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  • S3 browser upload via POST: unable to handle errors gracefully

    - by samf
    I am writing an app where I want the customer to be able to upload to Amazon S3 straight from the browser. I can make this work just fine. But when errors occur, I want to handle them more gracefully than splattering an XML document on the customer's screen. I have a scheme that I think would work, but it's failing. Here's what I'm trying: Create a form to do the upload, and store the form on S3 itself, in the same domain as the "action" attribute of the form. Redirect the customer to this form. Now their browser is sitting on https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/something. The page contains a hidden iframe. The form sets its target to the iframe. The load event handler looks at the contents of the iframe, and acts upon it. So, something like this: <iframe id="foo" name="foo" style="display: none" /> <form target="foo" action="https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/"> <input type="hidden" name="..." value="..." /> <input type="file" name="file" /> </form> with this javascript (using jquery): function handler() { var message = $("#foo").contents().find('message').text(); alert(message); } $("#foo").load(handler); Using firebug, I can see that the iframe contains an XML document, that contains a "message" node. However, the .find('message') always fails to find anything within the XML document. Notice that the action of the form has the same domain, port, and scheme as the document itself. So, I don't think that I should be running afoul of the same-origin policy. Right? But it fails every time. This is using Firefox and Google Chrome browsers. Thanks for any advice!

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  • Handling large datasets with PHP/Drupal

    - by jo
    Hi all, I have a report page that deals with ~700k records from a database table. I can display this on a webpage using paging to break up the results. However, my export to PDF/CSV functions rely on processing the entire data set at once and I'm hitting my 256MB memory limit at around 250k rows. I don't feel comfortable increasing the memory limit and I haven't got the ability to use MySQL's save into outfile to just serve a pre-generated CSV. However, I can't really see a way of serving up large data sets with Drupal using something like: $form = array(); $table_headers = array(); $table_rows = array(); $data = db_query("a query to get the whole dataset"); while ($row = db_fetch_object($data)) { $table_rows[] = $row->some attribute; } $form['report'] = array('#value' => theme('table', $table_headers, $table_rows); return $form; Is there a way of getting around what is essentially appending to a giant array of arrays? At the moment I don't see how I can offer any meaningful report pages with Drupal due to this. Thanks

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  • Moving UITableView cells and maintaining consistent data

    - by Mark F
    I've enabled editing mode and moving cells around to allow users to position table view content in the order they please. I'm using Core Data as the data source, which sorts the content by the attribute "userOrder". When content is first inserted, userOrder is set to a random value. The idea is that when the user moves a cell around, the userOrder of that cell changes to accomodate its new position. The following are problems I am running into while trying to accomplish this: Successfully saving the the new location of the cell and adjusting all changed locations of influenced cells. Getting the data to be consistent. For example, the TableView handles the movement fine, but when i click on the new location of the cell, it displays data for the old cell that used to be that location. Data of all influenced cells gets messed up as well. I know I have to implement this in: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView moveRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)sourceIndexPath toIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)destinationIndexPath {} I just don't know how. The apple docs are not particularly helpful if you are using Core Data, as in my situation. Any guidance greatly appreciated!

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  • Error using 'send_file' for ruby/rails - help appreciated

    - by user1653279
    I am trying to create a link to download a file from the file system. For this, I define the following in the "license_helper.rb" file: def license_download_link(license, link_text = nil) if link_text.blank? link_text = image_tag("download_icon.png", :border => 0, :width => 32, :height =>32, :alt => 'Download License', :title => 'Download License') end tempLicenseFile = "tempLicense.xml" File.open("#{tempLicenseFile}", 'w') do |tf| tf.puts license.data end command = "./runLicenseEncoder.bat #{tempLicenseFile}" generateEncryptedLicenseFile = `#{command}` theLicenseFile = "license.xml" link_to link_text, "license/download" end My "view" just calls this helper class: <td><%= license_download_link(license, ' ') %></td> In the 'routes.rb' file, I have defined the following: map.licensedownload "license.xml", :controller = 'licenses', :action = 'download' map.download "/licenses/download", :controller = 'licenses', :action = 'download' In the 'controller', I have 'licenses_controller.rb' which includes the following: def download theLicense = @license licenseFileName = "license.xml" send_file "#{licenseFileName}" , :type => "application/xml", :filename => "#{licenseFileName}" end However, I am unable to obtain the '@license' attribute from the database in the controller. Could someone please let me know what I am doing wrong here and why I am unable to get the value for "@license". Thanks for your time, Regards, --- AJ

