Search Results

Search found 7914 results on 317 pages for 'valid xhtml'.

Page 264/317 | < Previous Page | 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271  | Next Page >

  • django: How to make one form from multiple models containing foreignkeys

    - by Tim
    I am trying to make a form on one page that uses multiple models. The models reference each other. I am having trouble getting the form to validate because I cant figure out how to get the id of two of the models used in the form into the form to validate it. I used a hidden key in the template but I cant figure out how to make it work in the views My code is below: views: def the_view(request, a_id,): if request.method == 'POST': b_form= BForm(request.POST) c_form =CForm(request.POST) print "post" if b_form.is_valid() and c_form.is_valid(): print "valid" b_form.save() c_form.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('myproj.pro.views.this_page')) else: b_form= BForm() c_form = CForm() b_ide = B.objects.get(pk=request.b_id) id_of_a = A.objects.get(pk=a_id) return render_to_response('myproj/a/c.html', {'b_form':b_form, 'c_form':c_form, 'id_of_a':id_of_a, 'b_id':b_ide }) models class A(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) classe = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) def __str__(self): return self.name class B(models.Model): aid = models.ForeignKey(A, null=True, blank=True) number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) other_number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) class C(models.Model): bid = models.ForeignKey(B, null=False, blank=False) field_name = models.CharField(max_length=15) field_value = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) forms from mappamundi.mappa.models import A, B, C class BForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = B exclude = ('aid',) class CForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = C exclude = ('bid',) B has a foreign key reference to A, C has a foreign key reference to B. Since the models are related, I want to have the forms for them on one page, 1 submit button. Since I need to fill out fields for the forms for B and C & I dont want to select the id of B from a drop down list, I need to somehow get the id of the B form into the form so it will validate. I have a hidden field in the template, I just need to figure how to do it in the views

    Read the article

  • Google Spreadsheet API problem: memory exceeded

    - by Robbert
    Hi guys, Don't know if anyone has experience with the Google Spreadsheets API or the Zend_GData classes but it's worth a go: When I try to insert a value in a 750 row spreadsheet, it takes ages and then throws an error that my memory limit (which is 128 MB!) was exceeded. I also got this when querying all records of this spreadsheet but this I can imaging because it's quite a lot of data. But why does this happen when inserting a row? That's not too complex, is it? Here's the code I used: public function insertIntoSpreadsheet($username, $password, $spreadSheetId, $data = array()) { $service = Zend_Gdata_Spreadsheets::AUTH_SERVICE_NAME; $client = Zend_Gdata_ClientLogin::getHttpClient($username, $password, $service); $client->setConfig(array( 'timeout' => 240 )); $service = new Zend_Gdata_Spreadsheets($client); if (count($data) == 0) { die("No valid data"); } try { $newEntry = $service->insertRow($data, $spreadSheetId); return true; } catch (Exception $e) { return false; } }

    Read the article

  • drupal: standard way for creating a slug from a string

    - by egarcia
    Hi there, A slug on this context is a string that its safe to use as an identifier, on urls or css. For example, if you have this string: I'd like to eat at McRunchies! Its slug would be: i-d-like-to-eat-at-mcrunchies- I want to know whether there's a standard way of building such strings on Drupal (or php functions available from drupal). More precisely, inside a Drupal theme. Context: I'm modifying a drupal theme so the html of the nodes it generates include their taxonomy terms as css classes on their containing div. Trouble is, some of those terms' names aren't valid css class names. I need to "slugify" the them. I've read that some people simply do this: str_replace(" ", "-", $term->name) This isn't really a enough for me. It doesn't replace uppercase letters with downcase, but more importantly, doesn't replace non-ascii characters (like à or é) by their ascii equivalents. Is there a function in drupal 6 (or the php libs) that provides a way to slugify a string, and can be used on a template.php file of a drupal theme?

