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• posting form with file upload

  - by Jan

  I am having trouble with uploading a file when using jquery. I have the following HTML in a form. <fieldset> <ul> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="file" name="formFile" id="formFile"/></div> </li> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="text" name="formFileName" id="formFileName" /></div> </li> </ul> </fieldset> To post the data I am using $('#myForm').ajaxForm( When I post the data and the recieved data contains some javascript, the javascript is not recognised. I expected the javscriptcode to run when the data is recieved, but it happens to early. The results indicates that $ or jquery could not be found. If I remove the name attribute from the input type=file element, there are no errors, but that is not the correct solution. How could this happen?

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• S3 browser upload via POST: unable to handle errors gracefully

  - by samf

  I am writing an app where I want the customer to be able to upload to Amazon S3 straight from the browser. I can make this work just fine. But when errors occur, I want to handle them more gracefully than splattering an XML document on the customer's screen. I have a scheme that I think would work, but it's failing. Here's what I'm trying: Create a form to do the upload, and store the form on S3 itself, in the same domain as the "action" attribute of the form. Redirect the customer to this form. Now their browser is sitting on https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/something. The page contains a hidden iframe. The form sets its target to the iframe. The load event handler looks at the contents of the iframe, and acts upon it. So, something like this: <iframe id="foo" name="foo" style="display: none" /> <form target="foo" action="https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/"> <input type="hidden" name="..." value="..." /> <input type="file" name="file" /> </form> with this javascript (using jquery): function handler() { var message = $("#foo").contents().find('message').text(); alert(message); } $("#foo").load(handler); Using firebug, I can see that the iframe contains an XML document, that contains a "message" node. However, the .find('message') always fails to find anything within the XML document. Notice that the action of the form has the same domain, port, and scheme as the document itself. So, I don't think that I should be running afoul of the same-origin policy. Right? But it fails every time. This is using Firefox and Google Chrome browsers. Thanks for any advice!

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• query regarding fixing the page size

  - by sukhada

  -- <f:subview id="header"> <tiles:insert definition="page.header" flush="false"/> </f:subview> <!-- </h:panelGroup>--> <h:panelGroup id="topMenu" > <tiles:insert definition="page.topMenu" flush="false"/> </h:panelGroup> <h:panelGroup id="pageContext"> <f:subview id="body"> <tiles:insert attribute="body" flush="false"/> </f:subview> </h:panelGroup> <f:facet name="footer"> <f:subview id="footer"> <tiles:insert definition="page.footer" flush="false"/> </f:subview> </f:facet> </h:panelGrid> this is structure or layout of page in tiles but m loading another page the it disturbing the layout the layout so how can i fix the page size?

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• Using sortable_element in Rails on a list generated by a find()

  - by Eli B.

  Hey all, I'm trying to use the scriptaculous helper method sortable_element to implement a drag-and-drop sortable list in my Rails application. While the code for the view looks pretty simple, I'm really not quite sure what to write in the controller to update the "position" column. Here's what I've got in my view, "_show_related_pgs.erb": <ul id = "interest_<%=@related_interest.id.to_s%>_siblings_list"> <%= render :partial => "/interests/peer_group_map", :collection => @maps, :as => :related_pg %> </ul> <%= sortable_element("interest_"+@related_interest.id.to_s+"_siblings_list", :url => {:action => :resort_related_pgs}, :handle => "drag" ) %> <br/> And here's the relevant line from the partial, "interests/peer_group_map.erb" <li class = "interest_<%=@related_interest.id.to_s%>_siblings_list" id = "interest_<%=related_pg.interest_id.to_s%>_siblings_list_<%=related_pg.id.to_s%>"> The Scriptaculous UI magic works fine with these, but I am unsure as to how to change the "position" column in the db to reflect this. Should I be passing the collection @maps back to the controller and tell it to iterate through that and increment/decrement the attribute "position" in each? If so, how can I tell which item was moved up, and which down? I couldn't find anything specific using Chrome dev-tools in the generated html. After each reordering, I also need to re-render the collection @maps since the position is being printed out next to the name of each interest (I'm using it as the "handle" specified in my call to sortable_element() above) - though this should be trivial. Any thoughts? Thanks, -e

