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  • gcc/g++: error when compiling large file

    - by Alexander
    Hi, I have a auto-generated C++ source file, around 40 MB in size. It largely consists of push_back commands for some vectors and string constants that shall be pushed. When I try to compile this file, g++ exits and says that it couldn't reserve enough virtual memory (around 3 GB). Googling this problem, I found that using the command line switches --param ggc-min-expand=0 --param ggc-min-heapsize=4096 may solve the problem. They, however, only seem to work when optimization is turned on. 1) Is this really the solution that I am looking for? 2) Or is there a faster, better (compiling takes ages with these options acitvated) way to do this? Best wishes, Alexander Update: Thanks for all the good ideas. I tried most of them. Using an array instead of several push_back() operations reduced memory usage, but as the file that I was trying to compile was so big, it still crashed, only later. In a way, this behaviour is really interesting, as there is not much to optimize in such a setting -- what does the GCC do behind the scenes that costs so much memory? (I compiled with deactivating all optimizations as well and got the same results) The solution that I switched to now is reading in the original data from a binary object file that I created from the original file using objcopy. This is what I originally did not want to do, because creating the data structures in a higher-level language (in this case Perl) was more convenient than having to do this in C++. However, getting this running under Win32 was more complicated than expected. objcopy seems to generate files in the ELF format, and it seems that some of the problems I had disappeared when I manually set the output format to pe-i386. The symbols in the object file are by standard named after the file name, e.g. converting the file inbuilt_training_data.bin would result in these two symbols: binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_start and binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_end. I found some tutorials on the web which claim that these symbols should be declared as extern char _binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_start;, but this does not seem to be right -- only extern char binary_inbuilt_training_data_bin_start; worked for me.

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  • References between Spring beans when using a NameSpaceHandler

    - by teabot
    I'm trying to use a Spring context namespace to build some existing configuration objects in an application. I have defined a context and pretty much have if working satisfactorily - however, I'd like one bean defined by my namespace to implicitly reference another: Consider the class named 'Node': public Class Node { private String aField; private Node nextNode; public Node(String aField, Node nextNode) { ... } Now in my Spring context I have something like so: <myns:container> <myns:node aField="nodeOne"/> <myns:node aField="nodeTwo"/> </myns:container> Now I'd like nodeOne.getNode() == nodeTwo to be true. So that nodeOne.getNode() and nodeTwo refer to the same bean instance. These are pretty much the relevant parts I have in my AbstractBeanDefinitionParser: public AbstractBeanDefinition parseInternal(Element element, ParserContext parserContext) { ... BeanDefinitionBuilder containerFactory = BeanDefinitionBuilder.rootBeanDefinition(ContainerFactoryBean.class); List<BeanDefinition> containerNodes = Lists.newArrayList(); String previousNodeBeanName; // iterate backwards over the 'node' elements for (int i = nodeElements.size() - 1; i >= 0; --i) { BeanDefinitionBuilder node = BeanDefinitionBuilder.rootBeanDefinition(Node.class); node.setScope(BeanDefinition.SCOPE_SINGLETON); String nodeField = nodeElements.getAttribute("aField"); node.addConstructorArgValue(nodeField); if (previousNodeBeanName != null) { node.addConstructorArgValue(new RuntimeBeanReference(previousNodeBeanName)); } else { node.addConstructorArgValue(null); } BeanDefinition nodeDefinition = node.getBeanDefinition(); previousNodeBeanName = "inner-node-" + nodeField; parserContext.getRegistry().registerBeanDefinition(previousNodeBeanName, nodeDefinition); containerNodes.add(node); } containerFactory.addPropertyValue("nodes", containerNodes); } When the application context is created my Node instances are created and recognized as singletons. Furthermore, the nextNode property is populated with a Node instance with the previous nodes configuration - however, it isn't the same instance. If I output a log message in Node's constructor I see two instances created for each node bean definition. I can think of a few workarounds myself but I'm keen to use the existing model. So can anyone tell me how I can pass these runtime bean references so that I get the correct singleton behaviour for my Node instances?

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  • Python constructor does weird things with optional parameters

    - by christangrant
    Can you help me understand of the behaviour and implications of the python __init__ constructor. It seems like when there is an optional parameter and you try and set an existing object to a new object the optional value of the existing object is preserved and copied. Ok that was confusing... so look at an example I concocted below. In the code below I am trying to make a tree structure with nodes and possibly many children . In the first class NodeBad, the constructor has two parameters, the value and any possible children. The second class NodeGood only takes the value of the node as a parameter. Both have an addchild method to add a child to a node. When creating a tree with the NodeGood class, it works as expected. However, when doing the same thing with the NodeBad class, it seems as though a child can only be added once! The code below will result in the following output: Good Tree 1 2 3 [< 3 >] Bad Tree 1 2 2 [< 2 >, < 3 >] Que Pasa? Here is the Example: #!/usr/bin/python class NodeBad: def __init__(self, value, c=[]): self.value = value self.children = c def addchild(self, node): self.children.append(node) def __str__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value def __repr__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value class NodeGood: def __init__(self, value): self.value = value self.children = [] def addchild(self, node): self.children.append(node) def __str__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value def __repr__(self): return '< %s >' % self.value if __name__ == '__main__': print 'Good Tree' ng = NodeGood(1) # Root Node rootgood = ng ng.addchild(NodeGood(2)) # 1nd Child ng = ng.children[0] ng.addchild(NodeGood(3)) # 2nd Child print rootgood.value print rootgood.children[0].value print rootgood.children[0].children[0].value print rootgood.children[0].children print 'Bad Tree' nb = NodeBad(1) # Root Node rootbad = nb nb.addchild(NodeBad(2)) # 1st Child nb = nb.children[0] nb.addchild(NodeBad(3)) # 2nd Child print rootbad.value print rootbad.children[0].value print rootbad.children[0].children[0].value print rootbad.children[0].children

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  • Raphael Scope Drag n drop multiple paper instances