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  • ApplicationDispatcher exception

    - by JFB
    Whenever I try to redirect to a certain page using this dispatch method that is called from my doGet method, I get the following exception. I have no idea why! account controller servlet protected void dispatch(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, String page) throws javax.servlet.ServletException, java.io.IOException { RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext() .getRequestDispatcher(page); try { dispatcher.forward(request, response); } catch (java.lang.NullPointerException e) { System.out.println("NullPointerException: attribute expected in view"); } } Error msg java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jasper.JasperException: java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.handleJspException(JspServletWrapper.java:502) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:430) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) controller.AccountController.dispatch(AccountController.java:91) controller.AccountController.doExecute(AccountController.java:72) controller.AccountController.doGet(AccountController.java:34) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jsp.content.edit_jsp._jspService(edit_jsp.java:109) org.apache.jasper.runtime.HttpJspBase.service(HttpJspBase.java:70) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:388) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) controller.AccountController.dispatch(AccountController.java:91) controller.AccountController.doExecute(AccountController.java:72) controller.AccountController.doGet(AccountController.java:34) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717)

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  • my web service works locally but, not when it is deployed

    - by rogdawg
    When I deploy my web service, I get the following error: There is no build provider registered for the extension '.svc'. You can register one in the section in machine.config or web.config. Make sure is has a BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute attribute which includes the value 'Web' or 'All'. I found one thread (http://forums.asp.net/t/1228638.aspx) that suggested a solution but, I can not get it to work. If I make the changes to my web config file as suggested in the thread, I then get a configuration error. One odd thing is that, if I check the machine.config file on my machine, located at C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config, I don't see any of the config settings described in the thread. As a matter of fact, there is no mention of "compilation" or "buildProviders" at all. The on-line documents I have found regarding BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute have not been of any help. Thanks in advance for any advice you can give. Here is my entire config file listing: <?xml version="1.0"?>

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  • Invoking jQuery function without an element

    - by Sandman
    So, I use jQuery quite extensively and I am well aware of the "right" way to do the below, but there are times where I want to solve it in a more generic way. I'll explain. So, I may have a link, like this: <a href='menu' class='popup'>Show menu</a>. Now, I have a jQuery function that fires on click for all a.popup that takes the href-attribute and shows the <div id='menu'></div> item (in this case). It also handles URL's if it can't find a DOM item with that ID. No problem here. But, there are times when I don't have the same control over the coe where I can create a selectable target that way. Either because the code isn't created by me or because it is created through a chain of function that would all need a huge ovrhaul which I won't do. So, from time to time, I would like to have this code: <a href="javascript:popup('menu')">Show menu</a> This would be in a case where I can only submit the label and the HREF for a link. No class, no nothing. Problem here is that the function popup() has no idea about what element invoked it, and in most cases that's not a problem for me, since I only need to know where the mouse cursor was upon invokation. But in some cases, I use someone elses jQuery functions, like qTip or something else. so I still want to fire off qTip(); when clicking a link that runs this JS function, but what do I attach it to to make it show? I can't just runt $().qTip(); because that implies $(this) and "this" is undefined inside the function. So how do I do it? Any ideas?

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  • How to differentiate between method and function in a decorator?

    - by defnull
    I want to write a decorator that acts differently depending on whether it is applied to a function or to a method. def some_decorator(func): if the_magic_happens_here(func): # <---- Point of interest print 'Yay, found a method ^_^ (unbound jet)' else: print 'Meh, just an ordinary function :/' return func class MyClass(object): @some_decorator def method(self): pass @some_decorator def function(): pass I tried inspect.ismethod(), inspect.ismethoddescriptor() and inspect.isfunction() but no luck. The problem is that a method actually is neither a bound nor an unbound method but an ordinary function as long as it is accessed from within the class body. What I really want to do is to delay the actions of the decorator to the point the class is actually instantiated because I need the methods to be callable in their instance scope. For this, I want to mark methods with an attribute and later search for these attributes when the .__new__() method of MyClass is called. The classes for which this decorator should work are required to inherit from a class that is under my control. You can use that fact for your solution. In the case of a normal function the delay is not necessary and the decorator should take action immediately. That is why I wand to differentiate these two cases.

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  • What's the jquery CSS3 selector for excluding nested descendents?