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• Odd Things of ASP.NET MVC Deployment on IIS 6

  - by misaxi

  Recently, I am a bit interested in the deployment of ASP.NET MVC application on IIS6 because Phil Haack posted an easier way to deploy ASP.NET MVC application on ASP.NET 4. So I decided to see how different version of ASP.NET MVC works on different version of ASP.NET. First off, I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 project in Visual Studio 2010 and deploy it to IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003 (only .NET framework 3.5 installed). I set the application to run in ASP.NET 2.0 and no extra stuff. Because I just wanted to see what sort of error would occur. And as expected, some error was reported as following. Then, I set the Copy Local attribute of System.Web.Mvc assembly to true as following and deploy again. As a result, the application ran smoothly. I had read tons of materials talked about the mess of deploying MVC application on IIS 6. And I did fight to tackle the deploying issues in my previous project. At least, if had used Extensionless Url in your application, you should have configured wildcard mapping in IIS. But in this case, I even didn’t have chance to do so. What the heck was going on exactly? Did I discover a new continent?

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• Force screen size when testing embedded DOS app in Windows 7 command window

  - by tomlogic

  I'm doing some embedded DOS development with OpenWatcom (great Windows-hosted compiler for targeting 16-bit DOS applications). The target hardware has a 24x16 character screen (that supposedly emulates CGA to some degree), and I'm trying to get the CMD.EXE window on my Windows 7 machine to stay at a fixed 24x16 without any scroll bars. I've used both the window properties and MODE CON: COLS=24 LINES=16 to get the screen size that I wanted, but as soon as my application uses an INT10 BIOS calls to clear the screen, the mode jumps back to 80x24. Here's what I'm using to clear the screen: void cls(void) { // Clear screen and reset cursor position to (0,0) union REGS regs; regs.w.cx = 0; // Upper left regs.w.dx = 0x1018; // Lower right (of 16x24) regs.h.bh = 7; // Blank lines attribute (white text on black) regs.w.ax = 0x0600; // 06 = scroll up, AL=00 to clear int86( 0x10, &regs, &regs ); } Any ideas? I can still do my testing at 80x24 (or 80x25), but it doesn't entirely behave like the 24x16 mode.

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• Does video tag (HTML 5) injection via JavaScript work in any browsers?

  - by JoshNaro

  I'm trying to dynamically spawn a video element on a page using JavaScript. JavaScript <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var video = $(document.createElement('video')) .attr('id', 'VideoElement') .attr('controls', 'controls') .attr('src', 'videopath.mp4') // Changed 'href' attribute to 'src' .css({ width: 640, height: 360 }); $('#VideoContainer').append(video); }); HTML <body> <div id="VideoContainer"></div> </body> In Firefox I get the video harness, but the actual video doesn't load. In IE8 the video harness doesn't even appear. Is HTML 5 just not supported enough to accomplish this yet? Edit: Got this to work with Artiom's fix. Looks like this works fine with Chrome and Safari. I'm using a codec Firefox doesn't support, so it doesn't work there; although I suspect it will work with a supported codec. IE8 sure enough doesn't work (high five IE).

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• In Python, how to make data members visible to subclasses if not known when initializing an object ?

  - by LB

  The title is a bit long, but it should be pretty straightforward for someone well-aware of python. I'm a python newbie. So, maybe i'm doing things in the wrong way. Suppose I have a class TreeNode class TreeNode(Node): def __init__(self, name, id): Node.__init__(self, name, id) self.children = [] and a subclass with a weight: class WeightedNode(TreeNode): def __init__(self,name, id): TreeNode.__init__(self, name, id) self.weight = 0 So far, i think I'm ok. Now, I want to add an object variable called father in TreeNode so that WeightedNode has also this member. The problem is that I don't know when initializing the object who is going to be the father. I set the father afterwards with this method in TreeNode : def set_father(self, father_node): self.father = father_node The problem is then when i'm trying to access self.father in Weighted: print 'Name %s Father %s '%(self.name, self.father.name) I obtain: AttributeError: WeightedNode instance has no attribute 'father' I thought that I could make father visible by doing something in TreeNode.__init__ but i wasn't able to find what. How can i do that ? Thanks.

