository; and results in errors within the mapping. If the project is debugged after the columns are added, an error is thrown related to the new added columns. Has anyone resolved this issue in the project? I haven't found any solutions so far. Thanks!

  Read the article

• VB .NET error handling, pass error to caller

  - by user1375452

  this is my very first project on vb.net and i am now struggling to migrate a vba working add in to a vb.net COM Add-in. I think i'm sort of getting the hang, but error handling has me stymied. This is a test i've been using to understand the try-catch and how to pass exception to caller Public Sub test() Dim ActWkSh As Excel.Worksheet Dim ActRng As Excel.Range Dim ActCll As Excel.Range Dim sVar01 As String Dim iVar01 As Integer Dim sVar02 As String Dim iVar02 As Integer Dim objVar01 As Object ActWkSh = Me.Application.ActiveSheet ActRng = Me.Application.Selection ActCll = Me.Application.ActiveCell iVar01 = iVar02 = 1 sVar01 = CStr(ActCll.Value) sVar02 = CStr(ActCll.Offset(1, 0).Value) Try objVar01 = GetValuesV(sVar01, sVar02) 'DO SOMETHING HERE Catch ex As Exception MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) 'LOG ERROR SOMEWHERE Finally MsgBox("DONE!") End Try End Sub Private Function GetValuesV(ByVal QryStr As Object, ByVal qryConn As String) As Object Dim cnn As Object Dim rs As Object Try cnn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") cnn.Open(qryConn) rs = CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") rs = cnn.Execute(QryStr) If rs.EOF = False Then GetValuesV = rs.GetRows Else Throw New System.Exception("Query Return Empty Set") End If Catch ex As Exception Throw ex Finally rs.Close() cnn.Close() End Try End Function i'd like to have the error message up to test, but MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) pops out something unexpected (Object variable or With block variable not set) What am i doing wrong here?? Thanks D

  Read the article

• ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

  - by Allen E. Scharfenberg

  Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

  Read the article

• Cannot connect to SQL Server from ASP.NET MVC app

  - by Dan Fergus

  I have an ASP.NET MVC app that has on a hosted server for over a year, connecting to SQL Server. I've had to change hosting services, the new one supports MVC 1.0. I've also moved a non MVC ASP app to the same hosting service. Now, MY MVC based app retturnes this error when I try to validate a user login. A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) Now, the non-MVC app can access the exact same database and authenticate users just fine. The MVC app, when run from my dev box connects fine. It also run/connects/authenticates without problem when I install and run the site from an internal SQL 2008 server running IIS 7. I, along with the hosting support techs, am at a loss how the exact same connect string works every where except on the hosted server, and only when run from inside an ASP.NET MVC web app. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

  - by IrfanRaza

  Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

  Read the article

• How to prevent ADO.NET from altering double values when it reads from Excel files

  - by Khnle

  I have the following rows in my Excel input file: Column1 Column2 0-5 3.040 6 2.957 7 2.876 and the following code which uses ADO.NET to read it: string fileName = "input.xls"; var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; data source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;", fileName); var dbConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); dbConnection.Open(); try { var dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]", dbConnection); var dbReader = dbCommand.ExecuteReader (); while (dbReader.Read()) { string col1 = dbReader.GetValue(0).ToString(); string col2 = dbReader.GetValue(1).ToString(); } } finally { dbConnection.Close(); } The results are very disturbing. Here's why: The values of each column in the first time through the loop: col1 is empty (blank) col2 is 3.04016411633586 Second time: col1 is 6 col2 is 2.95722928448829 Third time: col1 is 7 col2 is 2.8763272933077 The first problem happens with col1 in the first iteration. I expect 0-5. The second problem happens at every iteration with col2 where ADO.NET obviously alters the values as it reads them. How to stop this mal-behavior?

  Read the article

• Publishing WCF .NET 3.5 to IIS 5.1

  - by Adam

  I've been developing a WCF web service using .NET 3.5 with IIS7 and it works perfectly on my local computer. I tried publishing it to a server running IIS 5.1 and even though I can view the WSDL in my browser, the client application doesn't seem to be connecting to it correctly. I launched a packet sniffing app (Charles Proxy) and the response for the first message comes back to the client empty (0 bytes). Every message after the first one times out. The WCF service is part of a larger application that uses ASP .NET 3.5. That application has been working fine on IIS 5.1 for awhile now so I think it's something specific to WCF. I also tried throwing an exception in the SVC file to see if it made it that far and the exception never got thrown so I have a feeling it's something more low level that's not working. Any thoughts? Is there anything I need to install on the IIS5 server? If so how am I still able to view the WSDL in my browser?

  Read the article

• Help with use of .NET Generics/Dictionary in replacing my Arrays

  - by Rollo R

  Hello, I have these code: Mypage.cs string[] strParameterName = new string[2] {"?FirstName", "?LastName"}; string[] strParameterValue = new string[2] {"Josef", "Stalin"}; MyConnection.MySqlLink(strConnection, strCommand, strParameterName, strParameterValue, dtTable); Myclass.cs public static void MySqlLink(string strConnection, string strCommand, string[] strParameterName, string[] strParameterValue, DataTable dtTable) { dtTable.Clear(); MySqlConnection MyConnection = new MySqlConnection(strConnection); MySqlCommand MyCommand = new MySqlCommand(strCommand, MyConnection); for (int i = 0; i < strParameterName.Length; i++) { MyCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue(strParameterName[i].ToString(), strParameterValue[i].ToString()); } MySqlDataAdapter MyDataAdapter = new MySqlDataAdapter(MyCommand); MyDataAdapter.Fill(dtTable); } And then my Sql Command will be something like "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE FirstName=?FirstName AND LastName=?LastName" As you can see, I am using arrays for the Parameter Name and Parameter Value and they both have to "match" with each other and ofcourse the Sql Command. Someone recommended to me that I use .NET "Dictionary" instead of arrays. Now I have never used that before. Can someone show me a relative example of how I am to use .NET Dictionary here?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268  | Next Page >