    - by Danjah
    Per my SO question here, which has turned to jquery to solve this, but which may be worked back into YUI if I get my thinking straight, I need a selector to exclude descendents. The solution proposed says something like this: $( '.revealer:not(.revealer > .revealer)' ); To fit more accurately with my situation, because I have multiple HTML chunks to perform the same test on, I have updated it be: $( '#_revealerEl_0 .handle:not(#_revealerEl_0 .reveal .handle)' ); The HTML its selecting on (image there are numerous copies of this same chunk on a page, each needing to be treated alone - an id attribute is assigned to each 'revealer'): <div class="revealer"> <div class="hotspot"> <a class="handle" href="javascript:;">A</a> <div class="reveal"> <p>Content A.</p> </div> <div class="reveal"> <p>Content B.</p> <!-- nested revealer --> <div class="revealer"> <div class="hotspot"> <a class="handle" href="javascript:;">A</a> <div class="reveal"> <p>Sub-content A.</p> </div> <div class="reveal"> <p>Sub-content B.</p> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> In a nutshell: I need to target 'top level' handles within a 'hotspot', per revealer - and no nested descendents with the same class names. thanks, d

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  • In Python, how to make data members visible to subclasses if not known when initializing an object ?

    - by LB
    The title is a bit long, but it should be pretty straightforward for someone well-aware of python. I'm a python newbie. So, maybe i'm doing things in the wrong way. Suppose I have a class TreeNode class TreeNode(Node): def __init__(self, name, id): Node.__init__(self, name, id) self.children = [] and a subclass with a weight: class WeightedNode(TreeNode): def __init__(self,name, id): TreeNode.__init__(self, name, id) self.weight = 0 So far, i think I'm ok. Now, I want to add an object variable called father in TreeNode so that WeightedNode has also this member. The problem is that I don't know when initializing the object who is going to be the father. I set the father afterwards with this method in TreeNode : def set_father(self, father_node): self.father = father_node The problem is then when i'm trying to access self.father in Weighted: print 'Name %s Father %s '%(self.name, self.father.name) I obtain: AttributeError: WeightedNode instance has no attribute 'father' I thought that I could make father visible by doing something in TreeNode.__init__ but i wasn't able to find what. How can i do that ? Thanks.

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  • posting form with file upload

    - by Jan
    I am having trouble with uploading a file when using jquery. I have the following HTML in a form. <fieldset> <ul> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="file" name="formFile" id="formFile"/></div> </li> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="text" name="formFileName" id="formFileName" /></div> </li> </ul> </fieldset> To post the data I am using $('#myForm').ajaxForm( When I post the data and the recieved data contains some javascript, the javascript is not recognised. I expected the javscriptcode to run when the data is recieved, but it happens to early. The results indicates that $ or jquery could not be found. If I remove the name attribute from the input type=file element, there are no errors, but that is not the correct solution. How could this happen?

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  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

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  • How to provide warnings during validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Alex
    Sometimes user input is not strictly invalid but can be considered problematic. For example: A user enters a long sentence in a single-line Name field. He probably should have used the Description field instead. A user enters a Name that is very similar to that of an existing entity. Perhaps he's inputting the same entity but didn't realize it already exists, or some concurrent user has just entered it. Some of these can easily be checked client-side, some require server-side checks. What's the best way, perhaps something similar to DataAnnotations validation, to provide warnings to the user in such cases? The key here is that the user has to be able to override the warning and still submit the form (or re-submit the form, depending on the implementation). The most viable solution that comes to mind is to create some attribute, similar to a CustomValidationAttribute, that may make an AJAX call and would display some warning text but doesn't affect the ModelState. The intended usage is this: [WarningOnFieldLength(MaxLength = 150)] [WarningOnPossibleDuplicate()] public string Name { get; set; } In the view: @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Name) @Html.WarningMessageFor(model => model.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Name) So, any ideas?

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  • Why does a checkbox remain checked in FF3 but not in IE, Chrome or ...

    - by sirrocco
    So - I have a checkbox <asp:CheckBox ID="chkOrder" runat="server" Visible='<%#IsCheckBoxVisible() %>' Checked="false" OnCheckedChanged="chkOrder_CheckedChanged" AutoPostBack="true" EnableViewState="false"></asp:CheckBox> the one above. Now, the checkbox is in a gridview and on databound - for all the rows in the gridview the checkbox is set to false. The problem is that the first checkbox is still true checked. In IE the problem doesn't exist, same for Chrome. I'm running out of options. Also if i use $("checkboxName").attr("checked"); // verified on jquery ready function. In FF it is true; IE false; Chrome false. Any tips? EDIT Now get ready for this : in the generated html - there is NO checked attribute. The diff between FF and IE is exactly the same. Another thing - the grid that contains the checkboxes has an ajax panel on it and when I page the grid, try to go to page 2 - the checkedChanged in codebehind is triggered.

