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  • Jquery-UI tabs : Double loading of the default tab with

    - by Stephane
    I use jqueryui-tabs to display a tabbed UI. here is how my markup looks in a MasterPage: <div id="channel-tabs" class="ui-tabs"> <ul class="ui-tabs-nav"> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Blogs", "Index", "Blog", new { query = Model.Query, lang = Model.SelectedLanguage, fromTo = Model.FromTo, filters = Model.FilterId }, new{ title="Blog Results" }) %></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Forums", "Index", "Forums", new { query = Model.Query, lang = Model.SelectedLanguage, fromTo = Model.FromTo, filters = Model.FilterId }, null) %></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Twitter", "Index", "Twitter", new { query = Model.Query, lang = Model.SelectedLanguage, fromTo = Model.FromTo, filters = Model.FilterId }, null) %></li> </ul> <div id="Blog_Results"> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ResultPlaceHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> If the content is loaded via ajax, I return a partial view with the content of the tab. If the content is loaded directly, I load a page that include the content in the ContentPlaceHolder. somewhat like this : <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="BlogPlaceHolder" runat="server"> <%=Html.Partial("Partial",Model) %> </asp:Content> //same goes for the other tabs. With this in place, if I access the url "/Forums" It loads the forum content in the Blog tab first, trigger the ajax load of the Blog tab and replace the content with the blog content. I tried putting a different placeholder for each tab, but that didn't fix everything either, since when loading "/Forums" it will sure load the forum tab, but the Blog tab will show up first. Furthermore, when using separate placeholders, If I load the "/Blogs" url, It will first load the content statically in the Blog contentplaceholder and then trigger an ajax call to load it a second time and replace it. If I just link the tab to the hashtag, then when loading the forum tabs, I won't get the blog content... How would you achieve the expected behaviour? I feel like I might have a deeper probelm in the organization of my views. Is putting the tabs in the masterpage the way to go? Maybe I should just hijax the links manually and not rely on jquery-ui tabs to do the work for me. I cannot load all tabs by default and display them using the hash tags, I need an ajax loading because it is a search process that can be long. So to sum up : /Forum should load the forum tab, and let the other tabs be loaded with an ajax call when clicking on it. /Twitter should load the twitter tab and let the other tabs.... the same goes for /Blogs and any tabs I would add later.

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  • JQuery Validation - Wrap offending field in a div.

    - by Samuurai
    Hi, It's my first time using StackOverFlow and first time trying to set up jQuery Validation. It's displaying <label> tags with the error messages as default behaviour, however the way my CSS is set up I need a div to wrap around the offending element and a message display in <p> tags. Without errors, my html looks like this: <div class="grid-26 append-2"> <p class="noMarginBottom"> <label>First Name</label> <div class="jNiceInputWrapper"> <div class="jNiceInputInner"> <input type="text" class="text jNiceInput" name="name"/> </div> </div> </p> <span class="clear"/> </div> And with Errors, it needs to look like this - Note the div with class "error" and the <p> tag. <div class="grid-26 append-2"> <div class="error"> <p>Please write your real name</p> <p class="noMarginBottom"> <label>First Name</label> <div class="jNiceInputWrapper"> <div class="jNiceInputInner"> <input type="text" class="text jNiceInput" name="name"/> </div> </div> </p> <span class="clear"/> </div> </div> My Validation code is very basic. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#contact_form").validate({ rules:{ name: { required: true } } }); }); This is my first venture into jQuery and form validation, so I'll be the first to say "I'm lost!" any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Casting between variant and bstr_t causing inconsisten crash in Windows 2008

    - by user58470
    We have a C# application, calling a simple C++ wrapper class, that then calls an existing C++ DLL. The C++ code is all VC++ 6.0. We are getting inconsistent behaviour, but the crash, when it happens, always happens within the C++ wrapper DLL, and always in the same spot (have confirmed using painful logging statements). It never happens on any environment except on Windows 2008, so we suspect some bad-but-not-fatal memory trashing is going on that somehow Windows 2008 is being more mindful of. Here's the relevant code, if anyone has any ideas on why this might be crashing it would be much appreciated. We've been tearing our hair out for a few days and project timelines are slipping all for the want of being able to return a simple string back to C#... I've been told we've tried setting the VARIANT vresult using VariantInit, and clearing it when we are done with VariantClear, but that didn't help. // JobMgrDll.cpp : Defines the entry point for the DLL application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include "JobMgrDll.h" #include "jobmgr.h" CString gcontext; CString guser; CString ghost; CString glog; JOBMGRDLL_API int nJobMgrDll=0; extern "C" JOBMGRDLL_API char* perform_billcalc(char* cmd, char* context, char* user,char* host,BSTR* log,int* loglen) { char* result = new char[1000]; memset(result,0,999); result[999] = '\0'; bstr_t bt_command = cmd; UUID uuid = __uuidof(BRLib::Rules); VARIANT vresult; char *p_rv; gcontext = context; guser = user; ghost = host; write_log("execute_job"); p_rv = execute_job(uuid, "none", bt_command, &vresult); write_log("DONE execute_job"); CString message; write_log ("Intializing bstr_t with variant"); // WE ALWAYS GET HERE bstr_t res(vresult); //message.Format("%s result = %s",p_rv,res); //write_log(message); write_log("copying Result"); // WE DON'T ALWAYS GET HERE, BUT SOMETIMES WE DO strcpy(result,(char*)res); write_log(CString(result)); *loglen = glog.GetLength(); *log = glog.AllocSysString(); return result; } Again, any ideas much, much appreciated.

