Search Results

Search found 26693 results on 1068 pages for 'back to basics'.

Page 265/1068 | < Previous Page | 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272  | Next Page >

  • Javascript "Match" Function Not Returning Proper Results in Safari or IE (but yes in FF)

    - by Jascha
    Forgive me as this is a time sensitive issue and I will have to switch the site back in a few hours so the link will be bad... but: I am simply comparing two strings looking for a match with this function... I have an array of objects called linkArray and I need to match the .src of each object to a .src I send it (the src of the clicked image). if the the src of the image I clicked matches the src of an object in my array, I set a variable to the link string of that object and return true, letting my page know that the link is available. Now, this works great in FF. But not in any other browser and I can't figure out for the life of me why. I have set up a dialogue box to literally compare, by eye, the two strings that should at the very least throw the message "match". Can anyone see what I am missing here??? here is the link... http://7thart.com/Jewish-History-and-Culture/Jews-and-Baseball-An-American-Love-Story If you click any of the thumbnails on the left, you will activate the function. Again, I apologize as after a few hours I have to switch back to the original site and this link will be invalid. Thanks in advance for your help. (function below)... function matchLink(a){ for(var i=0;i<linkArray.length;i++){ var fixLink = '../' + linkArray[i]['src']; alert(fixLink + '\n = \n' + a); if(fixLink == a){ alert('match'); newLink = linkArray[i]['link']; return true; } } return false; } Note: The "match" will return on two of the images.. the initial image, and the first thumbnail on the left. The second thumbnail SHOULD match, and the third one SHOULD NOT match.

    Read the article

  • Class design when working with dataset

    - by MC
    If you have to retrieve data from a database and bring this dataset to the client, and then allow the user to manipulate the data in various ways before updating the database again, what is a good class design for this if the data tables will not have a 1:1 relationship with the class objects? Here are some I came up with: Just manipulate the DataSet itself on the client and then send it back to the database as is. This will work though obviously the code will be very dirty and not well-structured. Same as #1, but wrap the dataset code around classes. What I mean is that you may have a class that takes a dataset or a datatable in its constructor, and then provides public methods and properties to simplify the code. Inside these methods and properties it will be reading or manipulating the dataset. To update the database afterwards will be easy because you already have the updated dataset. Get rid of the dataset entirely on the client, convert to objects, then convert back to a dataset when needing to update the database. Is there any good resources where I can find information on this?

    Read the article

  • Gdata JavaScript Authsub continues redirect

    - by Krustal
    I am using the JavaScript Google Data API and having issues getting the AuthSub script to work correctly. This is my script currently: google.load('gdata', '1'); function getCookie(c_name){ if(document.cookie.length>0){ c_start=document.cookie.indexOf(c_name + "="); if(c_start!=-1){ c_start=c_start + c_name.length+1; c_end=document.cookie.indexOf(";",c_start); if(c_end==-1) c_end=document.cookie.length; return unescape(document.cookie.substring(c_start, c_end)); } } return ""; } function main(){ var scope = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/'; if(!google.accounts.user.checkLogin(scope)){ google.accounts.user.login(); } else { /* * Retrieve all calendars */ // Create the calendar service object var calendarService = new google.gdata.calendar.CalendarService('GoogleInc-jsguide-1.0'); // The default "allcalendars" feed is used to retrieve a list of all // calendars (primary, secondary and subscribed) of the logged-in user var feedUri = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/default/allcalendars/full'; // The callback method that will be called when getAllCalendarsFeed() returns feed data var callback = function(result) { // Obtain the array of CalendarEntry var entries = result.feed.entry; //for (var i = 0; i < entries.length; i++) { var calendarEntry = entries[0]; var calendarTitle = calendarEntry.getTitle().getText(); alert('Calendar title = ' + calendarTitle); //} } // Error handler to be invoked when getAllCalendarsFeed() produces an error var handleError = function(error) { alert(error); } // Submit the request using the calendar service object calendarService.getAllCalendarsFeed(feedUri, callback, handleError); } } google.setOnLoadCallback(main); However when I run this the page redirects me to the authentication page. After I authenticate it send me back to my page and then quickly sends me back to the authenticate page again. I've included alerts to check if the token is being set and it doesn't seem to be working. Has anyone has this problem?