    Read the article

  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by burnt_hand
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

    Read the article

  • small code redundancy within while-loops (doesn't feel clean)

    - by wallacoloo
    So, in Python (though I think it can be applied to many languages), I find myself with something like this quite often: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") while the_input != "quit": print the_input the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") Maybe I'm being too picky, but I don't like how the line the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") has to get repeated. It decreases maintainability and organization. But I don't see any workarounds for avoiding the duplicate code without further decreasing the problem. In some languages, I could write something like this: while ((the_input=raw_input("what to print?\n")) != "quit") { print the_input } This is definitely not Pythonic, and Python doesn't even allow for assignment within loop conditions AFAIK. This valid code fixes the redundancy, while 1: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") if the_input == "quit": break print the_input But doesn't feel quite right either. The while 1 implies that this loop will run forever; I'm using a loop, but giving it a fake condition and putting the real one inside it. Am I being too picky? Is there a better way to do this? Perhaps there's some language construct designed for this that I don't know of?

    Read the article

  • Converting Generic Type into reference type after checking its type using GetType(). How ?

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    i am trying to call a function that is defined in a class RFIDeas_Wrapper(dll being used). But when i checked for type of reader and after that i used it to call function it shows me error Cannot convert type T to RFIDeas_Wrapper. EDIT private List<string> GetTagCollection<T>(T Reader) { TagCollection = new List<string>(); if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(RFIDeas_Wrapper)) { ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); // here Reader is of type RFIDeas_Wrapper //, but i m not able to convert Reader into its datatype. string Tag_Id = ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).TagID(); //Adds Valid Tag Ids into the collection if(Tag_Id!="0") TagCollection.Add(Tag_Id); } else if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(AlienReader)) TagCollection = ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; return TagCollection; } ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); , ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; I want this line to be executed without any issue. As Reader will always be of the type i m specifying. How to make compiler understand the same thing.

    Read the article

  • JTA or LOCAL transactions in JPA2+Hibernate 3.6.0?

    - by Pangea
    We are in the process of re-thinking our tech stack and below are our choices (We can't live without Spring and Hibernate due to the complexity etc of the app). We are also moving from J2EE 1.4 to JEE 5. Tech stack JEE 5 JPA 2.0 (I know JEE 5 only supports JPA 1.0 but we want to use Hibernate as the JPA provider) Hibernate 3.6.0 (We already have lots of hbm files with custom types etc. so we doesn't want to migrate them at this time to JPA. This means we want both jpa/hbm mappings work together and hence the Hibernate as the JPA provider instead of using the default that comes with App Server) Now the problems is that I want to stick with local transactions but other team members want to use JTA. I have been working with J2EE for last 9 years and I've heard time and again people suggesting to stick with local transactions if I doesn't need two phase commits. This is not only for performance reasons but debugging/troubleshooting a local transaction is lot easier than a distributed transaction. My suggestion is to use spring declarative transaction management + local transactions (HibernateTransactionManager) I want to make sure if I am being paranoid or I have a valid point. I'd like to hear what the rest of the JEE world thinks. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Should I return an NSMutableString in a method that returns NSString

    - by Casey Marshall
    Ok, so I have a method that takes an NSString as input, does an operation on the contents of this string, and returns the processed string. So the declaration is: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str; The question: should I just return the NSMutableString instance that I used as my "work" buffer, or should I create a new NSString around the mutable one, and return that? So should I do this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return work; } Or this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return [NSString stringWithString: work]; // or [work stringValue]? } The second one makes another copy of the string I'm returning, unless NSString does smart things like copy-on-modify. But the first one is returning something the caller could, in theory, go and modify later. I don't care if they do that, since the string is theirs. But are there valid reasons for preferring the latter form over the former? And, is either stringWithString or stringValue preferred over the other?