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  • jQuery multiple class selection

    - by morpheous
    I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

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  • Why doesn't TextBlock databinding call ToString() on a property whose compile-time type is an interf

    - by Jay
    This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

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  • Problem with character encoding on email sent via PHP?

    - by cosgrove
    Hi everybody, Having some trouble sending properly formatted HTML e-mail from a PHP script. I am running PHP 5.3.0 and Apache 2.2.11 on Windows XP Professional. The output looks like this: Agent Summary for Support on Tuesday April 20 2010=20 Ext. Name Time Volume 137 Agent Name 01:27:25 1 138 =09 00:00:00 0 139 =09 00:00:00 0 You see the =20 and =09 in there? If you look at the HTML you also see = signs being turned into =3D. I figure this is a character encoding issue as I read the following at Wikipedia: ISO-8859-1 and Windows-1252 confusion It is very common to mislabel text data with the charset label ISO-8859-1, even though the data is really Windows-1252 encoded. In Windows-1252, codes between 0x80 and 0x9F are used for letters and punctuation, whereas they are control codes in ISO-8859-1. Many web browsers and e-mail clients will interpret ISO-8859-1 control codes as Windows-1252 characters in order to accommodate such mislabeling but it is not standard behaviour and care should be taken to avoid generating these characters in ISO-8859-1 labeled content. This looks like the problem but I don't know how to fix. My code looks like this: ob_start(); report_queue_summary($yesterday,$yesterday,$first_extension,$last_extension,$queue); $body_report = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $body_footer = "This is an automatically generated e-mail."; $message = new Mail_mime(); $html = $body_header.$body_report.$body_footer; $message->setHTMLBody($html); $body = $message->get(); $extraheaders = array("From"=>"***redacted***","To"=>$recipient, "Subject"=>"Agent Summary for $yesterday [$queue]", "Content-type"=>"text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"); $headers = $message->headers($extraheaders); # setup e-mail; $host = "*********"; $port = "26"; $username = "*****"; $password = "*****"; # Send e-mail $smtp = Mail::factory('smtp', array ('host' => $host, 'port' => $port, 'auth' => true, 'username' => $username, 'password' => $password)); $mail = $smtp->send($recipient, $extraheaders, $body); if (PEAR::isError($mail)) { echo("" . $mail->getMessage() . ""); } else { echo("Message successfully sent!"); } Is the problem that I'm using output buffering?

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  • Mac Safari randomly recreating cookie when I refresh my login screen. Very bizarre

    - by mcintyre321
    We have found an issue in our app where Safari on the Mac randomly recreates a login cookie from a logged off session. I have a fiddler archive with this behaviour here. Note that some stuff has been removed from this to make it easier to get, but nothing which sets a cookie or anything has been taken out - only repetitions of requests 3-8. I'll talk you through the running order Request 1: user logs out via call to /logout.aspx - Set-Cookie returned setting cookie expiry date to 1999 Requests 2-8: user refreshes login page sending calls to root or /res/en-US/s.js - no cookie is sent to server or received back, and access is denied. I have cut out a lot of requests of this nature from the log as they are boring Request 9: request for /res/en-US/s.js - Hv3 authentication cookie has mysteriously reappeared! Wat. There was NO set-cookie! WTFF! Request 10+ : now the cookie has reappeared, the site logs the user in AGAIN The cookie, when examined in Safari looks like <dict> <key>Created</key> <real>259603523.26834899</real> <key>Domain</key> <string>.mysite.dev</string> <key>Expires</key> <date>2010-03-24T16:05:22Z</date> <key>HttpOnly</key> <string>TRUE</string> <key>Name</key> <string>.Hv3</string> <key>Path</key> <string>/</string> </dict> One thing to note is that in Safari, the cookie domain is .mysite.dev not mysite.dev (which is the cookie domain specified in web.config) - however, given that access is denied in requests 2-8, it looks like the cookie has expired OK. If you look in the list of cookies in the browser during 2-8, the .Hv3 cookie is not there. Is this our bug or Safari's? What can I do to stop it happening?

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  • Separation of domain and ui layer in a composite