    Read the article

  • Handling Application Logic in Multiple AsyncTask onPostExecute()s

    - by stormin986
    I have three simultaneous instances of an AsyncTask for download three files. When two particular ones finish, at the end of onPostExecute() I check a flag set by each, and if both are true, I call startActivity() for the next Activity. I am currently seeing the activity called twice, or something that resembles this type of behavior. Since the screen does that 'swipe left' kind of transition to the next activity, it sometimes does it twice (and when I hit back, it goes back to the same activity). It's obvious two versions of the activity that SHOULD only get called once are being put on the Activity stack. The only way I can find that this is possible is if both AsyncTasks' onPostExecute() executed SO simultaneously that they were virtually running the same lines at the same time, since I set the 'itemXdownloaded' flag to true right before I check for both and call startActivity(). But this is happening enough that it's very hard for me to believe that both downloads are finishing precisely at the same time and having their onPostExecute()s so close together... Any thoughts on what could be going on here? General gist of code (details removed, ignore any syntactical errors I may have edited in): // In onPostExecute() switch (downloadID) { case DL1: dl1complete = true; break; case DL2: dl2complete = true; break; case DL3: dl3complete = true; break; } // If 1 and 2 are done, move on (DL3 still going in background) if ( downloadID != DL3 && dl1complete && dl2complete) { ParentClass.this.startActivity(new Intent(ParentClass.this, NextActivity.class)); }

    Read the article

  • sorting a gridview alphabetically when columns are codes

    - by nat
    hi there i have a gridview populated by a Web Service search function. some of the columns in the grid are templatefields, because the values coming back from the search (in a datatable) are ids - i then use these ids to lookup the values when the rowdatabound event is triggered and populate a label or some such. this means that my sorting function for these id/lookup columns sorts by the ids rather than the textual value that i have looked up and actually populated the grid with (although i do put the ids in the grids datakeys). what i want to do is top be able to sort by the looked up textual value rather than the codes for these particular columns. what i was going to do to get around this was to when the datatable comes back from the search, adding more columns the textual values and doing all the looking up then, thus being able to sort directly from the manually added columns. is there another way to do this? as that approach seems like a bit of a bodge. although i guess it does remove having to do the looking up in the rowdatabound event.... my sorting function works by sticking the datatable in the session and on each bind grabbing the sort column and binding the gridview to a DataView with the sort attribute set to the column - and the direction. thanks nat

    Read the article

  • jQuery sliding animation not working

    - by Jake Zeitz
    I have three divs stacked on each other but offset so that a part of each div is visible. When one of the bottom divs is clicked I want the top div to animate out and back into the stack at the bottom, then the div that is clicked will appear at the top. So far I only have the code for when the middle div is clicked, but I cannot get it to work properly. What am I doing wrong? (I also realize that the code I wrote is probably terrible, this is the first jQuery code I have written.) The css is very very simple: .first { z-index: 3; } .second { z-index: 2; } .third { z-index: 1; } The basic html is this: <div class="first"></div> <div class="second"></div> <div class="third"></div> Here is my code: $("div.second").click(function () { $("div.first").animate({ left: "-=200px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.first").removeClass("first").addClass("third").animate({left: "+=350px", top: "+=60px"}, "fast"); } }); $("div.second").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.second").removeClass("second").addClass("first"); } }); $("div.third").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.third").removeClass("third").addClass("second"); } }); }); I can get the div.first to move to the side and back. But now I can't get the classes to stay changed. What keeps happening is the div.second will remove it's class and add .first in the animation, but when the animation is complete, it acts like it still has a class of .second.

    Read the article

  • Mysql and PHP - Reading multiple insert queries from a file and executing at runtime

    - by SpikETidE
    Hi everyone... I am trying out a back-up and restore system. Basically, what i try to do is, when creating the back up i make a file which looks like DELETE FROM bank_account; INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('1', 'IB6872', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '2', '1', '0', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '1', '2010-04-13 17:09:05');INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('2', 'IB7391', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '3', '1', '0', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '1', '2010-04-13 17:09:32'); and so on and so forth. When i restore the db i just read the query from the file, save it to a string and then execute it over the DB using mysql_query(); The problem is, when i run the query through mysql_query(), the execution stops after the delete query with the error 'Error in syntax near '; INSERT INTO bank_account VALUES('1', 'IB6872', 'Indian Bank', 'Indian Bank', '2',' at line 1. But when i run the queries directly over the Db, using phpmyadmin it executes without any errors. As far as i can see, i can't notice any syntax error in the query. Can anyone point out where there might be a glitch...? Thanks and regards....