    - by donald
    I have two Raphael paper instances. In both I want to drag and drop an element (circle). It is important for me to assign both these circles the same id. I expected no problem, as both are in different paper instances and therefore in different scope. What happens is, that somehow both elements react, when I have clicked both elements at least once. If I however give these elements different IDs everything works fine (each element only calls its "start", "drag" and "up" function if draged around). Is this intended behaviour of Raphael and do I have to assign different IDs to the elements in the different paper instances? Hopefully not and you can point me to the right direction :-) Thanks a lot for your Help in advance, Here comes the code: <!doctype html> <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <title>DragNDrop</title> <script src="raphael-min.js"></script> </head> <body> <h1>Paper1</h1> <div id="divPaper1" style ="height: 150px; width: 300px; border:thin solid red"></div> <h1>Paper2</h1> <div id="divPaper2" style ="height: 150px; width: 300px; border:thin solid red"></div> <script> start1 = function () { console.log("start1"); } drag1 = function () { console.log("move1"); } up1 = function () { console.log("up1"); } start2 = function () { console.log("start2"); } drag2 = function () { console.log("move2"); } up2 = function () { console.log("up2"); } var paper1 = Raphael("divPaper1", "100%", "100%"); var circle1 = paper1.circle(40, 40, 30); circle1.attr("fill", "yellow"); circle1.id = "circle"; //both circles get the same id circle1.drag(drag1, start1, up1); paper2 = Raphael("divPaper2", "100%", "100%"); var circle2 = paper2.circle(40, 40, 30); circle2.attr("fill", "red"); circle2.id = "circle"; //both circles get the same id circle2.drag(drag2, start2, up2); </script> </body>

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  • Choosing a distributed shared memory solution

    - by mindas
    I have a task to build a prototype for a massively scalable distributed shared memory (DSM) app. The prototype would only serve as a proof-of-concept, but I want to spend my time most effectively by picking the components which would be used in the real solution later on. The aim of this solution is to take data input from an external source, churn it and make the result available for a number of frontends. Those "frontends" would just take the data from the cache and serve it without extra processing. The amount of frontend hits on this data can literally be millions per second. The data itself is very volatile; it can (and does) change quite rapidly. However the frontends should see "old" data until the newest has been processed and cached. The processing and writing is done by a single (redundant) node while other nodes only read the data. In other words: no read-through behaviour. I was looking into solutions like memcached however this particular one doesn't fulfil all our requirements which are listed below: The solution must at least have Java client API which is reasonably well maintained as the rest of app is written in Java and we are seasoned Java developers; The solution must be totally elastic: it should be possible to add new nodes without restarting other nodes in the cluster; The solution must be able to handle failover. Yes, I realize this means some overhead, but the overall served data size isn't big (1G max) so this shouldn't be a problem. By "failover" I mean seamless execution without hardcoding/changing server IP address(es) like in memcached clients when a node goes down; Ideally it should be possible to specify the degree of data overlapping (e.g. how many copies of the same data should be stored in the DSM cluster); There is no need to permanently store all the data but there might be a need of post-processing of some of the data (e.g. serialization to the DB). Price. Obviously we prefer free/open source but we're happy to pay a reasonable amount if a solution is worth it. In any way, paid 24hr/day support contract is a must. The whole thing has to be hosted in our data centers so SaaS offerings like Amazon SimpleDB are out of scope. We would only consider this if no other options would be available. Ideally the solution would be strictly consistent (as in CAP); however, eventual consistence can be considered as an option. Thanks in advance for any ideas.

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  • Java getInputStreat SocketTimeoutException instead of NoRouteToHostException

    - by Jon
    I have an odd issue happening when trying to open multiple Input Streams (in separate threads) on Linux (RHEL). The behaviour works as expected on windows. I am kicking off 3 threads to open https connections to 3 different servers. All three are invalid IP addresses (in this test case), so I expect an NoRouteToHostException for each of them. The first two return these as expected, and quite quickly. (see stack trace below) However the third (and 4th when I tested it that way) do NOT give a no route exception. They wait for ages, and then give a SocketTimeoutException (see other stack trace below). This takes ages to come back, and does not accurately express the connection issue. The offending line of code is: reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); Has anyone seen something like this before? Are there multi-threading issues with sockets on REHL or some limit somewhere to how many can connect at once...or...something? Expected stack trace, as received for first two: java.net.NoRouteToHostException: No route to host at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.connect(SSLSocketImpl.java:559) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:158) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.(HttpsClient.java:272) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:329) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:172) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:916) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:158) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1177) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getInputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:234) Unexpected stack trace, as received on 3rd: java.net.SocketTimeoutException: connect timed out at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.connect(SSLSocketImpl.java:559) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:158) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.(HttpsClient.java:272) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:329) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:172) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:916) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:158) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1177) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getInputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:234)

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  • Issues loading Jquery (Galleria) script from inside an i-frame (beginner javascript?)

    - by 103188530284789248582
    Hello, first of all - I'm not entirely new to javascript, but am not fluent in it as I am with html and css, and am especially new to jQuery... so please excuse me if this questions seems easy or obvious, but after days of google I still have no solution to the problem... using jQuery 1.4.2.min, jQuery-ui-1.8.1 .... the site in question: http://homecapture.ca/sets/project_index.html The scenario: I have a tabbed menu generated from an unordered list, when a menu item is clicked it reveals an iframe which links to the page containing an image gallery. I am using jQuery UI tabs for the tabbed menu, and the galleries to which I'm linking are jQuery Galleria pages, automatically generated with Jalbum. The problem: The galleria plug-in only works normally from inside of the containing iframe in Chrome, has inconsistent behaviour in IE8 (seems to work in my local copy, but won't load properly online), and is not loaded properly in Firefox. Instead of displaying a thumbnail area and the first large image, the Galleria page shows the first thumbnail only, then when it is clicked the image it links to, but if you right-click and go Back, the iframe content shows up as a properly rendered Galleria page. Jalbum generates more script in the < head of the page in addition to linking to jquery and the galleria plug-in. All of it seems to be in charge of the gallery navigation , and I have relocated it to the < body of the page, in an effort to make it load after the parent page scripts, and together with the gallery content. At this point I am not sure what else I could do to solve the problem, without digging around in all or some of the library and pluging .js files (which I am not knowledgeable enough to do without some pointers). Has anyone dealt with a similar issue? I'm seeing some solutions for manipulating iframe content from a parent page with jQuery on here, is that what I should be researching instead? Thanks in advance for all the help! ps. I tried posting some code, but it seems I do not have enough 'reputation' for things to work right on here either :)

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  • Accessing Content Page elements