    - by hansmaad
    Hi all, i'm wondering if there is a pattern how to separate the domain logic of a class from the ui responsibilities of the objects in the domain layer. Example: // Domain classes interface MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) // Where do we put these: // Draw(Screen) ?? // ShowProperties(View) ?? // ... } class Assembly : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) subParts } class Pipe : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) length, diamater... } There is an application that calculates the value X for machines assembled from many machine parts. The assembly is loaded from a file representation and is designed as a composite. Each concrete part class stores some data to implement the CalculateX(in,out) method to simulate behaviour of the whole assembly. The application runs well but without GUI. To increase the usability a GUi should be developed on top of the existing implementation (changes to the existing code are allowed). The GUI should show a schematic graphical representation of the assembly and provide part specific dialogs to edit several parameters. To achieve these goals the application needs new functionality for each machine part to draw a schematic representation on the screen, show a property dialog and other things not related to the domain of machine simulation. I can think of some different solutions to implement a Draw(Screen) functionality for each part but i am not happy with each of them. First i could add a Draw(Screen) method to the MachinePart interface but this would mix-up domain code with ui code and i had to add a lot of functionality to each machine part class what makes my domain model hard to read and hard to understand. Another "simple" solution is to make all parts visitable and implement ui code in visitors but Visitor does not belong to my favorite patterns. I could derive UI variants from each machine part class to add the UI implementation there but i had to check if each part class is suited for inheritance and had to be careful on changes to the base classes. My currently favorite design is to create a parallel composite hierarchy where each component stores data to define a machine part, has implementation for UI methods and a factory method which creates instances of the corresponding domain classes, so that i can "convert" a UI assembly to a domain assembly. But there are problems to go back from the created domain hierarchy to the UI hierarchy for showing calculation results in the drawing for example (imagine some parts store some values during the calculation i want to show in the schematic representation after the simluation). Maybe there are some proven patterns for such problems?

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  • how to avoid clutch billiard balls?

    - by Nait87
    I'm working on the simple behaviour of billiard balls in a collision with each other. All works normal, but there was a problem when facing a few easy balls is the effect of coupling balls and they're cool with each other. Tell me how to prevent this. bool MGBilliard::CollisingBall(CCPoint curr_point, CCPoint next_point) { float dx = next_point.x - (curr_point.x + dvdt.x); float dy = next_point.y - (curr_point.y - dvdt.y); float d = dx*dx+dy*dy; return d <= BALL_RADIUS * BALL_RADIUS; } double MGBilliard::angleCollisionBalls(Ball* current, Ball* next) { double na; double dx = fabs(next->location.x - current->location.x); double dy = fabs(next->location.y - current->location.y); na = atan(fabs(dy/dx)); if(atan(fabs(current->location.y/current->location.x)) < atan(fabs(next->location.y/next->location.x))) na = current->angle - na; else if(atan(fabs(current->location.y/current->location.x)) > atan(fabs(next->location.y/next->location.x))) na = current->angle + na; return na; } for(unsigned int i = 0;i<BALL_COUNT;++i) { if(vBalls[i]->speed > 0){ vBalls[i]->speed += vBalls[i]->acceleration; float dsdt = vBalls[i]->speed*dt; dvdt.x = dsdt*cos(vBalls[i]->angle); dvdt.y = dsdt*sin(vBalls[i]->angle); vBalls[i]->location.x += dvdt.x; vBalls[i]->location.y += dvdt.y; for(unsigned int j = 1; j < BALL_COUNT; ++j) { if(i == j) continue; if(CollisingBall(vBalls[i]->spriteBall->getPosition(),vBalls[j]->spriteBall->getPosition())) { vBalls[j]->speed = 600; double angle; angle = angleCollisionBalls(vBalls[i],vBalls[j]); vBalls[i]->angle = (float)-angle; vBalls[j]->angle = (float)angle; } } } }

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  • When mocking a class with Moq, how can I CallBase for just specific methods?

    - by Daryn
    I really appreciate Moq's Loose mocking behaviour that returns default values when no expectations are set. It's convenient and saves me code, and it also acts as a safety measure: dependencies won't get unintentionally called during the unit test (as long as they are virtual). However, I'm confused about how to keep these benefits when the method under test happens to be virtual. In this case I do want to call the real code for that one method, while still having the rest of the class loosely mocked. All I have found in my searching is that I could set mock.CallBase = true to ensure that the method gets called. However, that affects the whole class. I don't want to do that because it puts me in a dilemma about all the other properties and methods in the class that hide call dependencies: if CallBase is true then I have to either Setup stubs for all of the properties and methods that hide dependencies -- Even though my test doesn't think it needs to care about those dependencies, or Hope that I don't forget to Setup any stubs (and that no new dependencies get added to the code in the future) -- Risk unit tests hitting a real dependency. Q: With Moq, is there any way to test a virtual method, when I mocked the class to stub just a few dependencies? I.e. Without resorting to CallBase=true and having to stub all of the dependencies? Example code to illustrate (uses MSTest, InternalsVisibleTo DynamicProxyGenAssembly2) In the following example, TestNonVirtualMethod passes, but TestVirtualMethod fails - returns null. public class Foo { public string NonVirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA(); } public virtual string VirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA();} internal virtual string GetDependencyA() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency A !"; } // [... Possibly many other dependencies ...] internal virtual string GetDependencyN() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency N !"; } } [TestClass] public class UnitTest1 { [TestMethod] public void TestNonVirtualMethod() { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); string result = mockFoo.Object.NonVirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } [TestMethod] public void TestVirtualMethod() // Fails { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); // (I don't want to setup GetDependencyB ... GetDependencyN here) string result = mockFoo.Object.VirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } string expectedResultString = "Hit mock dependency A - OK"; }

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  • Directly Jump to another C++ function

    - by maligree
    I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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  • Distinguishing between failure and end of file in read loop