    Read the article

  • Storing date/times as UTC in database

    - by James
    I am storing date/times in the database as UTC and computing them inside my application back to local time based on the specific timezone. Say for example I have the following date/time: 01/04/2010 00:00 Say it is for a country e.g. UK which observes DST (Daylight Savings Time) and at this particular time we are in daylight savings. When I convert this date to UTC and store it in the database it is actually stored as: 31/03/2010 23:00 As the date would be adjusted -1 hours for DST. This works fine when your observing DST at time of submission. However, what happens when the clock is adjusted back? When I pull that date from the database and convert it to local time that particular datetime would be seen as 31/03/2009 23:00 when in reality it was processed as 01/04/2010 00:00. Correct me if I am wrong but isn't this a bit of a flaw when storing times as UTC? Example of Timezone conversion Basically what I am doing is storing the date/times of when information is being submitted to my system in order to allow users to do a range report. Here is how I am storing the date/times: public DateTime LocalDateTime(string timeZoneId) { var tzi = TimeZoneInfo.FindSystemTimeZoneById(timeZoneId); return TimeZoneInfo.ConvertTimeFromUtc(DateTime.UtcNow, tzi).ToLocalTime(); } Storing as UTC: var localDateTime = LocalDateTime("AUS Eastern Standard Time"); WriteToDB(localDateTime.ToUniversalTime());

    Read the article

  • Details View and integration with TinyMCE <%@ Page validateRequest="false" %>

    - by GibboK
    I use TinyMCE in a DetailView in in EDIT MODE. I would like to know if there is a solution which can prevent Request Validation to trigger an error WITHOUT USING <%@ Page validateRequest="false" %> for my page. The only way I found out at the moment is to encode TextBox used by TinyMCE using option: "xml" tinyMCE.init({ encoding: "xml", In this way Request Validation does not trigger error but at the time to read the data in the TextBox the result it is Encoded. I also tried to Decode on PageLoad the content of the TextBox using this code myTextBox.Text = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(myTextBox.Text) But the result is not as expected, so I can visualize it just Encoded text. Any Ideas? Thanks UPDATE I found a solution to my problem. I added in _DataBound event for the DetailsView this code TextBox myContentAuthor = (TextBox)uxAuthorListDetailsView.FindControl("uxContentAuthorInput"); myContentAuthor.Text = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(myContentAuthor.Text); So on DataBound event, (should work even on post back) the content will be decodene for textbox tinymce. Here how should work: 01 - TinyMCE ESCAPE data inserted in textbox using function encoding: "xml", 02 - Data has been stored as ESCAPED 03 - To read the data and add its content to a TextBox where apply TinyMCE use in DATABOUND EVENT for DetailView and HttpUtility.HtmlDecode (so it will look decoded) 04 - You can modify content in the textbox in edit mode. On post back TinyMCE will encoded again using encoding: "xml" an so on Hope guys can help some one else. But please give me your comment on this solution thanks! Mybe you come up with more elegant solution! :-)

    Read the article

  • VSC++, virtual method at bad adress, curious bug

    - by antoon.groenewoud
    Hello, This guy: virtual phTreeClass* GetTreeClass() const { return (phTreeClass*)m_entity_class; } When called, crashed the program with an access violation, even after a full recompile. All member functions and virtual member functions had correct memory adresses (I hovered mouse over the methods in debug mode), but this function had a bad memory adress: 0xfffffffc. Everything looked okay: the 'this' pointer, and everything works fine up until this function call. This function is also pretty old and I didn't change it for a long time. The problem just suddenly popped up after some work, which I commented all out to see what was doing it, without any success. So I removed the virtual, compiled, and it works fine. I add virtual, compiled, and it still works fine! I basically changed nothing, and remember that I did do a full recompile earlier, and still had the error back then. I wasn't able to reproduce the problem. But now it is back. I didn't change anything. Removing virtual fixes the problem. Sincerely, Antoon