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• How should I map an abstract class with simple xml in Java?

  - by spderosso

  Hi, I want to achieve the following xml using simple xml framework (http://simple.sourceforge.net/): <events> <course-added date="01/01/2010"> ... </course-added> <course-removed date="01/02/2010"> .... </course-removed> <student-enrolled date="01/02/2010"> ... </student-enrolled> </events> I have the following (but it doesn't achieve the desired xml): @Root(name="events") class XMLEvents { @ElementList(inline=true) ArrayList<XMLEvent> events = Lists.newArrayList(); ... } abstract class XMLEvent { @Attribute(name="date") String dateOfEventFormatted; ... } And different type of XMLNodes that have different information (but are all different types of events) @Root(name="course-added") class XMLCourseAdded extends XMLEvent{ @Element(name="course") XMLCourseLongFormat course; .... } @Root(name="course-removed") class XMLCourseRemoved extends XMLEvent { @Element(name="course-id") String courseId; ... } How should I do the mapping or what should I change in order to be able to achieve de desired xml? Thanks!

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• xpath php attributes not working?

  - by Jared

  Getting this error Call to a member function attributes() on a non-object I have found multiple answers to this on SO, but none of them seem to solve my problem? Here is the XML: <Routes> <Route type="source" name="incoming"> </Route> <Routes> Here is the PHP: $doc = new SimpleXMLElement('routingConfig.xml', null, true); class traverseXML { function getData() { global $doc; $routeCount = count($doc -> xpath("Route")); //this value returns correctly $routeArr = array(); for ($i = 1; $i <= $routeCount; $i++) { $name = $doc -> Route[$i] -> attributes() -> name; array_push($routeArr, $name); } return $routeArr; } } $traverseXML = new traverseXML; var_dump($traverseXML -> getData()); I understand what the error means, but how is it a non-object? How do I return the name attribute of Routes/Route[1] ?

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• ApplicationDispatcher exception

  - by JFB

  Whenever I try to redirect to a certain page using this dispatch method that is called from my doGet method, I get the following exception. I have no idea why! account controller servlet protected void dispatch(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, String page) throws javax.servlet.ServletException, java.io.IOException { RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext() .getRequestDispatcher(page); try { dispatcher.forward(request, response); } catch (java.lang.NullPointerException e) { System.out.println("NullPointerException: attribute expected in view"); } } Error msg java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jasper.JasperException: java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.handleJspException(JspServletWrapper.java:502) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:430) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) controller.AccountController.dispatch(AccountController.java:91) controller.AccountController.doExecute(AccountController.java:72) controller.AccountController.doGet(AccountController.java:34) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) java.lang.NullPointerException org.apache.jsp.content.edit_jsp._jspService(edit_jsp.java:109) org.apache.jasper.runtime.HttpJspBase.service(HttpJspBase.java:70) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:388) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) controller.AccountController.dispatch(AccountController.java:91) controller.AccountController.doExecute(AccountController.java:72) controller.AccountController.doGet(AccountController.java:34) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717)

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• managedObjectContext question...