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I am facing a strange problem.. may be i am overlooking something and not able to find the silly issue. Need your help! I have a Master page and a Content Page: <form id="AccountForm" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MenuHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> <hr /> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ContentHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> And my content page has some form elements: <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentHolder" runat="server"> First Name: <asp:TextBox ID="fName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Middle Name: <asp:TextBox ID="mName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Family Name: <asp:TextBox ID="lName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Birthday: <asp:TextBox ID="birthday" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Mobile Phone: <asp:TextBox ID="mobile" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Alternate Phone: <asp:TextBox ID="phone" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> I also have the code for submit button in the content page where i try to retrieve the values from the form elements and persist it into DB. Here is the SubmitButton_Click code: protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { log.Info("From Submit button: " + customerObject.first_name + " " + customerObject.family_name); if (fName != null) log.Info("First Name is not null"); log.Info("First Name:" + fName.Text); log.Info("Middle Name:" + mName.Text); log.Info("Family Name:" + fName.Text); log.Info("Mobile:" + mobile.Text); log.Info("Phone: " + phone.Text); log.Info("Address:" + bAddressL1.Text + bAddressL2.Text); Strangly.. i don't get any data that is filled into my text fields? Their objects are not null as well!! why is this behaviour happening? I am not trying to access elements in master page or other.. all the fields are in the content page.. only thing is there is no form element in the content page and the form element is in master page! Thanks in advance for your suggestions and answers. Abdel Raoof Olakara

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  • Inserting contact with android and querying the result uri returns no entries

    - by th0m4d
    Im developing an application which is dealing with the android contacts API. I implemented methods to insert, update and query contacts. So far everything worked (writing and reading contacts). At one point in my project Im experiencing a strange behaviour. I insert a contact using batch mode. I receive the URI to the RawContact. I do this in a background thread. // use batchmode for contact insertion ArrayList ops = new ArrayList(); int rawContactInsertIndex = ops.size(); // create rawContact ops.add(ContentProviderOperation.newInsert(RawContacts.CONTENT_URI) .withValue(RawContacts.ACCOUNT_TYPE, ConstantsContract.ACCOUNT_TYPE) .withValue(RawContacts.ACCOUNT_NAME, accountName).build()); ops.add(createInsertOperation().withValueBackReference(Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID, rawContactInsertIndex) .withValue(Data.MIMETYPE, StructuredName.CONTENT_ITEM_TYPE) .withValue(StructuredName.DISPLAY_NAME, displayName).withValue(StructuredName.GIVEN_NAME, firstName) .withValue(StructuredName.FAMILY_NAME, lastName).build()); //other data values... ContentProviderResult[] results = context.getContentResolver().applyBatch(ContactsContract.AUTHORITY, ops); if (results.length 0) { result = results[0]; } Then i request and store the lookup uri RawContacts.getContactLookupUri(this.getContentResolver(), myContantRawContactUri); I am able to query the contact using the rawContactUri directly after inserting it (in the same thread). The lookup uri returns null. Uri rawContactUri = appUser.getRawContactUri(ctx); if (rawContactUri == null) { return null; } String lastPathSegment = rawContactUri.getLastPathSegment(); long rawContactId = Long.decode(lastPathSegment); if (rawContactUri != null) { contact = readContactWithID(rawContactId, ContactsContract.Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID); In a different place in the project I want to query the contact i inserted by the stored lookup uri or raw contact uri. Both return no rows from the content provider. I tried it in the main thread and in another background thread. ctx.getContentResolver().query(ContactsContract.Data.CONTENT_URI, null, ContactsContract.Data.RAW_CONTACT_ID + " = ? AND " + ContactsContract.Data.MIMETYPE + " = ?", new String[] { contactID + "", ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.StructuredName.CONTENT_ITEM_TYPE }, null); My first thought was that it could be related to the context.getContentResolver(). But the android documentation states, that the ContentResolver objects scope is the application's package, so you have on ContentResolver for the whole app. Am I right? What am I doing wrong? Why does the same rawContactUri return the contact at one place and does not on another place? And why do I get a lookup uri from a raw contact, which is not working at all?

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  • Can I call make runtime decided method calls in Java?

    - by Catalin Marin
    I know there is an invoke function that does the stuff, I am overall interested in the "correctness" of using such a behavior. My issue is this: I have a Service Object witch contains methods which I consider services. What I want to do is alter the behavior of those services without later intrusion. For example: class MyService { public ServiceResponse ServeMeDonuts() { do stuff... return new ServiceResponse(); } after 2 months I find out that I need to offer the same service to a new client app and I also need to do certain extra stuff like setting a flag, or make or updating certain data, or encode the response differently. What I can do is pop it up and throw down some IFs. In my opinion this is not good as it means interaction with tested code and may result in un wanted behaviour for the previous service clients. So I come and add something to my registry telling the system that the "NewClient" has a different behavior. So I'll do something like this: public interface Behavior { public void preExecute(); public void postExecute(); } public class BehaviorOfMyService implements Behavior{ String method; String clientType; public void BehaviorOfMyService(String method,String clientType) { this.method = method; this.clientType = clientType; } public void preExecute() { Method preCall = this.getClass().getMethod("pre" + this.method + this.clientType); if(preCall != null) { return preCall.invoke(); } return false; } ...same for postExecute(); public void preServeMeDonutsNewClient() { do the stuff... } } when the system will do something like this if(registrySaysThereIs different behavior set for this ServiceObject) { Class toBeCalled = Class.forName("BehaviorOf" + usedServiceObjectName); Object instance = toBeCalled.getConstructor().newInstance(method,client); instance.preExecute(); ....call the service... instance.postExecute(); .... } I am not particularly interested in correctness of code as in correctness of thinking and approach. Actually I have to do this in PHP, witch I see as a kind of Pop music of programming which I have to "sing" for commercial reasons, even though I play POP I really want to sing by the book, so putting aside my more or less inspired analogy I really want to know your opinion on this matter for it's practical necessity and technical approach. Thanks

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  • Memory management with Objective-C Distributed Objects: my temporary instances live forever!