    Read the article

  • Stored Procedures In Source Control - Automate Build/Deployment Process

    - by Alex
    My company provides a large .NET service-oriented solution. The services layer interact with a T-SQL back-end consisting of hundreds of tables and stored procedures. Our C# code is in version-control (SVN) but our stored procedures and schema are not. After much lobbying of expedient upper-management, I was allowed to review our (non-existent) build/deployment process to accomplish the following goals: Place schema and stored procedures under source-control. Automate the build/deployment process. I would like to proceed per the accepted answer's strategy in this post but have additional questions: I would like to use Hudson as my build server. Is this a reasonable choice for a C#/SQL solution? What better alternatives should I explore? Assuming I have all triggers, stored-procedures, schema, etc... under source control, and that they are scripted to individual files, how do I generate a build script which will take into account dependencies/references between these items? (SQL Server does this automatically, but it generates one giant script) What does the workflow of performing an update at the client look like? i.e. I have to keep existing table data. How do I roll-back schema changes? I am the only programmer. Several other pseudo-technical staff like to make changes directly inside SQL Management Studio. Is it realistic to expect others to adhere to this solution -- how can I enforce this? Thank you in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • PHP regex for password validation

    - by Fabio Anselmo
    I not getting the desired effect from a script. I want the password to contain A-Z, a-z, 0-9, and special chars. A-Z a-z 0-9 2 special chars 2 string length = 8 So I want to force the user to use at least 2 digits and at least 2 special chars. Ok my script works but forces me to use the digits or chars back to back. I don't want that. e.g. password testABC55$$ is valid - but i don't want that. Instead I want test$ABC5#8 to be valid. So basically the digits/special char can be the same or diff - but must be split up in the string. PHP CODE: $uppercase = preg_match('#[A-Z]#', $password); $lowercase = preg_match('#[a-z]#', $password); $number = preg_match('#[0-9]#', $password); $special = preg_match('#[\W]{2,}#', $password); $length = strlen($password) >= 8; if(!$uppercase || !$lowercase || !$number || !$special || !$length) { $errorpw = 'Bad Password';

    Read the article

  • Servlet doPost() Method setup?

    - by Mark R
    I am interested in creating a web app that uses JSP, Servlets and XML. At the moment I have the following: JSP - Form input. Servlet - Retrieving Form data and sending that data to a java object. Java object (1) - Converts data into XML file....instantiates java object (2). Java object (2) - Sends that file to a database. On the returning side the database will send back another XML file that I will then process using XSLT to display back to the user. Can I place that XSLT code in the orignial Servlets doPost() method? So my doPost()` method would: Retrieve user inputted data from the form on my JSP page. Instantiate a java object to convert that data to XML, in-turn that object will instantiates another object to send the XML file to a database. Converts the resulting XML file sent from the database and displays it for the user. Can one servlet doPost() method handle all of this? If not, how would I set up my application and classes to handle this work flow? Thank you in advance

    Read the article

  • Do ORMs normally allow circular relations? If so, how would they handle it?

    - by SeanJA
    I was hacking around trying to make a basic orm that has support for the one => one and one => many relationships. I think I succeeded somewhat, but I am curious about how to handle circular relationships. Say you had something like this: user::hasOne('car'); car::hasMany('wheels'); car::property('type'); wheel::hasOne('car'); You could then do this (theoretically): $u = new user(); echo $u->car->wheels[0]->car->wheels[1]->car->wheels[2]->car->wheels[3]->type; #=> "monster truck" Now, I am not sure why you would want to do this. It seems like it wastes a whole pile of memory and time just to get to something that could have been done in a much shorter way. In my small ORM, I now have 4 copies of the wheel class, and 4 copies of the car class in memory, which causes a problem if I update one of them and save it back to the database, the rest get out of date, and could overwrite the changes that were already made. How do other ORMs handle circular references? Do they even allow it? Do they go back up the tree and create a pointer to one of the parents? DO they let the coder shoot themselves in the foot if they are silly enough to go around in circles?