    - by celtschk
    The idiomatic loop to read from an istream is while (thestream >> value) { // do something with value } Now this loop has one problem: It will not distinguish if the loop terminated due to end of file, or due to an error. For example, take the following test program: #include <iostream> #include <sstream> void readbools(std::istream& is) { bool b; while (is >> b) { std::cout << (b ? "T" : "F"); } std::cout << " - " << is.good() << is.eof() << is.fail() << is.bad() << "\n"; } void testread(std::string s) { std::istringstream is(s); is >> std::boolalpha; readbools(is); } int main() { testread("true false"); testread("true false tr"); } The first call to testread contains two valid bools, and therefore is not an error. The second call ends with a third, incomplete bool, and therefore is an error. Nevertheless, the behaviour of both is the same. In the first case, reading the boolean value fails because there is none, while in the second case it fails because it is incomplete, and in both cases EOF is hit. Indeed, the program above outputs twice the same line: TF - 0110 TF - 0110 To solve this problem, I thought of the following solution: while (thestream >> std::ws && !thestream.eof() && thestream >> value) { // do something with value } The idea is to detect regular EOF before actually trying to extract the value. Because there might be whitespace at the end of the file (which would not be an error, but cause read of the last item to not hit EOF), I first discard any whitespace (which cannot fail) and then test for EOF. Only if I'm not at the end of file, I try to read the value. For my example program, it indeed seems to work, and I get TF - 0100 TF - 0110 So in the first case (correct input), fail() returns false. Now my question: Is this solution guaranteed to work, or was I just (un-)lucky that it happened to give the desired result? Also: Is there a simpler (or, if my solution is wrong, a correct) way to get the desired result?

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  • MySQL search for user and their roles

    - by Jenkz
    I am re-writing the SQL which lets a user search for any other user on our site and also shows their roles. An an example, roles can be "Writer", "Editor", "Publisher". Each role links a User to a Publication. Users can take multiple roles within multiple publications. Example table setup: "users" : user_id, firstname, lastname "publications" : publication_id, name "link_writers" : user_id, publication_id "link_editors" : user_id, publication_id Current psuedo SQL: SELECT * FROM ( (SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE firstname LIKE '%Jenkz%') UNION (SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE lastname LIKE '%Jenkz%') ) AS dt JOIN (ROLES STATEMENT) AS roles ON roles.user_id = dt.user_id At the moment my roles statement is: SELECT dt2.user_id, dt2.publication_id, dt.role FROM ( (SELECT 'writer' AS role, link_writers.user_id, link_writers.publication_id FROM link_writers) UNION (SELECT 'editor' AS role, link_editors.user_id, link_editors.publication_id FROM link_editors) ) AS dt2 The reason for wrapping the roles statement in UNION clauses is that some roles are more complex and require a table join to find the publication_id and user_id. As an example "publishers" might be linked accross two tables "link_publishers": user_id, publisher_group_id "link_publisher_groups": publisher_group_id, publication_id So in that instance, the query forming part of my UNION would be: SELECT 'publisher' AS role, link_publishers.user_id, link_publisher_groups.publication_id FROM link_publishers JOIN link_publisher_groups ON lpg.group_id = lp.group_id I'm pretty confident that my table setup is good (I was warned off the one-table-for-all system when researching the layout). My problem is that there are now 100,000 rows in the users table and upto 70,000 rows in each of the link tables. Initial lookup in the users table is fast, but the joining really slows things down. How can I only join on the relevant roles? -------------------------- EDIT ---------------------------------- Explain above (open in a new window to see full resolution). The bottom bit in red, is the "WHERE firstname LIKE '%Jenkz%'" the third row searches WHERE CONCAT(firstname, ' ', lastname) LIKE '%Jenkz%'. Hence the large row count, but I think this is unavoidable, unless there is a way to put an index accross concatenated fields? The green bit at the top just shows the total rows scanned from the ROLES STATEMENT. You can then see each individual UNION clause (#6 - #12) which all show a large number of rows. Some of the indexes are normal, some are unique. It seems that MySQL isn't optimizing to use the dt.user_id as a comparison for the internal of the UNION statements. Is there any way to force this behaviour? Please note that my real setup is not publications and writers but "webmasters", "players", "teams" etc.

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  • What is wrong with these jquery statements?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I cant able to get this jquery statement to work on page load but it works once when i refresh F5 the page..... <script type="text/javascript"> var itemsPerPage = 5; $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(0, itemsPerPage); var maxvalues = $("#HfId").val(); alert(maxvalues); $(".pager").pagination(maxvalues, { //my syntax }); }); </script> On the initial pageload alert(maxvalues); is nothing... But when i refresh it shows the value of maxvalues which is in the hidden field HfId because it is assigned in the function getRecordspage.... Why this strange behaviour.... Any suggestion... EDIT: function getRecordspage(curPage) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + (curPage + 1) + ",'pagesize':5}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $("#HfId").val(""); var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs); $(".resultsdiv:even").addClass("resultseven"); $(".resultsdiv").hover(function() { $(this).addClass("resultshover"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("resultshover"); }); $("#HfId").val(strarr[1]); } }); }

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  • PHP Changing Class Variables Outside of Class