    Read the article

  • exec() in BeanShell macro causes jEdit to hang when it returns non-zero exit code

    - by rossmeissl
    I have a jEdit BeanShell macro that runs my Markdown files through Maruku when I save them: if (buffer.getMode().toString().equals("markdown")) { cmd = "C:\\Ruby\\bin\\maruku.bat -o " + buffer.getDirectory() + buffer.getName().replaceAll("markdown$", "html") + " " + buffer.getPath(); exec(cmd); } This works great when the Markdown file is valid. But if I've made a mistake, jEdit just waits around forever for the exec() call to "succeed," which it never will. When this happens, I have to kill jEdit's javaw.exe process and run Maruku manually from the command line to discover the error, e.g.: E:\bp\plan\supply_chain>maruku business_plan.markdown ___________________________________________________________________________ | Maruku tells you: +--------------------------------------------------------------------------- | Could not find ref_id = "17" for md_link(["17"],"17") | Available refs are [] +--------------------------------------------------------------------------- !C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/maruku-0.6.0/lib/maruku/errors_management.rb:49:in `maruku_error' !C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/maruku-0.6.0/lib/maruku/output/to_html.rb:716:in `to_html_link' !C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/maruku-0.6.0/lib/maruku/output/to_html.rb:970:in `send' !C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/maruku-0.6.0/lib/maruku/output/to_html.rb:970:in `array_to_html' !C:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/maruku-0.6.0/lib/maruku/output/to_html.rb:961:in `each' \___________________________________________________________________________ Not creating a link for ref_id = "17". Then I restart jEdit, fix the error, and re-save the file, at which point the macro succeeds. How can I make my macro more resilient to either die helpfully (display Maruku's error output) or, at the very least, die silently so I don't have to kill jEdit?

    Read the article

  • Delphi Pascal / Windows API - Small problem with SetFilePointerEx and parameter FILE_END

    - by SuicideClutchX2
    I know I am about to be slapped by at least one person who was helping me with this API. Alright I have been able to use SetFilePointerEx just fine, when setting the position only. SetFilePointerEx(PD,512,@PositionVar,FILE_BEGIN); SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,@PositionVar,FILE_CURRENT); Both work, I can set positions and even check my current one. But when I set FILE_END as per the documentation no matter what the second parameter is and whether or not i provide a pointer for the third parameter it fails even on a valid handle that many other operations are able to use without fail. For Example: SetFailed := SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,@PositionVar,FILE_END); SetFailed := SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,nil,FILE_END); Whatever I put it fails. I am working with a handle to a physical disk and it most definitely has an end. SetFilePointer works just fine its just a little more trouble than I would like. Its not the end of the world, but whats happening.

    Read the article

  • A weird crash...

    - by Nima
    Hi, I have a piece of code that runs in debug mode in VS2008, C++. The problem is that when I am debugging the code line by line, at a very weird point of the code, it crashes and says: debug assertion faild. Expression: _BLOCK_TYPE_IS_VALID(pHead-nBlockUse) The crash point is on the first closed curly bracket (after mesh-edges[e].needsUpdate=false;) I don't understand why on a curly bracket? does that make sense to you guys? Can anybody help me understanding what is going on..? for(int e=0; e<mesh->edges.size(); e++) { if(mesh->edges[e].valid && mesh->edges[e].v[0]>=0 && mesh->edges[e].v[1]>=0 && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[0]].writable && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[1]].writable) { //update v_hat and its corresponding error DecEdge Current = DecEdge(e); pair<Point, float> ppf = computeVhat(e); Current.v_hat = ppf.first; Current.error = ppf.second; edgeSoup.push(Current); mesh->edges[e].needsUpdate=false; } }

    Read the article

  • converting a timestring to a duration

    - by radman
    Hi, At the moment I am trying to read in a timestring formatted and create a duration from that. I am currently trying to use the boost date_time time_duration class to read and store the value. boost date_time provides a method time_duration duration_from_string(std::string) that allows a time_duration to be created from a time string and it accepts strings formatted appropriately ("[-]h[h][:mm][:ss][.fff]".). Now this method works fine if you use a correctly formatted time string. However if you submit something invalid like "ham_sandwich" or "100" then you will still be returned a time_duration that is not valid. Specifically if you try to pass it to a standard output stream then an assertion will occur. My question is: Does anyone know how to test the validity of the boost time_duration? and failing that can you suggest another method of reading a timestring and getting a duration from it? Note: I have tried the obvious testing methods that time_duration provides; is_not_a_date_time(), is_special() etc and they don't pick up that there is an issue. Using boost 1.38.0