    - by jkp
    I'm playing with Objective-C Distributed Objects and I'm having some problems understanding how memory management works under the system. The example given below illustrates my problem: Protocol.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @protocol DOServer - (byref id)createTarget; @end Server.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" @interface DOTarget : NSObject @end @interface DOServer : NSObject < DOServer > @end @implementation DOTarget - (id)init { if ((self = [super init])) { NSLog(@"Target created"); } return self; } - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"Target destroyed"); [super dealloc]; } @end @implementation DOServer - (byref id)createTarget { return [[[DOTarget alloc] init] autorelease]; } @end int main() { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; DOServer *server = [[DOServer alloc] init]; NSConnection *connection = [[NSConnection new] autorelease]; [connection setRootObject:server]; if ([connection registerName:@"test-server"] == NO) { NSLog(@"Failed to vend server object"); } else [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] run]; [pool drain]; return 0; } Client.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" int main() { unsigned i = 0; for (; i < 3; i ++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; id server = [NSConnection rootProxyForConnectionWithRegisteredName:@"test-server" host:nil]; [server setProtocolForProxy:@protocol(DOServer)]; NSLog(@"Created target: %@", [server createTarget]); [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] runUntilDate:[NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSinceNow:1.0]]; [pool drain]; } return 0; } The issue is that any remote objects created by the root proxy are not released when their proxy counterparts in the client go out of scope. According to the documentation: When an object’s remote proxy is deallocated, a message is sent back to the receiver to notify it that the local object is no longer shared over the connection. I would therefore expect that as each DOTarget goes out of scope (each time around the loop) it's remote counterpart would be dellocated, since there is no other reference to it being held on the remote side of the connection. In reality this does not happen: the temporary objects are only deallocate when the client application quits, or more accurately, when the connection is invalidated. I can force the temporary objects on the remote side to be deallocated by explicitly invalidating the NSConnection object I'm using each time around the loop and creating a new one but somehow this just feels wrong. Is this the correct behaviour from DO? Should all temporary objects live as long as the connection that created them? Are connections therefore to be treated as temporary objects which should be opened and closed with each series of requests against the server? Any insights would be appreciated.

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  • Cached ObjectDataSource not firing Select Event even Cache Dependecy Removed

    - by John Polvora
    I have the following scenario. A Page with a DetailsView binded to an ObjectDatasource with cache-enabled. The SelectMethod is assigned at Page_Load event, depending on my User Level Logic. After assigned the selectMethod and Parameters for the ODS, if Cache not exists, then ODS will be cached the first time. The next time, the cache will be applied to the ODS and the select event don't need to be fired since the dataresult is cached. The problem is, the ODS Cache works fine, but I have a Refresh button to clear the cache and rebind the DetailsView. Am I doing correctly ? Below is my code. <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" EnableModelValidation="True" EnableViewState="False" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None"> </asp:DetailsView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" runat="server" SelectMethod="" TypeName="BL.BusinessLogic" EnableCaching="true"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="idCompany" Type="String" /> <SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton_Refresh" runat="server" OnClick="RefreshClick" ImageUrl="~/img/refresh.png" /> And here is the code behind public partial class Index : Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = ""; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = ""; switch (this._loginData.UserLevel) //this is a struct I use for control permissions e pages behaviour { case OperNivel.SysAdmin: case OperNivel.SysOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "SystemSummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = "0"; break; } case OperNivel.CompanyAdmin: case OperNivel.CompanyOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "CompanySummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = this._loginData.UserLevel.ToString(); break; } default: break; } } protected void Page_LoadComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] == null) { this._loginData.LoginDatetime = DateTime.Now; Session["loginData"] = _loginData; Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] = _loginData; DetailsView1.DataBind(); } } protected void RefreshClick(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { Cache.Remove(ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency); } } Can anyone help me? The Select() Event of the ObjectDasource is not firing even I Remove the CacheKey Dependency

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  • Reliable session faulting for unknown reason

    - by Scarfman007
    I am trying to achieve the following - one client-side proxy instance (kept open) accessed by multiple threads using a reliable session. What I have managed so far is to have either A) a reliable session with a client-side proxy which is created and disposed per call or B) what I aim for, but without a reliable session. When I enable reliable sessions on my binding however, the following behaviour is exhibited: Client-side Upon application startup everything appears to work fine until roughly 18 messages in to the WCF session. I firstly get the proxy.InnerChannel.Faulted event raised, then an exception is caught at the point where I am calling the method on the proxy. The exception is a System.TimeoutException, with message: "The request channel timed out while waiting for a reply after 00:00:59.9062512. Increase the timeout value passed to the call to Request or increase the SendTimeout value on the Binding. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." The inner exception has a similar message: "The request operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." With the method at the top of the inner stack trace being: System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestSessionChannel.SyncRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I then call proxy.Close followed by proxy.Abort (catching and ignoring exceptions). If I utilize the default settings (i.e. have simply <reliableSession/>), then calling proxy. Close results in another System.Timeout exception (although this time the allotted timeout is 00:00:00), however if I override the defaults as specified above no exception is thrown. Service-side Utilizing WCF tracing I get a System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException, with message: "The sequence has been terminated by the remote endpoint. The session has stopped waiting for a particular reply. Because of this the reliable session cannot continue. The reliable session was faulted." And a stack trace ending at: System.ServiceModel.AsyncResult.End[TAsyncResult](IAsyncResult result) When remotely attaching to the server I get the same message, which occurs when code execution steps over the return statement of my service in the service call which causes the error. The puzzling thing to me is that the service is stable and runs with options A) or B) as decribed at the beginning of my post, and occurs after a varying number of messages (around 18). The former fact points to there being nothing wrong with the code (indeed I have checked that no exceptions are thrown), and the latter just serves to confuse me and is why I modified the settings on the reliable session binding. I am quite stuck on this. Can anyone suggest why the reliable session would fault in such a way?

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  • Why does Scala apply thunks automatically, sometimes?