    - by Jamie Bicknell
    Apologies for the wording on this question, I'm having difficulties explaining what I'm after, but hopefully it makes sense. Let's say I have a class, and I wish to pass a variable through one of it's methods, then I have another method which outputs this variable. That's all fine, but what I'm after is that if I update the variable which was originally passed, and do this outside the class methods, it should be reflected in the class. I've created a very basic example: class Test { private $var = ''; function setVar($input) { $this->var = $input; } function getVar() { echo 'Var = ' . $this->var . '<br />'; } } If I run $test = new Test(); $string = 'Howdy'; $test->setVar($string); $test->getVar(); I get Var = Howdy However, this is the flow I would like: $test = new Test(); $test->setVar($string); $string = 'Hello'; $test->getVar(); $string = 'Goodbye'; $test->getVar(); Expected output to be Var = Hello Var = Goodbye I don't know what the correct naming of this would be, and I've tried using references to the original variable but no luck. I've come across this in the past, with the PDO prepared statements, see Example #2 $stmt = $dbh->prepare("INSERT INTO REGISTRY (name, value) VALUES (?, ?)"); $stmt->bindParam(1, $name); $stmt->bindParam(2, $value); // insert one row $name = 'one'; $value = 1; $stmt->execute(); // insert another row with different values $name = 'two'; $value = 2; $stmt->execute(); I know I can change the variable to public and do the following, but it isn't quite the same as how the PDO class handles it, and I'm really looking to mimic that behaviour. $test = new Test(); $test->setVar($string); $test->var = 'Hello'; $test->getVar(); $test->var = 'Goodbye'; $test->getVar(); Any help, ideas, pointers, or advice would be greatly appreciated, thanks.

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  • Any suggestions for improvement on this style for BDD/TDD?

    - by Sean B
    I was tinkering with doing the setups with our unit test specifciations which go like Specification for SUT when behaviour X happens in scenario Y Given that this thing And also this other thing When I do X... Then It should do ... And It should also do ... I wrapped each of the steps of the GivenThat in Actions... any feed back whether separating with Actions is good / bad / or better way to make the GivenThat clear? /// <summary> /// Given a product is setup for injection /// And Product Image Factory Is Stubbed(); /// And Product Size Is Stubbed(); /// And Drawing Scale Is Stubbed(); /// And Product Type Is Stubbed(); /// </summary> protected override void GivenThat() { base.GivenThat(); Action givenThatAProductIsSetupforInjection = () => { var randomGenerator = new RandomGenerator(); this.Position = randomGenerator.Generate<Point>(); this.Product = new Diffuser { Size = new RectangularProductSize( 2.Inches()), Position = this.Position, ProductType = Dep<IProductType>() }; }; Action andProductImageFactoryIsStubbed = () => Dep<IProductBitmapImageFactory>().Stub(f => f.GetInstance(Dep<IProductType>())).Return(ExpectedBitmapImage); Action andProductSizeIsStubbed = () => { Stub<IDisplacementProduct, IProductSize>(p => p.Size); var productBounds = new ProductBounds(Width.Feet(), Height.Feet()); Dep<IProductSize>().Stub(s => s.Bounds).Return(productBounds); }; Action andDrawingScaleIsStubbed = () => Dep<IDrawingScale>().Stub(s => s.PixelsPerFoot).Return(PixelsPerFoot); Action andProductTypeIsStubbed = () => Stub<IDisplacementProduct, IProductType>(p => p.ProductType); givenThatAProductIsSetupforInjection(); andProductImageFactoryIsStubbed(); andProductSizeIsStubbed(); andDrawingScaleIsStubbed(); andProductTypeIsStubbed(); }

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  • C++: Why does gcc prefer non-const over const when accessing operator[]?

    - by JonasW
    This question might be more appropriately asked regarding C++ in general, but as I am using gcc on linux that's the context. Consider the following program: #include <iostream> #include <map> #include <string> using namespace std; template <typename TKey, typename TValue> class Dictionary{ public: map<TKey, TValue> internal; TValue & operator[](TKey const & key) { cout << "operator[] with key " << key << " called " << endl; return internal[key]; } TValue const & operator[](TKey const & key) const { cout << "operator[] const with key " << key << " called " << endl; return internal.at(key); } }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Dictionary<string, string> dict; dict["1"] = "one"; cout << "first one: " << dict["1"] << endl; return 0; } When executing the program, the output is: operator[] with key 1 called operator[] with key 1 called first one: one What I would like is to have the compiler choose the operator[]const method instead in the second call. The reason is that without having used dict["1"] before, the call to operator[] causes the internal map to create the data that does not exist, even if the only thing I wanted was to do some debugging output, which of course is a fatal application error. The behaviour I am looking for would be something like the C# index operator which has a get and a set operation and where you could throw an exception if the getter tries to access something that doesn't exist: class MyDictionary<TKey, TVal> { private Dictionary<TKey, TVal> dict = new Dictionary<TKey, TVal>(); public TVal this[TKey idx] { get { if(!dict.ContainsKey(idx)) throw KeyNotFoundException("..."); return dict[idx]; } set { dict[idx] = value; } } } Thus, I wonder why the gcc prefers the non-const call over the const call when non-const access is not required.