    Read the article

  • Android "first time" app user tutorial

    - by EGHDK
    I'm trying to create an opening tutorial that consists of four panes for my application, but since I'm new to Android, I want to make sure I'm considering all of my options before marking this task as "complete". I know of three ways, I can only really accomplish one. There are no requirements for this tutorial, but some "wanted features" would be a sliding action to each pane would be nice as well as the image and the bottom (navigation circles) not moving and the title on top not moving. One Way 4 separate activities and 4 separate layouts The red circled items are textViews that are centered horizontally and pushed off the top. The white circled items are imageViews that are centered horizontally and vertically. The purple circled are imageViews that are centered horizontally and pushed off the bottom. Second Way 4 fragments on one activity Fragments were difficult to learn, but the more I read about them/see tutorials on them, they seem to only really be used for tablets. Would it be a valid way to accomplish this? Third Way ViewPager? http://android-developers.blogspot.com/2011/08/horizontal-view-swiping-with-viewpager.html I've never used this before, but I know it's an option. Final Question Which way is used more often/what's the proper way to implement this? Is there any way to only have the middle part (the image) slide in, but the title (top) and the navigation images (bottom) just change once the image slides in?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server - Complex Dynamic Pivot columns

    - by user972255
    I have two tables "Controls" and "ControlChilds" Parent Table Structure: Create table Controls( ProjectID Varchar(20) NOT NULL, ControlID INT NOT NULL, ControlCode Varchar(2) NOT NULL, ControlPoint Decimal NULL, ControlScore Decimal NULL, ControlValue Varchar(50) ) Sample Data ProjectID | ControlID | ControlCode | ControlPoint | ControlScore | ControlValue P001 1 A 30.44 65 Invalid P001 2 C 45.30 85 Valid Child Table Structure: Create table ControlChilds( ControlID INT NOT NULL, ControlChildID INT NOT NULL, ControlChildValue Varchar(200) NULL ) Sample Data ControlID | ControlChildID | ControlChildValue 1 100 Yes 1 101 No 1 102 NA 1 103 Others 2 104 Yes 2 105 SomeValue Output should be in a single row for a given ProjectID with all its Control values first & followed by child control values (based on the ControlCode (i.e.) ControlCode_Child (1, 2, 3...) and it should look like this Also, I tried this PIVOT query and I am able to get the ChildControls table values but I dont know how to get the Controls table values. DECLARE @cols AS NVARCHAR(MAX); DECLARE @query AS NVARCHAR(MAX); select @cols = STUFF((SELECT distinct ',' + QUOTENAME(ControlCode + '_Child' + CAST(ROW_NUMBER() over(PARTITION BY ControlCode ORDER BY ControlChildID) AS Varchar(25))) FROM Controls C INNER JOIN ControlChilds CC ON C.ControlID = CC.ControlID FOR XML PATH(''), TYPE ).value('.', 'NVARCHAR(MAX)') , 1, 1, ''); SELECT @query ='SELECT * FROM ( SELECT (ControlCode + ''_Child'' + CAST(ROW_NUMBER() over(PARTITION BY ControlCode ORDER BY ControlChildID) AS Varchar(25))) As Code, ControlChildValue FROM Controls AS C INNER JOIN ControlChilds AS CC ON C.ControlID = CC.ControlID ) AS t PIVOT ( MAX(ControlChildValue) FOR Code IN( ' + @cols + ' )' + ' ) AS p ; '; execute(@query); Output I am getting: Can anyone please help me on how to get the Controls table values in front of each ControlChilds table values?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET/C#: How to use a Subclassed Control on a Page?