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  • IE8 and below <input type="image"> value work around

    - by kielie
    Hi guys, I have a slight problem, I am trying to capture the input of two buttons, one yes, one no, into a database but for some reason the database doesn't always show the value of the button clicked, it just shows up blank. <form action="refer.php" method="post" id="formID" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: left;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/yes.jpg" alt="submit" value="yes" onclick="this.disabled=true,this.form.submit();" /></span> <input type="hidden" name="refer" value="yes"> </div> </form> <form action="thank_you.php" method="post" id="formID" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: right;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/no.jpg" alt="submit" value="no" onclick="this.disabled=true,this.form.submit();" /></span> <input type="hidden" name="refer" value="no" > </div> </form> Apparently anything lower than IE8 will ignore the value attribute of all form inputs. How could I get this to work properly in all browsers? jQuery or Javascript maybe?

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  • Localization of DisplayNameAttribute

    - by PowerKiKi
    Hi, I am looking for a way to localize properties names displayed in a PropertyGrid. The property's name may be "overriden" using the DisplayNameAttribute attribute. Unfortunately attributes can not have non constant expressions. So I can not use strongly typed resources such as: class Foo { [DisplayAttribute(Resources.MyPropertyNameLocalized)] // do not compile string MyProperty {get; set;} } I had a look around and found some suggestion to inherit from DisplayNameAttribute to be able to use resource. I would end up up with code like: class Foo { [MyLocalizedDisplayAttribute("MyPropertyNameLocalized")] // not strongly typed string MyProperty {get; set;} } However I lose strongly typed resource benefits which is definitely not a good thing. Then I came across DisplayNameResourceAttribute which may be what I'm looking for. But it's supposed to be in Microsoft.VisualStudio.Modeling.Design namespace and I can't find what reference I am supposed to add for this namespace. Anybody know if there's a easier way to achieve DisplayName localization in a good way ? or if there is as way to use what Microsoft seems to be using for Visual Studio ?

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  • Has inheritance become bad?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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  • XML Serialization : Has property of type Class1 : Class1 has another property : How to write the property of Class1 into XML?

    - by Wonderlander
    I want to serialize a class. In this class there's a property, type of Class1, while there are other properties in Class1. public abstract class ComponentBase { [ToSerialize]//An attribute defined my me, indicating whether or not to serialize this property. public ComponentArgs Parameters { get; set; } } public class ComponentArgs { public string WorkingPath { get; set; } public IList<Language> Languages { get; set; } public string ComponentOutputPath { get; set; } } The information serialized must be put into a Dictionary, such as ComponentSettings[str_Name]=str_Value. The method used in reading this value is Reflection. pinfo: Property Info got via Type.GetProperties(); componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); The information after serialization is: <Parameters>MS.STBIntl.Pippin.Framework.ComponentArgs</Parameters> instead of the value of ComponentArgs.WorkingPath. The solution I thought of is to append to the following line an if judgement: componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); if(pinfo is ComponentArgs) componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue( (ComponentArgs)this, null).WorkingPath+"\n"+ LanguageList+"\n"+ //Language list is a concatinated string of all elements in the list. (ComponentArgs)this, null).ComponentOutputPath+"\n"+ ); When deserializing, add a judgement of whether the value contains more than 2 "\n", if so, extract each value from the string. But this way seems clumsy and much more like an workaround. I wonder if there's any more professional way of doing it? My reviewer is very particular and he won't accept such a solution. If you know a way, could you please share it with me? Thanks a lot.

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  • How to structure code with 2 methods, one after another, which throw the same two exceptions?