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  • Large memory chunk not garbage collected

    - by Niels
    In a hunt for a memory-leak in my app I chased down a behaviour I can't understand. I allocate a large memory block, but it doesn't get garbage-collected resulting in a OOM, unless I explicit null the reference in onDestroy. In this example I have two almost identical activities that switch between each others. Both have a single button. On pressing the button MainActivity starts OOMActivity and OOMActivity returns by calling finish(). After pressing the buttons a few times, Android throws a OOMException. If i add the the onDestroy to OOMActivity and explicit null the reference to the memory chunk, I can see in the log that the memory is correctly freed. Why doesn't the memory get freed automatically without the nulling? MainActivity: package com.example.oom; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.widget.Button; public class MainActivity extends Activity implements OnClickListener { private int buttonId; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); System.gc(); Button OOMButton = new Button(this); OOMButton.setText("OOM"); buttonId = OOMButton.getId(); setContentView(OOMButton); OOMButton.setOnClickListener(this); } @Override public void onClick(View v) { if (v.getId() == buttonId) { Intent leakIntent = new Intent(this, OOMActivity.class); startActivity(leakIntent); } } } OOMActivity: public class OOMActivity extends Activity implements OnClickListener { private static final int WASTE_SIZE = 20000000; private byte[] waste; private int buttonId; protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Button BackButton = new Button(this); BackButton.setText("Back"); buttonId = BackButton.getId(); setContentView(BackButton); BackButton.setOnClickListener(this); waste = new byte[WASTE_SIZE]; } public void onClick(View view) { if (view.getId() == buttonId) { finish(); } } }

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  • Navigating to rootViewController of non-visible UINavigationController CRASH

    - by Bertie
    First off I'n not sure if this is exactly the issue... but it appears to be central to the problem. There are vast gaps in what I know and this may be something very obvious. I have a split view controller with various Master and Detail Views. From one 'menu' branch I want to return to the rootView of both the Master & Detail Navigation Controllers when the user taps a 'Done' button. Initially I had the button positioned on the navigation bar of the master view. This is the code I was using: - (IBAction)doneClicked:(id)sender { UINavigationController *detailNav = [self.splitViewController.viewControllers objectAtIndex:1]; NSArray *allDetailViewControllers = detailNav.viewControllers; HomePage *destinationDetailVC = [allDetailViewControllers objectAtIndex:0]; destinationDetailVC.splitViewBarButtonItem = self.splitViewButton; [detailNav popToRootViewControllerAnimated:NO]; [self.navigationController popToRootViewControllerAnimated:NO]; } That works fine but if the device is in portrait mode it means the user has to open the menus to access the button. So I decided to put the 'Done' button onto the detail view NavBar instead. Using a delegate declared in the detailVC and adopted by the masterVC I am now using this method: - (void)theUserClickedDoneInTheDetailView:(DetailVC *)controller withButton:(UIBarButtonItem *)splitViewButton { UINavigationController *detailNav = [self.splitViewController.viewControllers objectAtIndex:1]; NSArray *allDetailViewControllers = detailNav.viewControllers; HomePage *destinationDetailVC = [allDetailViewControllers objectAtIndex:0]; destinationDetailVC.splitViewBarButtonItem = splitViewButton; [detailNav popToRootViewControllerAnimated: NO]; [self.navigationController popToRootViewControllerAnimated:NO]; } Both methods are in the MasterVC.m file The only difference between the two is that on is passed a UIBarButtonItem to use and the other has already had it passed when it is set in the detail view. That seems to be working because I do get a button. When the device is in Landscape mode both methods work fine. All behaviour as expected. When the device is in Portrait the first method still works fine. The second appears to work fine and the detail view is the rootView, the button for the menus is there BUT, as soon as I turn the device to landscape it crashes. The only thing I can think of is that it is because the masterView is hidden. Can anyone help...?

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  • Is it OK to put a standard, pure C header #include directive inside a namespace?

    - by mic_e
    I've got a project with a class log in the global namespace (::log). So, naturally, after #include <cmath>, the compiler gives an error message each time I try to instantiate an object of my log class, because <cmath> pollutes the global namespace with lots of three-letter methods, one of them being the logarithm function log(). So there are three possible solutions, each having their unique ugly side-effects. Move the log class to it's own namespace and always access it with it's fully qualified name. I really want to avoid this because the logger should be as convenient as possible to use. Write a mathwrapper.cpp file which is the only file in the project that includes <cmath>, and makes all the required <cmath> functions available through wrappers in a namespace math. I don't want to use this approach because I have to write a wrapper for every single required math function, and it would add additional call penalty (cancelled out partially by the -flto compiler flag) The solution I'm currently considering: Replace #include <cmath> by namespace math { #include "math.h" } and then calculating the logarithm function via math::log(). I have tried it out and it does, indeed, compile, link and run as expected. It does, however, have multiple downsides: It's (obviously) impossible to use <cmath>, because the <cmath> code accesses the functions by their fully qualified names, and it's deprecated to use in C++. I've got a really, really bad feeling about it, like I'm gonna get attacked and eaten alive by raptors. So my question is: Is there any recommendation/convention/etc that forbid putting include directives in namespaces? Could anything go wrong with diferent C standard library implementations (I use glibc), different compilers (I use g++ 4.7, -std=c++11), linking? Have you ever tried doing this? Are there any alternate ways to banish the math functions from the global namespace? I've found several similar questions on stackoverflow, but most were about including other C++ headers, which obviously is a bad idea, and those that weren't made contradictory statements about linking behaviour for C libraries. Also, would it be beneficial to additionally put the #include <math.h> inside extern "C" {}?