    - by Bob Kaufman
    I've subclassed DropDownList to add functionality specific to my application: public class MyDropDownList : DropDownList { ... } ... then referenced it in Web.Config, which is where I figure things start to go wrong: <pages theme="Main"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="bob" tagName="MyDropDownList" src="~/Components/MyDropDownList.cs" /> </controls> </pages> my reference to it does not work: <tr><td>Category</td> <td><bob:MyDropDownList runat="server" ID="Category"... /> and my best clue is the complier error message: "The file 'src' is not a valid [sic] here because it doesn't expose a type." I figure I'm misapplying knowledge of how to create a Web User Control here. What I want to be able to do is refer to this control on an ASP.NET page just like I would the parent DropDownList. Refactoring back into a Web User Control that contains a DropDownList is not desirable, because I want to apply a RequiredFieldValidator to it.

    Read the article

  • How to transform a production to LL(1) for a list separated by a semicolon?

    - by Subb
    Hi, I'm reading this introductory book on parsing (which is pretty good btw) and one of the exercice is to "build a parser for your favorite language." Since I don't want to die today, I thought I could do a parser for something relatively simple, ie a simplified CSS. Note: This book teach you how to right a LL(1) parser using the recursive-descent algorithm. So, as a sub-exercice, I am building the grammar from what I know of CSS. But I'm stuck on a production that I can't transform in LL(1) : //EBNF block = "{", declaration, {";", declaration}, [";"], "}" //BNF <block> =:: "{" <declaration> "}" <declaration> =:: <single-declaration> <opt-end> | <single-declaration> ";" <declaration> <opt-end> =:: "" | ";" This describe a CSS block. Valid block can have the form : { property : value } { property : value; } { property : value; property : value } { property : value; property : value; } ... The problem is with the optional ";" at the end, because it overlap with the starting character of {";", declaration}, so when my parser meet a semicolon in this context, it doesn't know what to do. The book talk about this problem, but in its example, the semicolon is obligatory, so the rule can be modified like this : block = "{", declaration, ";", {declaration, ";"}, "}" So, Is it possible to achieve what I'm trying to do using a LL(1) parser?

    Read the article

  • Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

    - by Jonners
    Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

    Read the article

  • IE8 claims my page has an error, firefox doesn't, and I can't find any error. Help!

    - by Bears will eat you
    This is something of a follow-up question to my question here. You can find the HTML source in a text file here. When I load that page in IE8, I get the "Done, but with errors on page." message in my status bar. The detail view shows Expected identifier sms Line: 147 Code: 0 Char: 67 and I see absolutely no problems anywhere near there. In IE8, the page is still behaving erratically w/r/t the randomly losing focus as mentioned in my other question. When I load the same exact page in Firefox (using Firebug) the console shows no errors and the page works perfectly. Any thoughts on what's going on here? This is driving me nuts and making me want to give up on even trying to write an IE friendly page. Edit: Thanks for all the comments! This page is written as a JSP, so I edit in Eclipse. I found an Eclipse warning about the onblur event for the username field. I switched it from onblur="alert(document.activeElement + ' class:' + document.activeElement.class)" to onblur="alert(document.activeElement)" and that made the bizarre IE page error vanish. I had been trying to give more info (namely, its CSS class) about specifically which element is stealing focus - to my own detriment, apparently, since Javascript was interpreting the '.class' part in the Java(script) sense. And, no, the page doesn't validate. But the errors were mostly/all ones that just didn't make sense, such as Line 14, Column 41: Attribute "LANGUAGE" is not a valid attribute. Did you mean "language"? to which I say, WTF?! But I'm still stuck trying to figure out why, as I enter text in the username & password fields, focus randomly switches to a div (working on figuring out which div currently). Edit 2: It's the div between the two "global nav" comments, at the very top of the body. Still no idea why it's happening, though.