    - by Anonymouse
    At just after 2:40 in ShadowofCatron's Scala Tutorial 3 video, it's pointed out that the parentheses following the name of a thunk are optional. "Buh?" said my functional programming brain, since the value of a function and the value it evaluates to when applied are completely different things. So I wrote the following to try this out. My thought process is described in the comments. object Main { var counter: Int = 10 def f(): Int = { counter = counter + 1; counter } def runThunk(t: () => Int): Int = { t() } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { val a = f() // I expect this to mean "apply f to no args" println(a) // and apparently it does val b = f // I expect this to mean "the value f", a function value println(b) // but it's the value it evaluates to when applied to no args println(b) // and the evaluation happens immediately, not in the call runThunk(b) // This is an error: it's not println doing something funny runThunk(f) // Not an error: seems to be val doing something funny } }   To be clear about the problem, this Scheme program (and the console dump which follows) shows what I expected the Scala program to do. (define counter (list 10)) (define f (lambda () (set-car! counter (+ (car counter) 1)) (car counter))) (define runThunk (lambda (t) (t))) (define main (lambda args (let ((a (f)) (b f)) (display a) (newline) (display b) (newline) (display b) (newline) (runThunk b) (runThunk f)))) > (main) 11 #<procedure:f> #<procedure:f> 13   After coming to this site to ask about this, I came across this answer which told me how to fix the above Scala program: val b = f _ // Hey Scala, I mean f, not f() But the underscore 'hint' is only needed sometimes. When I call runThunk(f), no hint is required. But when I 'alias' f to b with a val then apply it, it doesn't work: the evaluation happens in the val; and even lazy val works this way, so it's not the point of evaluation causing this behaviour.   That all leaves me with the question: Why does Scala sometimes automatically apply thunks when evaluating them? Is it, as I suspect, type inference? And if so, shouldn't a type system stay out of the language's semantics? Is this a good idea? Do Scala programmers apply thunks rather than refer to their values so much more often that making the parens optional is better overall? Examples written using Scala 2.8.0RC3, DrScheme 4.0.1 in R5RS.

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  • getline() sets failbit and skips last line

    - by Thanatos
    I'm using std::getline() to enumerate through the lines in a file, and it's mostly working. It's left me curious however - std::getline() is skipping the very last line in my file, but only if it's blank. Using this minimal example: #include <iostream> #include <string> int main() { std::string line; while(std::getline(std::cin, line)) std::cout << "Line: “" << line << "”\n"; return 0; } If I feed it this: Line A Line B Line C I get those lines back at me. But this: Line A Line B Line C [* line is present but blank, ie, the file end is: "...B\nLine C\n" *] (I unfortunately can't have a blank line in SO's little code box thing...) So, first file has three lines ( ["Line A", "Line B", "Line C"] ), second file has four ( ["Line A", "Line B", "Line C", ""] ) This to me seems wrong - I have a four line file, and enumerating it with getline() leaves me with 3. What's really got me scratching my head is that this is exactly what the standard says it should do. (21.3.7.9) Even Python has similar behaviour (but it gives me the newlines too - C++ chops them off.) Is this some weird thing where C++ is expected lines to be terminated, and not separated by '\n', and I'm feeding it differently? Edit Clearly, I need to expand a bit here. I've met up with two philosophies of determining what a "line" in a file is: Lines are terminated by newlines - Dominant in systems such as Linux, and editors like vim. Possible to have a slightly "odd" file by not having a final '\n' (a "noeol" in vim). Impossible to have a blank line at the end of a file. Lines are separated by newlines - Dominant in just about every Windows editor I've ever come across. Every file is valid, and it's possible to have the last line be blank. Of course, YMMV as to what a newline is. I've always treated these as two completely different schools of thought. One earlier point I tried to make was to ask if the C++ standard was explicitly or merely implicitly following the first. (Curiously, where is Mac? terminated or separated?)

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  • I want to set the AutoCompleteMode property in ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl subroutine

    - by Ranjan Gupta
    Hi, I am creating a DataGridView Column. and it is working well. now I want to customise this column with AutoCompleteMode, and AutoCompleteSource properties to show the customised data. I made the properties for this columns, and these are also working well. but these properties are not working in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Please help me to use these column properties in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Public Class DataGridViewDataValueColumn Inherits DataGridViewColumn Dim m_AutoCompleteMode As AutoCompleteMode, _ m_AutoCompleteSource As AutoCompleteSource, _ m_AutoCompleteStringCollection As AutoCompleteStringCollection Public Sub New() MyBase.New(New DataValueCell()) End Sub Public Overrides Property CellTemplate() As DataGridViewCell Get Return MyBase.CellTemplate End Get Set(ByVal value As DataGridViewCell) ' Ensure that the cell used for the template is a DataValueCell. If (value IsNot Nothing) AndAlso _ Not value.GetType().IsAssignableFrom(GetType(DataValueCell)) _ Then Throw New InvalidCastException("Must be a DataValueCell") End If MyBase.CellTemplate = value End Set End Property Region "User Defined Properties" '&*--------------------------------------*&' <Description("Indicates the text completion behaviour of the combo box."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteMode.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteMode() As AutoCompleteMode Get Return m_AutoCompleteMode End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteMode) m_AutoCompleteMode = value End Set End Property <Description("The source of complete strings used to automatic completion."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteSource.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteSource() As AutoCompleteSource Get Return m_AutoCompleteSource End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteSource) m_AutoCompleteSource = value End Set End Property <Description("The autocomplete custom source.")> _ Public Property AutoCompleteCustomSource() As AutoCompleteStringCollection Get Return m_AutoCompleteStringCollection End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteStringCollection) m_AutoCompleteStringCollection = value End Set End Property End Region End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class DataValueCell Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxCell Public Sub New() ' End Sub Public Overrides ReadOnly Property EditType As Type Get Return GetType(PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl) End Get End Property End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' '&* Edit DataGridView Columns *&' '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Public Overrides Function EditingControlWantsInputKey(ByVal keyData As Keys, ByVal dataGridViewWantsInputKey As Boolean) As Boolean Select Case ((keyData And Keys.KeyCode)) Case Keys.Prior, Keys.Next, Keys.End, Keys.Home, Keys.Left, Keys.Up, Keys.Right, Keys.Down, Keys.Delete Return True End Select Return MyBase.EditingControlWantsInputKey(keyData, dataGridViewWantsInputKey) End Function Public Overrides Sub ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl(ByVal dataGridViewCellStyle As DataGridViewCellStyle) With DirectCast(Me, TextBox) '.AutoCompleteMode = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteMode_Value '.AutoCompleteSource = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteSource_Value '.AutoCompleteCustomSource = MyBase.AutoCompleteCustomSource End With End Sub End Class

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  • Facebook Like box and Like buttons return Error