  - by treasure

  Hello, I have an app which is a UITabBarController, I have defined two subviews Both tabs have their Class attribute in the Identity Inspector set to UINavigationController. Now i have managed to get this far with my coding after VERY LONG trials. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; myAppDelegate *appDelegate = (myAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; self.managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; { NSError *error = nil; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]]; NSArray *fetchedItems = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; NSEntityDescription *entityDesc = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; // replace the old data with new. this DOESNT WORK if (fetchedItems.count > 0) { Usr *newUsr; for (newUsr in fetchedItems) { if ([newUsr.name isEqualToString:@"Line One"]) { newUsr.uName = @"Line One (new)"; } } } //add a new default data. THIS ADDS DATA TO MY TABLEVIEW BUT IT DOESNT SAVE THEM TO THE SQLITE User *addedDefaultdata = nil; addedDefaultdata = [[User alloc] initWithEntity:entityDesc insertIntoManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; addedDefaultdata.name = @"Added new 1"; [addedDefaultdata release]; } NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } } and my appdelegate looks like this: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [application setStatusBarStyle:UIStatusBarStyleBlackOpaque]; [window addSubview:navigationController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } now I cannot quire the "User" at all! although i get no errors or warnings! Any suggestions would be much appreciated! Thanks

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• One-to-many Associations Empty Columns Issue (Ext on Rails)

  - by Joe

  I'm playing with rewriting part of a web application in Rails + Ext. However, I'm having trouble getting an associated models' name to display in the grid view. I've been able to successfully convert several models and arrange the views nicely using tabs and Ext's layout helpers. However, I'm in the middle of setting up an association -- I've followed along with Jon Barket's tutorial on how to do this using Ext -- and I've made all the Rails and JS changes suggested (with appropriate name changes for my models,) the result being that the combo box is now being correctly populated with the names of the associated models, and changes are actually written correctly to database, BUT the data doesn't show up in the column, it's just empty. However, the correct data is there in the 'detail' view. Really just wondering if anyone else ran into this, or had any thoughts on what could be happening. Definitely willing to post code if requested; just note that (AFAIK) my changes follow the tutorial pretty closely. Thanks in advance! UPDATE: Alright, slight progress - kind of. I can get the associated model id # displaying properly -- just by modifying the column model slightly. But I can't get the virtual attribute displayed in the main table (in Jon's example it's country_name.) It still goes blank when I change the data source for that column from dataIndex: 'model[associated_model_id]' to dataIndex: 'virtual_attributes[associated_model_name]' ANOTHER UPDATE: Bump. Has NOBODY here tried integrating Ext with Rails?

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• my web service works locally but, not when it is deployed

  - by rogdawg

  When I deploy my web service, I get the following error: There is no build provider registered for the extension '.svc'. You can register one in the section in machine.config or web.config. Make sure is has a BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute attribute which includes the value 'Web' or 'All'. I found one thread (http://forums.asp.net/t/1228638.aspx) that suggested a solution but, I can not get it to work. If I make the changes to my web config file as suggested in the thread, I then get a configuration error. One odd thing is that, if I check the machine.config file on my machine, located at C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config, I don't see any of the config settings described in the thread. As a matter of fact, there is no mention of "compilation" or "buildProviders" at all. The on-line documents I have found regarding BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute have not been of any help. Thanks in advance for any advice you can give. Here is my entire config file listing: <?xml version="1.0"?>

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• Conflict with @Html.LabelFor and W3C Validator?

  - by Tyler

  I have a model that I am using to present an index of a model from a database and have given a display name to some of the rows that may need spaces in them, (I.e. "weekstarting" in a db would be given a display name of "Week Starting"). So I set the display name for my model like this: [DisplayName("Week Starting")] public DateTime WeekStarting { get; set; } and then in the table headers for my table I use the following line of code to display the field name using its given display name: @Html.LabelFor(x => x.First().WeekStarting) The above all works fine. But I am using the W3C validator and it is giving me the following error for the example I have given: The for attribute of the label element must refer to a form control. Forgive me if it is obvious but what am I doing wrong here? I am not using a form I am simply displaying an index of items in a table. I have tried to look for an answer and saw someone suggest that the form controls being referred to need ids (even though I'm not using a form) but this would not be applicable in this instance because if I tried to set an id in the index it would be duplicated with each item in the index: foreach (var item in Model.Tbms) { <tr><td>@item.value</td><tr>.... would be repeated for each item, and also unsure where I would put the id in any case, the td? } Or is there a better way to label the field header, with my preferred display name in the first place? I guess I could just swap @Html.LabelFor... for Hard code field name but do I have to?