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  • <o:massAttribute> affects another components in same <h:panelGrid>

    - by Ignacio Ayuste
    I'm using the new version of OmniFaces 1.8.1, and particullary I start to use the new tag: <o:massAttribute>. Basically, I have the following form with conditionally rendered and disabled fields: <h:form id="formABMProducto"> <h:panelGrid id="datosProducto" columns="4"> <o:massAttribute name="rendered" value="#{cc.attrs.page != 'baja'}"> <h:outputLabel for="codigo" ... /> <h:inputText id="codigo" ... /> <rich:message for="codigo" /> <h:panelGroup /> </o:massAttribute> <o:massAttribute name="rendered" value="#{cc.attrs.page eq 'baja'}"> <h:outputLabel for="codigo" .../> <rich:autocomplete id="codigoProducto" ... /> <rich:message for="codigo" /> <h:panelGroup /> </o:massAttribute> <o:massAttribute name="disabled" value="#{cc.attrs.disableComponents}"> <h:outputLabel for="nombre" ... /> <h:inputTextarea id="nombre" ... /> <rich:message for="nombre" /> <span /> <h:outputLabel for="descripcion" ... /> <h:inputTextarea id="descripcion" ... /> <rich:message for="descripcion" /> <span /> </o:massAttribute> <h:outputLabel value="#{msgs['producto.abm.panel.proveedor.tipo']}" for="CmbTipoProveedor"/> <rich:select id="CmbTipoProveedor" ... /> <rich:message for="CmbTipoProveedor" /> <a4j:commandButton ... /> </h:panelGrid> </h:form> However, when I open the page, the third <o:massAttribute> is also disabling another input fields codigo and codigoProducto. I think this isn't the expected behaviour.

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  • Parameter pack argument consumption

    - by yuri kilochek
    It is possible to get the first element of the parameter pack like this template <typename... Elements> struct type_list { }; template <typename TypeList> struct type_list_first_element { }; template <typename FirstElement, typename... OtherElements> struct type_list_first_element<type_list<FirstElement, OtherElements...>> { typedef FirstElement type; }; int main() { typedef type_list<int, float, char> list; typedef type_list_first_element<list>::type element; return 0; } but not possible to similary get the last element like this template <typename... Elements> struct type_list { }; template <typename TypeList> struct type_list_last_element { }; template <typename LastElement, typename... OtherElements> struct type_list_last_element<type_list<OtherElements..., LastElement>> { typedef LastElement type; }; int main() { typedef type_list<int, float, char> list; typedef type_list_last_element<list>::type element; return 0; } with gcc 4.7.1 complaining: error: 'type' in 'struct type_list_last_element<type_list<int, float, char>>' does not name a type What paragraps from the standard describe this behaviour? It seems to me that template parameter packs are greedy in a sense that they consume all matching arguments, which in this case means that OtherElements consumes all three arguments (int, float and char) and then there is nothing left for LastElement so the compilation fails. Am i correct in the assumption? EDIT: To clarify: I am not asking how to extract the last element from the parameter pack, i know how to do that. What i actually want is to pick the pack apart from the back as opposed to the front, and as such recursing all the way to the back for each element would be ineffective. Apparentely reversing the sequence beforehand is the most sensible choice.

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  • Restrict sprite movement to vertical and horizontal

    - by Daniel Granger
    I have been battling with this for some time and my noob brain can't quite work it out. I have a standard tile map and currently use the following code to move my enemy sprite around the map -(void) movePlayer:(ccTime)deltaTime { if (CGPointEqualToPoint(self.position, requestedPosition)) return; float step = kPlayerSpeed * deltaTime; float dist = ccpDistance(self.position, requestedPosition); CGPoint vectorBetweenAB = ccpSub(self.position, requestedPosition); if (dist <= step) { self.position = requestedPosition; [self popPosition]; } else { CGPoint normVectorBetweenAB = ccpNormalize(vectorBetweenAB); CGPoint movementVectorForThisFrame = ccpMult(normVectorBetweenAB, step); if (abs(vectorBetweenAB.x) > abs(vectorBetweenAB.y)) { if (vectorBetweenAB.x > 0) { [self runAnimation:walkLeft]; } else { [self runAnimation:walkRight]; } } else { if (vectorBetweenAB.y > 0) { [self runAnimation:walkDown]; } else { [self runAnimation:walkUp]; } } if (self.position.x > movementVectorForThisFrame.x) { movementVectorForThisFrame.x = -movementVectorForThisFrame.x; } if (self.position.y > movementVectorForThisFrame.y) { movementVectorForThisFrame.y = -movementVectorForThisFrame.y; } self.position = ccpAdd(self.position, movementVectorForThisFrame); } } movePlayer: is called by the classes updateWithDeltaTime: method. the ivar requestedPosition is set in the updateWithDeltaTime method as well, it basically gets the next point out of a queue to move to. These points can be anywhere on the map, so if they are in a diagonal direction from the enemy the enemy sprite will move directly to that point. But how do I change the above code to restrict the movement to vertical and horizontal movement only so that the enemies movement 'staircases' its way along a diagonal path, taking the manhattan distance (I think its called). As shown by my crude drawing below... S being the start point F being the finish and the numbers being each intermediate point along its path to create a staircase type diagonal movement. Finally I intend to be able to toggle this behaviour on and off, so that I can choose whether or not I want the enemy to move free around the map or be restricted to this horizontal / vertical movement only. | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | |F| | | | | | | | | |5|4| | | | | | | | | |3|2| | | | | | | | | |1|S| | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | |

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  • Passing a panel widget to a function

    - by user2939801
    I have written a quite complex script which calls a server handler to refresh elements in a grid at the press of a button. For code re-use and consistent behaviour, I am wanting to call that server handler directly during the initial painting of the grid. When the server handler gets called by clicking on the button, all expected widgets are available and can be queried with e.parameter.widget etc. When I call the function directly and pass it the panel variable, the value of e is just 'AbsolutePanel'. Is there some way I can emulate the addCallbackElement way of passing the entire panel and all widgets it contains to the function? Or a way of automatically firing a server handler on script start? Please forgive any syntax errors below, I have pruned 500 lines of code down to the pertinent bits! Thanks Tony function doGet() { var app = UiApp.createApplication(); var mainPanel = app.createAbsolutePanel(); var monthsAbbr = ['Jan.', 'Feb.', 'Mar.', 'Apr.', 'May.', 'Jun.', 'Jul.', 'Aug.', 'Sep.', 'Oct.', 'Nov.', 'Dec.']; var Dates = Array(); var period = 5; var dateHidden = Array(); var dayOfMonth = new Date(((period * 28) + 15887) * 86400000); var dateString = ''; var dayOfWeek = 0; for (var i=0; i<84; i++) { dateString = dayOfMonth.getDate() + ' ' + monthsAbbr[dayOfMonth.getMonth()] + ' ' + (dayOfMonth.getFullYear() - 2000); Dates [i] = dateString; dateHidden[i] = app.createHidden('dates'+i, dateString).setId('dates'+i); mainPanel.add(dateHidden[i]); dayOfMonth = new Date(dayOfMonth.getTime() + 86400000); } var buttonReset = app.createButton('Reset').setId('buttonReset'); var handlerChange = app.createServerHandler('myHandlerChange'); handlerChange.addCallbackElement(mainPanel); mainPanel.add(buttonReset.addChangeHandler(handlerChange)); app.add(mainPanel); myHandlerChange(mainPanel); return app; } function myHandlerChange(e) { var app = UiApp.getActiveApplication(); Logger.log('Here are the widgets passed into the function: ' + Utilities.jsonStringify(e)); return app; }

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  • Mounting NAS share: Bad Address

    - by Korben
    I've faced to the problem that can't solve. Hope you can help me with it. I have a storage QNAP TS-459U, with it's own Linux, and 'massive1' folder shared, which I need to mount to my Debian server. They are connected by regular patch cord. Debian server has two network interfaces - eth0 and eth1. eth0 is for Internet, eth1 is for QNAP. So, I'm saying this: mount -t cifs //169.254.100.100/massive1/ /mnt/storage -o user=admin , where 169.254.100.100 is an IP of QNAP's interface. The result I get (after entering password): mount error(14): Bad address Refer to the mount.cifs(8) manual page (e.g. man mount.cifs) Tried: mount.cifs, smbmount, with '/' at the end of the network share and without it, and many other variations of that command. And always its: mount error(14): Bad address Funny thing is when I was in Data Center, I had connected my netbook to QNAP by the same scheme (with Fedora 16 on it), and it connected without any problems, I could read/write files on the QNAP's NAS share! So I'm really stuck with the Debian. I can't undrestand where's the difference with Fedora, making this error. Yeah, I've used Google. Couldn't find any useful info. Ping to the QNAP's IP is working, I can log into QNAP's Linux by ssh, telnet on 139's port is working. This is network interface configuration I use in Debian: IP: 169.254.100.1 Netmask: 255.255.0.0 The only diffence in connecting to Fedora and Debian is that in Fedora I've added gateway - 169.254.100.129, but ping to this IP is not working, so I think it's not necessary at all. P.S. ~# cat /etc/debian_version wheezy/sid ~# uname -a Linux host 2.6.32-5-openvz-amd64 #1 SMP Mon Mar 7 22:25:57 UTC 2011 x86_64 GNU/Linux ~# smbtree WORKGROUP \\HOST host server \\HOST\IPC$ IPC Service (host server) \\HOST\print$ Printer Drivers NAS \\MASSIVE1 NAS Server \\MASSIVE1\IPC$ IPC Service (NAS Server) \\MASSIVE1\massive1 \\MASSIVE1\Network Recycle Bin 1 [RAID5 Disk Volume: Drive 1 2 3 4] \\MASSIVE1\Public System default share \\MASSIVE1\Usb System default share \\MASSIVE1\Web System default share \\MASSIVE1\Recordings System default share \\MASSIVE1\Download System default share \\MASSIVE1\Multimedia System default share Please, help me with solving this strange issue. Thanks before.

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