    - by spartan
    I'm integrating FB social plugins - Like box and Like buttons (as iframes) - on a web page, but they don't work. When I click on Like in "Like box", I get "Error" text with link, which displays a message dialog "The page at https://www.facebook.com/provocateur.eu could not be reached.". JSON response is: for (;;);{"__ar":1,"payload":{"requires_login":false,"success":false,"already_connected":false,"is_admin":false,"show_error":true,"error_info":{"brief":"Website Inaccessible","full":"The page at https:\/\/www.facebook.com\/provocateur.eu could not be reached.","errorUri":"\/connect\/connect_to_node_error.php?title=Website+Inaccessible&body=The+page+at+https\u00253A\u00252F\u00252Fwww.facebook.com\u00252Fprovocateur.eu+could+not+be+reached.&hash=AQARp73z7huT0Eiu"}}} When I click on the Like button, the JSON response is: for (;;);{"__ar":1,"payload":{"requires_login":false,"success":false,"already_connected":false,"is_admin":false,"show_error":true,"error_info":{"brief":"An error occurred.","full":"There was an error liking the page. If you are the page owner, please try running your page through the linter on the Facebook devsite (https:\/\/developers.facebook.com\/tools\/lint\/) and fixing any errors.","errorUri":"\/connect\/connect_to_node_error.php?title=An+error+occurred.&body=There+was+an+error+liking+the+page.+If+you+are+the+page+owner\u00252C+please+try+running+your+page+through+the+linter+on+the+Facebook+devsite+\u002528https\u00253A\u00252F\u00252Fdevelopers.facebook.com\u00252Ftools\u00252Flint\u00252F\u002529+and+fixing+any+errors.&hash=AQAFI_8ieMUGPPxS"}}} This is the "Like box" iframe code: <iframe frameborder="0" scrolling="no" style="border:none; overflow:hidden; width:240px; height:70px;" src="//www.facebook.com/plugins/likebox.php?href=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.facebook.com%2Fprovocateur.eu&width=240&height=70&colorscheme=dark&show_faces=false&border_color&stream=false&header=true&appId=283499041689204"></iframe> and this is the "Like button" iframe code: <iframe frameborder="0" scrolling="no" style="border:none; overflow:hidden; width:203px; height:21px;" src="//www.facebook.com/plugins/like.php?href&amp;send=false&amp;layout=button_count&amp;width=203&amp;show_faces=false&amp;action=like&amp;colorscheme=light&amp;font=arial&amp;height=21&amp;appId=283499041689204"></iframe> The behaviour is the same for admin and non-admin visitors and for any browser. I created application with the same name as FB page with appId 283499041689204. Web page is XHTML transitional valid, and it contains no errors according FB debugger/linter. Formely there was age restriction (17+), but I removed it and for the moment it is accessible for anyone (13+). URL of web page: http://provocateur.eu/ URL of FB page: in the first error message Any help appriciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • Radio button inside anchor element is reset after jQuery click handler

    - by GrievousAngel
    I have a situation where an element, of type radio, is contained in an element. The anchor element has a href but I want to override that behaviour by adding a jQuery 'click' handler to the element. The click handler makes the radio button inside it the selected one within the group. This all works when the anchor is clicked, however, when the radio button is clicked it appears that jQuery resets the selected radio to the previously selected one! Here is a the simplified page that duplicates the issue: <html> <head> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.4/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#a1").click(function(event) { anchorClicked("a1"); return false; }); $("#a2").click(function(event) { anchorClicked("a2"); return false; }); }); function anchorClicked(anchorId) { $('#' + anchorId + ' input:radio').attr("checked", true); alert("Look at what is selected and what happens after the event when this dialog is closed!"); } </script> </head> <body> <form> <ul> <li id="li1"> <a id="a1" href="javascript:alert('default functionality')"> <input value="1" name="rb" type="radio" id="rb1"> <span>Details 1</span> </a> </li> <li id="li2"> <a id="a2" href="javascript:alert('default functionality')"> <input value="2" name="rb" type="radio" id="rb2"> <span>Details 2</span> </a> </li> </ul> </form> </body> Does anyone have any idea how I can prevent jQuery for resetting the radio button?

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  • How to move a kinect skeleton to another position

    - by Ewerton
    I am working on a extension method to move one skeleton to a desired position in the kinect field os view. My code receives a skeleton to be moved and the destiny position, i calculate the distance between the received skeleton hip center and the destiny position to find how much to move, then a iterate in the joint applying this factor. My code, actualy looks like this. public static Skeleton MoveTo(this Skeleton skToBeMoved, Vector4 destiny) { Joint newJoint = new Joint(); ///Based on the HipCenter (i dont know if it is reliable, seems it is.) float howMuchMoveToX = Math.Abs(skToBeMoved.Joints[JointType.HipCenter].Position.X - destiny.X); float howMuchMoveToY = Math.Abs(skToBeMoved.Joints[JointType.HipCenter].Position.Y - destiny.Y); float howMuchMoveToZ = Math.Abs(skToBeMoved.Joints[JointType.HipCenter].Position.Z - destiny.Z); float howMuchToMultiply = 1; // Iterate in the 20 Joints foreach (JointType item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(JointType))) { newJoint = skToBeMoved.Joints[item]; // This adjust, try to keeps the skToBeMoved in the desired position if (newJoint.Position.X < 0) howMuchToMultiply = 1; // if the point is in a negative position, carry it to a "more positive" position else howMuchToMultiply = -1; // if the point is in a positive position, carry it to a "more negative" position // applying the new values to the joint SkeletonPoint pos = new SkeletonPoint() { X = newJoint.Position.X + (howMuchMoveToX * howMuchToMultiply), Y = newJoint.Position.Y, // * (float)whatToMultiplyY, Z = newJoint.Position.Z, // * (float)whatToMultiplyZ }; newJoint.Position = pos; skToBeMoved.Joints[item] = newJoint; //if (skToBeMoved.Joints[JointType.HipCenter].Position.X < 0) //{ // if (item == JointType.HandLeft) // { // if (skToBeMoved.Joints[item].Position.X > 0) // { // } // } //} } return skToBeMoved; } Actualy, only X position is considered. Now, THE PROBLEM: If i stand in a negative position, and move my hand to a positive position, a have a strange behavior, look this image To reproduce this behaviour you could use this code using (SkeletonFrame frame = e.OpenSkeletonFrame()) { if (frame == null) return new Skeleton(); if (skeletons == null || skeletons.Length != frame.SkeletonArrayLength) { skeletons = new Skeleton[frame.SkeletonArrayLength]; } frame.CopySkeletonDataTo(skeletons); Skeleton skeletonToTest = skeletons.Where(s => s.TrackingState == SkeletonTrackingState.Tracked).FirstOrDefault(); Vector4 newPosition = new Vector4(); newPosition.X = -0.03412333f; newPosition.Y = 0.0407479f; newPosition.Z = 1.927342f; newPosition.W = 0; // ignored skeletonToTest.MoveTo(newPosition); } I know, this is simple math, but i cant figure it out why this is happen. Any help will be apreciated.