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• Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

  - by przno

  I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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• Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

  - by yarmiganosca

  Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

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• Invoking jQuery function without an element

  - by Sandman

  So, I use jQuery quite extensively and I am well aware of the "right" way to do the below, but there are times where I want to solve it in a more generic way. I'll explain. So, I may have a link, like this: <a href='menu' class='popup'>Show menu</a>. Now, I have a jQuery function that fires on click for all a.popup that takes the href-attribute and shows the <div id='menu'></div> item (in this case). It also handles URL's if it can't find a DOM item with that ID. No problem here. But, there are times when I don't have the same control over the coe where I can create a selectable target that way. Either because the code isn't created by me or because it is created through a chain of function that would all need a huge ovrhaul which I won't do. So, from time to time, I would like to have this code: <a href="javascript:popup('menu')">Show menu</a> This would be in a case where I can only submit the label and the HREF for a link. No class, no nothing. Problem here is that the function popup() has no idea about what element invoked it, and in most cases that's not a problem for me, since I only need to know where the mouse cursor was upon invokation. But in some cases, I use someone elses jQuery functions, like qTip or something else. so I still want to fire off qTip(); when clicking a link that runs this JS function, but what do I attach it to to make it show? I can't just runt $().qTip(); because that implies $(this) and "this" is undefined inside the function. So how do I do it? Any ideas?

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• Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

  - by Sam

  Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

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• Has inheritance become bad?

  - by mafutrct

  Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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• How to structure code with 2 methods, one after another, which throw the same two exceptions?

  - by dotnetdev

  Hi, I have two methods, one called straight after another, which both throw the exact same 2 exceptions (IF an erroneous condition occurs, not stating that I'm getting exceptions). For this, should I write seperate try and catch blocks with the one statement in each try block and catch both exceptions (Both of which I can handle as I checked MSDN class library reference and there is something I can do, eg, re-open SqlConnection or run a query and not a stored proc which does not exist). So code like this: try { obj.Open(); } catch (SqlException) { // Take action here. } catch (InvalidOperationException) { // Take action here. } And likewise for the other method I call straight after. This seems like a very messy way of coding. The other way is to code with the exception variable (that is ommited as I am using AOP to log the exception details, using a class-level attribute). Doing this, this could aid me in finding out which method caused an exception and then taking action accordingly. Is this the best approach or is there another best practise altogether? I also assume that, as only these two methods are thrown, I do not need to catch Exception as that would be for an exception I cannot handle (causes way out of my control). Thanks

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• EF Code First, how can I achieve two foreign keys from one table to other table?

  - by Yoo Matsuo

  I've recently downloaded Entity Framework Code First CTP5, and have a trouble with this scenario. I have two tables as follows: Members table ID Name Comments table ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID And, the data should be like the following: Members ID Name 1 Mike 2 John 3 Tom Comments ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID 1 Good 1 2 2 Good 1 3 3 Bad 2 1 Then, I coded as shown below: public class Member { public int ID {get; set; } public string Name { get; set;} public virtual ICollection Comments { get; set;} } public class Comment { public int ID { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } public int CommentedMemberID { get; set; } public int CommentMemberID{ get; set; } public virtual Member CommentedMember { get; set; } public virtual Member CommentMember { get; set; } } public class TestContext : DbContext { public DbSet Members { get; set; } public DbSet Comments { get; set; } } But when I run these models on my cshtml, it gives me errors saying "Cannot create CommentMember instance" or something like that (Sorry, I already changed my models to proceed the EF Code First evaluation, so can't reproduce the same error). I've also tried to use OnModelCreating on the TestContext, but can't find any good instructions and don't know what to do. I saw a blog post of the EF Code First CTP3, and it seems there was a RelatedTo attribute in that version, but now it has gone. Could anyone know how to get it work properly? Or is this a totally wrong way to go with this scenario? Thanks, Yoo