    Read the article

  • Filtering on a left join in SQLalchemy

    - by Adam Ernst
    Using SQLalchemy I want to perform a left outer join and filter out rows that DO have a match in the joined table. I'm sending push notifications, so I have a Notification table. This means I also have a ExpiredDeviceId table to store device_ids that are no longer valid. (I don't want to just delete the affected notifications as the user might later re-install the app, at which point the notifications should resume according to Apple's docs.) CREATE TABLE Notification (device_id TEXT, time DATETIME); CREATE TABLE ExpiredDeviceId (device_id TEXT PRIMARY KEY, expiration_time DATETIME); Note: there may be multiple Notifications per device_id. There is no "Device" table for each device. So when doing SELECT FROM Notification I should filter accordingly. I can do it in SQL: SELECT * FROM Notification LEFT OUTER JOIN ExpiredDeviceId ON Notification.device_id = ExpiredDeviceId.device_id WHERE expiration_time == NULL But how can I do it in SQLalchemy? sess.query( Notification, ExpiredDeviceId ).outerjoin( (ExpiredDeviceId, Notification.device_id == ExpiredDeviceId.device_id) ).filter( ??? ) Alternately I could do this with a device_id NOT IN (SELECT device_id FROM ExpiredDeviceId) clause, but that seems way less efficient.

    Read the article

  • How to have an iCalendar (RFC 2445) repeat YEARLY with duration

    - by Todd Brooks
    I have been unsuccessful in formulating a RRULE that would allow an event as shown below: Repeats YEARLY, from first Sunday of April to last day of May, occuring on Monday, Wednesday and Friday, until forever. FREQ=YEARLY;BYMONTH=4;BYDAY=SU (gives me the first Sunday of April repeating yearly) and FREQ=YEARLY;BYMONTH=5;BYMONTHDAY=-1 (gives me the last day of May repeating yearly) But I can't figure out how to have the event repeat yearly between those dates for Monday, Wednesday and Friday. Suggestions? Update: Comments don't have enough space to respond to Chris' answer, so I am editing the question with further information. Unfortunately, no. I don't know if it is the DDay.iCal library I'm using, or what, but that doesn't work either. I've found that the date start can't be an ordinal date (first Sunday, etc.)..it has to be a specific date, which makes it difficult for my requirements. Even using multiple RRULE's it doesn't seem to work: BEGIN:VCALENDAR VERSION:2.0 PRODID:-//DDay.iCal//NONSGML ddaysoftware.com//EN BEGIN:VEVENT CREATED:20090717T033307Z DTSTAMP:20090717T033307Z DTSTART:20090101T000000 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYDAY=MO,WE,FR;BYMONTH=4,5 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYDAY=1SU;BYMONTH=4 RRULE:FREQ=YEARLY;WKST=SU;BYMONTH=5;BYMONTHDAY=-1 SEQUENCE:0 UID:352ed9d4-04d0-4f06-a094-fab7165e5c74 END:VEVENT END:VCALENDAR That looks right on the face (I'm even starting the event on 1/1/2009), but when I start testing whether certain days are valid, I get incorrect results. For example, 4/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = True // Should be False 4/6/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 4/7/2009 12:00:00 AM = False 4/8/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/2/2009 12:00:00 AM = False 5/29/2009 12:00:00 AM = True 5/31/2009 12:00:00 AM = True // Should be False 6/1/2009 12:00:00 AM = False I'm using Douglas Day's DDay.iCal software, but I don't think it is a bug in that library. I think this might be a limitation in iCalendar (RFC 2445). Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Modify MySQL INSERT statement to omit the insertion of certain rows

    - by dave
    I'm trying to expand a little on a statement that I received help with last week. As you can see, I'm setting up a temporary table and inserting rows of student data from a recently administered test for a few dozen schools. When the rows are inserted, they are sorted by the score (totpct_stu, high to low) and the row_number is added, with 1 representing the highest score, etc. I've learned that there were some problems at school #9999 in SMITH's class (every student made a perfect score and they were the only students in the district to do so). So, I do not want to import SMITH's class. As you can see, I DELETED SMITH's class, but this messed up the row numbering for the remainder of student at the school (e.g., high score row_number is now 20, not 1). How can I modify the INSERT statement so as to not insert this class? Thanks! DROP TEMPORARY TABLE IF EXISTS avgpct ; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE avgpct_1 ( sch_code VARCHAR(3), schabbrev VARCHAR(75), teachername VARCHAR(75), totpct_stu DECIMAL(5,1), row_number SMALLINT, dummy VARCHAR(75) ); -- ---------------------------------------- INSERT INTO avgpct SELECT sch_code , schabbrev , teachername , totpct_stu , @num := IF( @GROUP = schabbrev, @num + 1, 1 ) AS row_number , @GROUP := schabbrev AS dummy FROM sci_rpt WHERE grade = '05' AND totpct_stu >= 1 -- has a valid score ORDER BY sch_code, totpct_stu DESC ; -- --------------------------------------- -- select * from avgpct ; -- --------------------------------------- DELETE FROM avgpct_1 WHERE sch_code = '9999' AND teachername = 'SMITH' ;