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  • Is there a way to split a widescreen monitor in to two or more virtual monitors?

    - by Mike Thompson
    Like most developers I have grown to love dual monitors. I won't go into all the reasons for their goodness; just take it as a given. However, they are not perfect. You can never seem to line them up "just right". You always end up with the monitors at slight funny angles. And of course the bezel always gets in the way. And this is with identical monitors. The problem is much worse with different monitors -- VMWare's multi monitor feature won't even work with monitors of differnt resolutions. When you use multiple monnitors, one of them becomes your primary monitor of focus. Your focus may flip from one monitor to the other, but at any point in time you are usually focusing on only one monitor. There are exceptions to this (WinDiff, Excel), but this is generally the case. I suggest that having a single large monitor with all the benefits of multiple smaller monitors would be a better solution. Wide screen monitors are fantastic, but it is hard to use all the space efficiently. If you are writing code you are generally working on the left-hand side of the window. If you maximize an editor on a wide-screen monitor the right-hand side of the window will be a sea of white. Programs like WinSplit Revolution will help to organise your windows, but this is really just addressing the symptom, not the problem. Even with WinSplit Revolution, when you maximise a window it will take up the whole screen. You can't lock a window into a specific section of the screen. This is where virtual monitors comes in. What would be really nice is a video driver that sits on top of the existing driver, but allows a single monitor to be virtualised into multiple monitors. Control Panel would see your single physical monitor as two or more virtual monitors. The software could even support a virtual bezel to emphasise what is happening, or you could opt for seamless mode. Programs like WinSplit Revolution and UltraMon would still work. This virtual video driver would allow you to slice & dice your physical monitor into as many virtual monitors as you want. Does anybody know if such software exists? If not, are there any budding Windows display driver guru's out there willing to take up the challenge? I am not after the myriad of virtual desktop/window manager programs that are available. I get frustrated with these programs. They seem good at first but they usually have some strange behaviour and don't work well with other programs (such as WinSplit Revolution). I want the real thing!

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  • Delphi Unit local variables - how to make each instance unique?

    - by Justin
    Ok, this, I'm sure is something simple that is easy to do. The problem : I've inherited scary spaghetti code and am slowly trying to better it when new features need adding - generally when a refactor makes adding the new feature neater. I've got a bunch of code I'm packing into a single unit which, in different places in the application, controls the same physical thing in the outside world. The control appears in several places in the application and operates slightly differently in each instance. What I've done is to create a unit with all of the features I need which I can simply drop, as a frame, into each form that requires it. Each form then uses the unit's interface methods to customise the behaviour for each instance. The problem within the problem : In the unit in question (the frame) I have a variable declared in the IMPLEMENTATION section - local to the unit. I also have a procedure, declared in the TYPE section which takes an argument and assigns that argument to the local variable in question - each form passes a unique variable to each instance of the frame/unit. What I want it to do is for each instance of the frame to keep its own version of that variable, different from the others, and use that to define how it operates. What seems to be happening, however, is that all instances are using the same value, even if I explicitly pass each instance a different variable. ie: Unit FlexibleUnit; interface uses //the uses stuff type TFlexibleUnit=class(TFrame) //declarations including procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); private // public // end; implementation uses //the uses var myLocalVar; procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); begin myLocalVar:=passMeTheVar; end; //other procedures using myLocalVar //etc to the end; Now somewhere in another Form I've dropped this Frame onto the Design pane, sometimes two of these frames on one Form, and have it declared in the proper places, etc. Each is unique in that : ThisFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; ThatFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; and when I do a: ThisFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var1); //want to behave in way "var1" ThatFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var2); //want to behave in way "var2" it seems that they both share the same variable "myLocalVar". Am I doing this wrong, in principle? If this is the correct method then it's a matter of debugging what I have (which is too huge to post) but if this is not correct in principle then is there a way to do what I am suggesting? Thanks in advance, Stack Overflow - you guys (and gals!) are legendary.

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  • Converting C source to C++

    - by Barry Kelly
    How would you go about converting a reasonably large (300K), fairly mature C codebase to C++? The kind of C I have in mind is split into files roughly corresponding to modules (i.e. less granular than a typical OO class-based decomposition), using internal linkage in lieu private functions and data, and external linkage for public functions and data. Global variables are used extensively for communication between the modules. There is a very extensive integration test suite available, but no unit (i.e. module) level tests. I have in mind a general strategy: Compile everything in C++'s C subset and get that working. Convert modules into huge classes, so that all the cross-references are scoped by a class name, but leaving all functions and data as static members, and get that working. Convert huge classes into instances with appropriate constructors and initialized cross-references; replace static member accesses with indirect accesses as appropriate; and get that working. Now, approach the project as an ill-factored OO application, and write unit tests where dependencies are tractable, and decompose into separate classes where they are not; the goal here would be to move from one working program to another at each transformation. Obviously, this would be quite a bit of work. Are there any case studies / war stories out there on this kind of translation? Alternative strategies? Other useful advice? Note 1: the program is a compiler, and probably millions of other programs rely on its behaviour not changing, so wholesale rewriting is pretty much not an option. Note 2: the source is nearly 20 years old, and has perhaps 30% code churn (lines modified + added / previous total lines) per year. It is heavily maintained and extended, in other words. Thus, one of the goals would be to increase mantainability. [For the sake of the question, assume that translation into C++ is mandatory, and that leaving it in C is not an option. The point of adding this condition is to weed out the "leave it in C" answers.]