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• disable .click function on an anchor in jquery

  - by user554014

  This is written in an external .js with jquery... I have two windows that slide in and out of view like: $(document).ready(function() { // hides gallery1 as soon as the DOM is ready $('#gallery1').hide(); // shows the menu on click $('#showgal1').click(function() { $('#gallery1').delay(490).show('slide', {direction:'left'}); $('#gallery2').hide('slide', {direction:'right'}); //need code to disable showgal1 and enable showgal2 }); $('#showgal2').click(function() { $('#gallery2').delay(490).show('slide', {direction:'right'}); $('#gallery1').hide('slide', {direction:'left'}); //need code to disable showgal2 and enable showgal1 }); }); 'gallery1' and 'gallery2' are DIV's with flash image galleries and 'showgal1' and 'showgal2' are id's of anchors... looks like <a href="#" id="showgal1">gallery 1</a> I cannot find a way to disable the .click function when one is clicked and re-enable the other... i want to disable 'showgal1' by default and when 'showgal2' event takes place it removes the attribute and makes 'showgal2' disabled until 'showgal1' is clicked... the .attr('disabled','disabled') hasn't worked yet...

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• ReplaceAll not working as expected

  - by Tim Kemp

  Still early days with Mathematica so please forgive what is probably a very obvious question. I am trying to generate some parametric plots. I have: ParametricPlot[{ (a + b) Cos[t] - h Cos[(a + b)/b t], (a + b) Sin[t] - h Sin[(a + b)/b t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All] /. {a -> 2, b -> 1, h -> 1} No joy: the replacement rules are not applied and a, b and h remain undefined. If I instead do: Hold@ParametricPlot[{ (a + b) Cos[t] - h Cos[(a + b)/b t], (a + b) Sin[t] - h Sin[(a + b)/b t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All] /. {a -> 2, b -> 1, h -> 1} it looks like the rules ARE working, as confirmed by the output: Hold[ParametricPlot[{(2 + 1) Cos[t] - 1 Cos[(2 + 1) t], (2 + 1) Sin[t] - 1 Sin[(2 + 1) t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All]] Which is what I'd expect. Take the Hold off, though, and the ParametricPlot doesn't work. There's nothing wrong with the equations or the ParametricPlot itself, though, because I tried setting values for a, b and h in a separate expression (a=2; b=1; h=1) and I get my pretty double cardoid out as expected. So, what am I doing wrong with ReplaceAll and why are the transformation rules not working? This is another fundamentally important aspect of MMA that my OOP-ruined brain isn't understanding. I tried reading up on ReplaceAll and ParametricPlot and the closest clue I found was that "ParametricPlot has attribute HoldAll and evaluates f only after assigning specific numerical values to variables" which didn't help much or I wouldn't be here. Thanks.

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• Has anyone used ever Mangoslick from themeforest?

  - by bonesnatch

  I was assigned to integrate MangoSlick theme to our current admin panel, Its a jQuery, Slick(?) and Responsive template. First, let me explain how the API goes In the documentation, it only says this is the only way data-[options]=[value] Example: If I wanna make a progress bar I can use this format <div class="progress"> <div class="bar" data-title="[title]" data-value="[value]" data-max="[max]" data-format="[format string]"></div> </div> so filling-in values <div class="progress"> <div class="bar" data-title="Space" data-value="1285" data-max="5120" data-format="0,0 MB"></div> </div> I will have this as output Now, the main question is when I use jQuery attr() to change the attribute values for data-title, data-max, data-value and data-format. Why is it not working? <script> var jq = $.noConflict(); jq(document).ready(function(){ jq('#bokz').attr("data-title", "No Space"); }); </script> Using the script above and inspect element in chrome the values are changed but not in the progressbar Some of you may have some ideas on this? Any help/suggestion would be very much appreciated.

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