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, I have two methods, one called straight after another, which both throw the exact same 2 exceptions (IF an erroneous condition occurs, not stating that I'm getting exceptions). For this, should I write seperate try and catch blocks with the one statement in each try block and catch both exceptions (Both of which I can handle as I checked MSDN class library reference and there is something I can do, eg, re-open SqlConnection or run a query and not a stored proc which does not exist). So code like this: try { obj.Open(); } catch (SqlException) { // Take action here. } catch (InvalidOperationException) { // Take action here. } And likewise for the other method I call straight after. This seems like a very messy way of coding. The other way is to code with the exception variable (that is ommited as I am using AOP to log the exception details, using a class-level attribute). Doing this, this could aid me in finding out which method caused an exception and then taking action accordingly. Is this the best approach or is there another best practise altogether? I also assume that, as only these two methods are thrown, I do not need to catch Exception as that would be for an exception I cannot handle (causes way out of my control). Thanks

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  • C# XML Documentation Compiler Warning

    - by ImperialLion
    I am curious as to why I get a compiler warning in the following situation. /// <summary>This is class A /// </summary> public class A { /// <summary>This is the documentation for Method A /// </summary> public void MethodA() { //Do something } } /// <summary>This is class B /// </summary> public class B : A { /// <summary>This does something that I want to /// reference <see cref="MethodA"/> /// </summary> public void MethodB() { //Do something } } The warning states that "XML comment on 'B.MethodB()' has cref attribute 'MethodA' that could not be resolved." If B inherits from A shouldn't the compiler be able to see that method when generating the documentation without me specifying the parent class in the cref? If I change the cref to be cref="A.MethodA()" it works fine, but it seems like that's unnecessary and is a pain to do, especially if I have to go up more than one level. As a note to anyone testing this you have to be sure to "XML documentation file" checked in the Properties - Build in order to see the warning.

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  • ReplaceAll not working as expected

    - by Tim Kemp
    Still early days with Mathematica so please forgive what is probably a very obvious question. I am trying to generate some parametric plots. I have: ParametricPlot[{ (a + b) Cos[t] - h Cos[(a + b)/b t], (a + b) Sin[t] - h Sin[(a + b)/b t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All] /. {a -> 2, b -> 1, h -> 1} No joy: the replacement rules are not applied and a, b and h remain undefined. If I instead do: Hold@ParametricPlot[{ (a + b) Cos[t] - h Cos[(a + b)/b t], (a + b) Sin[t] - h Sin[(a + b)/b t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All] /. {a -> 2, b -> 1, h -> 1} it looks like the rules ARE working, as confirmed by the output: Hold[ParametricPlot[{(2 + 1) Cos[t] - 1 Cos[(2 + 1) t], (2 + 1) Sin[t] - 1 Sin[(2 + 1) t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All]] Which is what I'd expect. Take the Hold off, though, and the ParametricPlot doesn't work. There's nothing wrong with the equations or the ParametricPlot itself, though, because I tried setting values for a, b and h in a separate expression (a=2; b=1; h=1) and I get my pretty double cardoid out as expected. So, what am I doing wrong with ReplaceAll and why are the transformation rules not working? This is another fundamentally important aspect of MMA that my OOP-ruined brain isn't understanding. I tried reading up on ReplaceAll and ParametricPlot and the closest clue I found was that "ParametricPlot has attribute HoldAll and evaluates f only after assigning specific numerical values to variables" which didn't help much or I wouldn't be here. Thanks.

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  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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  • jQuery : how to apply effect on a child element

    - by Tristan
    Hello, instead of re-writting the same function, i want to optimise my code : <div class="header"> <h3>How to use the widget</h3> <span id="idwidget" ></span> </div> <div class="content" id="widget"> the JS : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var showText="Show"; var hideText="Hide"; $("#idwidget").before("<a href='#' class='button' id='toggle_link'>"+showText+"</a>"); $('#widget').hide(); $('a#toggle_link').click(function() { if ($('a#toggle_link').text()==showText) { $('a#toggle_link').text(hideText); } else { $('a#toggle_link').text(showText); } $('#widget').toggle('slow'); return false; }); }); This is working just with the div which is called widget and the button called idwidget. But on this page i have also : <div class="header"> <h3>How to eat APPLES</h3> <span id="IDsomethingelse" ></span> </div> <div class="content" id="somethingelse"> And i want it to be compatible with the code. I heard about children attribute, do you have an idea how to do that please ? Thank you

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  • HTML prevent line break (between two table tags)

    - by arik-so
    Hello, I have following code: <table> <tr> <td>Table 1</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <td>Table 2</td> </tr> </table> Very unfortunately, a line break is inserted between these two tables. I have tried putting them both in a single span and setting the whitespace to nowrap, but at no avail. Please, could you tell me how I can simply put these elements in a single row, without setting the float attribute in CSS and without surrounding each table with a <td> {table} </td> and then putting this in a table row. Thanks a lot in advance. I have asked Google, but it just wouldn't say anything ^^ StackOverflow remained silent so far, too

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  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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