    Read the article

  • Flushing writes in buffer of Memory Controller to DDR device

    - by Rohit
    At some point in my code, I need to push the writes in my code all the way to the DIMM or DDR device. My requirement is to ensure the write reaches the row,ban,column of the DDR device on the DIMM. I need to read what I've written to the main memory. I do not want caching to get me the value. Instead after writing I want to fetch this value from main memory(DIMM's). So far I've been using Intel's x86 instruction wbinvd(write back and invalidate cache). However this means the caches and TLB are flushed. Write-back requests go to the main memory. However, there is a reasonable amount of time this data might reside in the write buffer of the Memory Controller( Intel calls it integrated memory controller or IMC). The Memory Controller might take some more time depending on the algorithm that runs in the Memory Controller to handle writes. Is there a way I force all existing or pending writes in the write buffer of the memory controller to the DRAM devices ?? What I am looking for is something more direct and more low-level than wbinvd. If you could point me to right documents or specs that describe this I would be grateful. Generally, the IMC has a several registers which can be written or read from. From looking at the specs for that for the chipset I could not find anything useful. Thanks for taking the time to read this.

    Read the article

  • urllib2.Request() with data returns empty url

    - by Mr. Polywhirl
    My main concern is the function: getUrlAndHtml() If I manually build and append the query to the end of the uri, I can get the response.url(), but if I pass a dictionary as the request data, the url does not come back. Is there anyway to guarantee the redirected url? In my example below, if thisWorks = True I get back a url, but the returned url is the request url as opposed to a redirect link. On a sidenote, the encoding for .E2.80.93 does not translate to - for some reason? #!/usr/bin/python import pprint import urllib import urllib2 from bs4 import BeautifulSoup from sys import argv URL = 'http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?' def yesOrNo(boolVal): return 'yes' if boolVal else 'no' def getTitleFromRaw(page): return page.strip().replace(' ', '_') def getUrlAndHtml(title, printable=False): thisWorks = False if thisWorks: query = 'title={:s}&printable={:s}'.format(title, yesOrNo(printable)) opener = urllib2.build_opener() opener.addheaders = [('User-agent', 'Mozilla/5.0')] response = opener.open(URL + query) else: params = {'title':title,'printable':yesOrNo(printable)} data = urllib.urlencode(params) headers = {'User-agent':'Mozilla/5.0'}; request = urllib2.Request(URL, data, headers) response = urllib2.urlopen(request) return response.geturl(), response.read() def getSoup(html, name=None, attrs=None): soup = BeautifulSoup(html) if name is None: return None return soup.find(name, attrs) def setTitle(soup, newTitle): title = soup.find('div', {'id':'toctitle'}) h2 = title.find('h2') h2.contents[0].replaceWith('{:s} for {:s}'.format(h2.getText(), newTitle)) def updateLinks(soup, url): fragment = '#' for a in soup.findAll('a', href=True): a['href'] = a['href'].replace(fragment, url + fragment) def writeToFile(soup, filename='out.html', indentLevel=2): with open(filename, 'wt') as out: pp = pprint.PrettyPrinter(indent=indentLevel, stream=out) pp.pprint(soup) print('Wrote {:s} successfully.'.format(filename)) if __name__ == '__main__': def exitPgrm(): print('usage: {:s} "<PAGE>" <FILE>'.format(argv[0])) exit(0) if len(argv) == 2: help = argv[1] if help == '-h' or help == '--help': exitPgrm() if False:''' if not len(argv) == 3: exitPgrm() ''' page = 'Led Zeppelin' # argv[1] filename = 'test.html' # argv[2] title = getTitleFromRaw(page) url, html = getUrlAndHtml(title) soup = getSoup(html, 'div', {'id':'toc'}) setTitle(soup, page) updateLinks(soup, url) writeToFile(soup, filename)

    Read the article

  • Submit button on nested form submits the outer form in IE7

    - by Mike Christensen
    I have the following code on my Home.aspx page: <form id="frmJump" method="post" action="Views/ViewsHome.aspx"> <input name="JumpProject" /><input type="submit" value="Go" /> </form> However, when I click the "Go" button, the page posts back to Home.aspx rather than going to ViewsHome.aspx. I even tried adding some script to force the form to submit: <input name="JumpProject" onkeypress="if(event.keyCode == 13) { this.form.submit(); return false; }" /> But still even if I press ENTER, the Home.aspx page is reloaded. The only thing I can see that might be borking things is this form is actually a child form of the main POSTBACK form that ASP.NET injects into the page. I'm sure there's something stupid I'm missing and this post will get 800 downvotes instantly banishing me back into the n00b realm, but perhaps I haven't gotten enough sleep lately and I'm missing something stupid. This is on IE7 and an ASP.NET 4.0 backend. I also have jQuery libraries loaded on the page incase jQuery can improve this somehow. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • MVC2 Modelbinder for List of derived objects