    Read the article

  • regular expression for indian vehicle number in javascript and php

    - by I Like PHP
    i need regular expression in java script as well as in PHP for Indian vehicle NUMBER here are conditions list let expression is (x)(y)(z)(m)(a)(b)(c) 1. (x) contains only alphabets of length 2. 2. (y) may be - or single space ' ' 3. (z) contains only numbers of length 2 4. (m) may be or , or single space ' ' 5. length of (a) can be 2 or 3. contains alphanumeric value with minimum one alphabetic character. 6. (b) may be - or single space ' ' ( similar to (y) ) 7. (c) contains only numbers of length 4 i show you the various examples of vehicle number valid number RJ-14,NL-1234 RJ-01,4M-5874 RJ-07,14M-2345 RJ 07,3M 2345 RJ-07,3M-8888 RJ 07 4M 2345 RJ 07,4M 2933 invalid number RJ-07 3M 1234 ( both (y) and (b) should be same). RJ-07 M3-1234 ((a) must ends with alphabat). rj-07 M3-123 ( length of (c) must be 4).

    Read the article

  • Why is PHP5 SQLite PDO silently failing on DB connection?

    - by danieltalsky
    I have no idea why my code is failing silently. PDO and PDO SQLite are confirmed loaded. Errors are turned on and OTHER errors display. The SQLite file exists. Perms are set correctly. If I change the filename, PHP actually DOES create the file but still fails silently. No output or commands are excecuted after the "$dbh = new PDO($db_conn);" command. I'm not sure what else I can possibly do to troubleshoot. What else... this is on Modwest shared hosting. ABOUT TO RUN <?php // Destination $db_name = '/confirmed/valid/path/DBName.db3'; $db_conn = 'sqlite:' . $db_name; try { var_dump($db_conn); $dbh = new PDO($db_conn); $dbh->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); } catch (Exception $e) { exit("Failed to open database: {$e->getMessage()} \n" ); } ?> THIS NEVER OUTPUTS! sdf

    Read the article

  • Prevent two users from editing the same data

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

    Read the article

  • How can this code throw a NullReferenceException?

    - by Davy8
    I must be going out of my mind, because my unit tests are failing because the following code is throwing a null ref exception: int pid = 0; if (parentCategory != null) { Console.WriteLine(parentCategory.Id); pid = parentCategory.Id; } The line that's throwing it is: pid = parentCategory.Id; The console.writeline is just to debug in the NUnit GUI, but that outputs a valid int. Edit: It's single-threaded so it can't be assigned to null from some other thread, and the fact the the Console.WriteLine successfully prints out the value shows that it shouldn't throw. Edit: Relevant snippets of the Category class: public class Category { private readonly int id; public Category(Category parent, int id) { Parent = parent; parent.PerformIfNotNull(() => parent.subcategories.AddIfNew(this)); Name = string.Empty; this.id = id; } public int Id { get { return id; } } } Well if anyone wants to look at the full code, it's on Google Code at http://code.google.com/p/chefbook/source/checkout I think I'm going to try rebooting the computer... I've seen pretty weird things fixed by a reboot. Will update after reboot. Update: Mystery solved. Looks like NUnit shows the error line as the last successfully executed statement... Copy/pasted test into new console app and ran in VS showed that it was the line after the if statement block (not shown) that contained a null ref. Thanks for all the ideas everyone. +1 to everyone that answered.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271  | Next Page >