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  • PHP Session Class and $_SESSION Array

    - by Gianluca Bargelli
    Hello, i've implemented this custom PHP Session Class for storing sessions into a MySQL database: class Session { private $_session; public $maxTime; private $database; public function __construct(mysqli $database) { $this->database=$database; $this->maxTime['access'] = time(); $this->maxTime['gc'] = get_cfg_var('session.gc_maxlifetime'); session_set_save_handler(array($this,'_open'), array($this,'_close'), array($this,'_read'), array($this,'_write'), array($this,'_destroy'), array($this,'_clean') ); register_shutdown_function('session_write_close'); session_start();//SESSION START } public function _open() { return true; } public function _close() { $this->_clean($this->maxTime['gc']); } public function _read($id) { $getData= $this->database->prepare("SELECT data FROM Sessions AS Session WHERE Session.id = ?"); $getData->bind_param('s',$id); $getData->execute(); $allData= $getData->fetch(); $totalData = count($allData); $hasData=(bool) $totalData >=1; return $hasData ? $allData['data'] : ''; } public function _write($id, $data) { $getData = $this->database->prepare("REPLACE INTO Sessions VALUES (?, ?, ?)"); $getData->bind_param('sss', $id, $this->maxTime['access'], $data); return $getData->execute(); } public function _destroy($id) { $getData=$this->database->prepare("DELETE FROM Sessions WHERE id = ?"); $getData->bind_param('S', $id); return $getData->execute(); } public function _clean($max) { $old=($this->maxTime['access'] - $max); $getData = $this->database->prepare("DELETE FROM Sessions WHERE access < ?"); $getData->bind_param('s', $old); return $getData->execute(); } } It works well but i don't really know how to properly access the $_SESSION array: For example: $db=new DBClass();//This is a custom database class $session=new Session($db->getConnection()); if (isset($_SESSION['user'])) { echo($_SESSION['user']);//THIS IS NEVER EXECUTED! } else { $_SESSION['user']="test"; Echo("Session created!"); } At every page refresh it seems that $_SESSION['user'] is somehow "resetted", what methods can i apply to prevent such behaviour?

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  • What to Expect in Rails 4

    - by mikhailov
    Rails 4 is nearly there, we should be ready before it released. Most developers are trying hard to keep their application on the edge. Must see resources: 1) @sikachu talk: What to Expect in Rails 4.0 - YouTube 2) Rails Guides release notes: http://edgeguides.rubyonrails.org/4_0_release_notes.html There is a mix of all major changes down here: ActionMailer changes excerpt: Asynchronously send messages via the Rails Raise an ActionView::MissingTemplate exception when no implicit template could be found ActionPack changes excerpt Added controller-level etag additions that will be part of the action etag computation Add automatic template digests to all CacheHelper#cache calls (originally spiked in the cache_digests plugin) Add Routing Concerns to declare common routes that can be reused inside others resources and routes Added ActionController::Live. Mix it in to your controller and you can stream data to the client live truncate now always returns an escaped HTML-safe string. The option :escape can be used as false to not escape the result Added ActionDispatch::SSL middleware that when included force all the requests to be under HTTPS protocol ActiveModel changes excerpt AM::Validation#validates ability to pass custom exception to :strict option Changed `AM::Serializers::JSON.include_root_in_json' default value to false. Now, AM Serializers and AR objects have the same default behaviour Added ActiveModel::Model, a mixin to make Ruby objects work with AP out of box Trim down Active Model API by removing valid? and errors.full_messages ActiveRecord changes excerpt Use native mysqldump command instead of structure_dump method when dumping the database structure to a sql file. Attribute predicate methods, such as article.title?, will now raise ActiveModel::MissingAttributeError if the attribute being queried for truthiness was not read from the database, instead of just returning false ActiveRecord::SessionStore has been extracted from Active Record as activerecord-session_store gem. Please read the README.md file on the gem for the usage Fix reset_counters when there are multiple belongs_to association with the same foreign key and one of them have a counter cache Raise ArgumentError if list of attributes to change is empty in update_all Add Relation#load. This method explicitly loads the records and then returns self Deprecated most of the 'dynamic finder' methods. All dynamic methods except for find_by_... and find_by_...! are deprecated Added ability to ActiveRecord::Relation#from to accept other ActiveRecord::Relation objects Remove IdentityMap ActiveSupport changes excerpt ERB::Util.html_escape now escapes single quotes ActiveSupport::Callbacks: deprecate monkey patch of object callbacks Replace deprecated memcache-client gem with dalli in ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore Object#try will now return nil instead of raise a NoMethodError if the receiving object does not implement the method, but you can still get the old behavior by using the new Object#try! Object#try can't call private methods Add ActiveSupport::Deprecations.behavior = :silence to completely ignore Rails runtime deprecations What are the most important changes for you?

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  • grdb not working variables

    - by stupid_idiot
    hi, i know this is kinda retarded but I just can't figure it out. I'm debugging this: xor eax,eax mov ah,[var1] mov al,[var2] call addition stop: jmp stop var1: db 5 var2: db 6 addition: add ah,al ret the numbers that I find on addresses var1 and var2 are 0x0E and 0x07. I know it's not segmented, but that ain't reason for it to do such escapades, because the addition call works just fine. Could you please explain to me where is my mistake? I see the problem, dunno how to fix it yet though. The thing is, for some reason the instruction pointer starts at 0x100 and all the segment registers at 0x1628. To address the instruction the used combination is i guess [cs:ip] (one of the segment registers and the instruction pointer for sure). The offset to var1 is 0x10 (probably because from the begining of the code it's the 0x10th byte in order), i tried to examine the memory and what i got was: 1628:100 8 bytes 1628:108 8 bytes 1628:110 <- wtf? (assume another 8 bytes) 1628:118 ... whatever tricks are there in the memory [cs:var1] points somewhere else than in my code, which is probably where the label .data would usually address ds.... probably.. i don't know what is supposed to be at 1628:10 ok, i found out what caused the assness and wasted me whole fuckin day. the behaviour described above is just correct, the code is fully functional. what i didn't know is that grdb debugger for some reason sets the begining address to 0x100... the sollution is to insert the directive ORG 0x100 on the first line and that's the whole thing. the code was working because instruction pointer has the right address to first instruction and goes one by one, but your assembler doesn't know what effective address will be your program stored at so it pretty much remains relative to first line of the code which means all the variables (if not using label for data section) will remain pointing as if it started at 0x0. which of course wouldn't work with DOS. and grdb apparently emulates some DOS features... sry for the language, thx everyone for effort, hope this will spare someone's time if having the same problem... heheh.. at least now i know the reason why to use .data section :))))

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