    - by user250773
    I want a list of different (derived) object types working with the Default Modelbinder in Asp.net MVC 2. I have the following ViewModel: public class ItemFormModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Required Field")] public string Name { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } [ScaffoldColumn(true)] //public List<Core.Object> Objects { get; set; } public ArrayList Objects { get; set; } } And the list contains objects of diffent derived types, e.g. public class TextObject : Core.Object { public string Text { get; set; } } public class BoolObject : Core.Object { public bool Value { get; set; } } It doesn't matter if I use the List or the ArrayList implementation, everything get's nicely scaffolded in the form, but the modelbinder doesn't resolve the derived object type properties for me when posting back to the ActionResult. What could be a good solution for the Viewmodel structure to get a list of different object types handled? Having an extra list for every object type (e.g. List, List etc.) seems to be not a good solution for me, since this is a lot of overhead both in building the viewmodel and mapping it back to the domain model. Thinking about the other approach of binding all properties in a custom model binder, how can I make use the data annotations approach here (validating required attributes etc.) without a lot of overhead?

    Read the article

  • Drupal theme preprocess function - primary links and suckerfish menus

    - by slimcady
    I have a preprocess function that works fine when the menu is single level list. However I would like it to work w/ suckerfish menus. I want to add a class to the top level menu item so that I can style it. This is the code I used for the single level menu: function cti_flex_preprocess_page(&$vars, $hook) { // Make a shortcut for the primary links variables $primary_links = $vars['primary_links']; // Loop thru the menu, adding a new class for CSS selectors $i = 1; foreach ($primary_links as $link => $attributes){ // Append the new class to existing classes for each menu item $class = $attributes['attributes']['class'] . " item-$i"; // Add revised classes back to the primary links temp variable $primary_links[$link]['attributes']['class'] = $class; $link['title'] = '<span class="hide">' . check_plain($link['title']) . '</span>'; $i++; } // end the foreach loop // reset the variable to contain the new markup $vars['primary_links'] = $primary_links; } I've been trying to use the menu_tree() function to no avail, for example: function cti_flex_preprocess_page(&$vars, $hook) { // Make a shortcut for the primary links variables $primary_links = $vars['primary_links']; // Loop thru the menu, adding a new class for CSS selectors $i = 1; foreach ($primary_links as $link => $attributes){ // Append the new class to existing classes for each menu item $class = $attributes['attributes']['class'] . " item-$i"; // Add revised classes back to the primary links temp variable $primary_links[$link]['attributes']['class'] = $class; $link['title'] = '<span class="hide">' . check_plain($link['title']) . '</span>'; $i++; } // end the foreach loop // reset the variable to contain the new markup $vars['primary_links_tree'] = menu_tree(variable_get('menu_primary_links_source', '$primary_links')); } Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to catch an expected (and intended) 302 Ajax response?

    - by Anthony
    So, if you look back at my previous question about Exchange Autodiscover, you'll see that the easiet way to get the autodiscover URL is to send a non-secure, non-authenticated GET request to the server, ala: http://autodiscover.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml The server will respond with a 302 redirect with the correct url in the Location header. I'm trying out something really simple at first with a Chrome extension, where I have: if (req.readyState==4 && req.status==302) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } With another ajax call set up with the full XML Post and the user credentials, But instead Chrome hangs at this point, and a look at the developer panel shows that it is not returning back the response but instead is acting like no response was given, meanwhile showing a Uncaught Error: NETWORK_ERR: XMLHttpRequest Exception 101 in the error log. The way I see it, refering to the exact response status is about the same as "catching" it, but I'm not sure if the problem is with Chrome/WebKit or if this is how XHR requests always handle redirects. I'm not sure how to catch this so that I can get still get the headers from the response. Or would it be possible to set up a secondary XHR such that when it gets the 302, it sends a totally different request? Quick Update I just changed it so that it doesn't check the response code: if (req.readyState==4) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } and instead when I alert out the value it's null. and there is still the same error and no response in the dev console. SO it seems like it either doesn't track 302 responses as responses, or something happens after that wipes that response out?

    Read the article

  • Is there a more efficent way to randomise a set of linq results?

    - by Matthew De'Loughry
    Hi just wondering if you could help I've produced a function to get back a random set of submission depnding on the amount passed to it, but I worry that even though it works now with a small amount of data when the a large amount is passed through it would become efficent and cause problems. Just wondering if you could suggest a more efficent way of doing the following: public List<Submission> GetRandomWinners(int id) { List<Submission> submissions = new List<Submission>(); int amount = (DbContext().Competitions .Where(s => s.CompetitionId == id).FirstOrDefault()).NumberWinners; for(int i = 1 ; i <= amount; i++) { bool added = false; while (!added) { bool found = false; var randSubmissions = DbContext().Submissions .Where(s => s.CompetitionId == id && s.CorrectAnswer).ToList(); int count = randSubmissions.Count(); int index = new Random().Next(count); foreach (var sub in submissions ) { if (sub == randSubmissions.Skip(index).FirstOrDefault()) found = true; } if (!found) { submissions.Add(randSubmissions.Skip(index).FirstOrDefault()); added = true; } } } return submissions; } As I say I have this fully working and bringing back the wanted result just I'm not liking the foreach and while checks in there and my head has just turned to mush now try to come up with the above soloution. Thanks Matt

    Read the article

  • Issue reading in a cell from Excel with Apache POI

    - by Nick
    I am trying to use Apache POI to read in old (pre-2007 and XLS) Excel files. My program goes to the end of the rows and iterates back up until it finds something that's not either null or empty. Then it iterates back up a few times and grabs those cells. This program works just fine reading in XLSX and XLS files made in Office 2010. I get the following error message: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NumberFormatException: empty String at sun.misc.FloatingDecimal.readJavaFormatString(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Double.parseDouble(Unknown Source) at the line: num = Double.parseDouble(str); from the code: str = cell.toString(); if (str != "" || str != null) { System.out.println("Cell is a string"); num = Double.parseDouble(str); } else { System.out.println("Cell is numeric."); num = cell.getNumericCellValue(); } where the cell is the last cell in the document that's not empty or null. When I try to print the first cell that's not empty or null, it prints nothing, so I think I'm not accessing it correctly.

    Read the article

  • EXEC_BAD_ACCESS error comes in my applicatoin in iphone

    - by Jaimin
    when i print dictionary i got this error.. here my dictTf is mutabledictionay.. when i m in home page i selct few fields and click find. so new view comes with the result.. now i go back and again click find without changing anything.. now comes proper.. now at this moment when i go back it shows this in the dictionay and EXEC_BAD_ACCESS eror comes... Printing description of dictTf: The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. (gdb)

    Read the article

  • Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

    - by gisc
    I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Rails ActionCaching with Memcached fragment hit but action gets called anyway

    - by baldtrol
    Hi stackoverflow. I'm running into something strange. I'm using memcached with a caches_action setup. I'm doing this in 4 different controllers. In two of them, it works flawlessly (so far), though admittedly those two controllers are less complicated than the two in which it doesn't seem to work. I'm doing something like this: caches_action :index, :expires_in => 6.hours, :cache_path => Proc.new {|controller| controller.send(:generate_cache_path) }, :layout => false, :if => Proc.new { |c| c.request.format.js? } The intention behind the above is to cache some results that are dependent on the params. my :generate_cache_path method just takes into account some params and session vars and creates a unique key for memcached. I can see in memcached -vv that this is working. What's weird is that I get my request from the rails app for a given key, and I see memcached (with -vv) get the request and send back the response. But then my action runs anyway, and a new value is then set for the same key, even when all the same params are given. I can watch it happen. In the controllers where everything is working, the request is made for the fragment, it gets it, and the action in the controller is halted, and the fragment is passed back. These lines come from the exact same request: Cached fragment hit: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js And then: Cached fragment miss: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js I don't know what to make of it, or if I'm doing something stupid. Any help or ideas where I could start looking for trouble would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272  | Next Page >