Search Results

Search found 37101 results on 1485 pages for 'array based'.

Page 269/1485 | < Previous Page | 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276  | Next Page >

• Best all in one linux based proxy,firewall, dhcp and wins server.

  - by BeStRaFe

  I help to run a lan in Sydney. We have a need for a proxy/gateway solution to allow those pesky games that require internet to work. I have been doing this with an ISA server and it has worked quite well. However now i wish to port this over to run on the same hardware as our cacti / nagios box under a vmware VM. ISA server is horridly nad due to the massive ram and i/o requirement for something is basically port blocking and handing out IP's. The needs are as follows. 1. DHCP 2. WINS (otherwise network devices fight over who is the WINS master) 3. Filtering based in PORT for outbound traffic. 4. Ability to whitelist IP/MAC's for internet access. 5. Web Interface. I had been thinking to use PFSENSE however there is no option for a WINS server and i cbf working my way around bsd.

  Read the article

• How to make project auto-estimate duration based on work?

  - by Bruno Brant

  This one has bothered me for a long while. I like to do estimates thinking on how much time a certain task will take (I'm in TI business), so, let's say, it takes 12 hours to build a program. Now, let's say I tell Project that my beginning date is today. If I allocate one resource to this task, it means that the task will last 1,5 days, implying that it will end tomorrow. But right now, that is not what it's doing. I say that the task will take 1 hour, and when I add a resource to it, it allocate the resource at [13%] basis, which means that the duration is still fixed... project is trying to make the task last for a day. I have, on many occasions, accomplished this. What I do is build a plan based on these rough estimates for effort, then I allocate tasks to resources. Times conflict, so I level resources and then Project magically tells me how long, in days, will it take. But every time I have to start estimating again, I end up having trouble on how to make project work like that.

  Read the article

• How to Deploy an ASP.NET Web API- and Browser-based Application to a Production Environment [closed]

  - by lmttag

  Possible Duplicate: How to Deploy an ASP.NET Web API- and Browser-based Application to a Production Environment We have an ASP.NET Web API server that serves up a SQL Server data driven website. The API uses JSON to transfer data from SQL Server to the front end. We need to move it to an internal production environment (nothing will be exposed on the public Internet) and we’re having problems - or just not understanding what needs to be done. There are two domains: The corporate domain - where all users login normally. The process domain - contains the database the Web API needs to access. The IT staff wants to put a DMZ between the two domains to house the IIS app and shield the users on the corporate domain from having access into the process domain directly. The ideal configuration is: corp domain (end users) <–> firewall (open port 80) <–> DMZ (web server running IIS) <–> firewall (open port 80 or 1433????) <–> process domain (IIS for Web API and SQL Server) We don’t really understand how to deploy our browser/Web API application in this scenario. Do we need to break up our application so that all the client code is on the IIS server in the DMZ, while the Web API gets installed on the server in the process domain? Does the entire app (client code and Web API) stay together on the IIS server in the DMZ, which then somehow accesses the SQL Server instance to get data? From the IIS server and app in the DMZ, would you simply access the Web API on the server in the process domain by going to http://server/appname/api/getitmes? In the second firewall between the DMZ and the process domain, would you have to open port 1433 or just port 80 since the Web API is a HTTP endpoint? Or, is there some better way of deployment (i.e., how ASP.NET Web API single page applications written all in HTML5 and JavaScript supposed to be deployed to production environments?)? NB: The servers are Win2k8 R2, SQL Server 2k8 R2, and IIS 7.5.

  Read the article

• How should I deploy my JVM-based web application on ubuntu?

  - by Pieter Breed

  I've developed a web application using clojure/compojure (JVM based) and while developing I tested it using embedded jetty that runs on 0.0.0.0:8080. I would now like to deploy it to run on port 80 on ubuntu. I do dynamic virtual hosting, so any request for any host that arrives on port 80 should be handled by my application. The issues that worries me are: I can still run it embedded but I'm worried about running my app as root (needed for binding to port 80). I'm not sure if I can 'give up root' when in the JVM. Do I need to be concerned by this? besides, serving web applications is a known problem and I should be using known solutions for this (jetty or tomcat) but especially tomcat seems very heavy weight. Besides, I only have one application that listens to /* and does routing internally. (with compojure/ring). What I'm trying to say with this is that tomcat by default assigns WARs to subfolders which I don't want. So basically what I need is some very safe way of binding to port 80 on ubuntu that can with minimal interference send all requests to my app. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• OpenVPN-based VPN server on same system it's "protecting": feasible?

  - by Johnny Utahh

  Scenario: hosted machine (typically a VPS) serving wiki, svn, git, forums, email lists (eg: GNU mailman), Bugzilla (etc) privately to < 20 people. People not on team not allowed access. Seeking VPN-restricted access to said server. Have good user experience with OpenVPN-based servers/clients, but have yet to server-admin such systems. Otherwise, experienced Linux sysadmin. Target system: Ubuntu, probably 12.04. Seeking to put an OpenVPN process on above server to "protect" all the above-mentioned services, enabling only OpenVPN-authorized clients/processes to access above services. (Can easily acquire additional IP address(es) as needed for this setup.) Option: if absolutely needed, can employ an additional, dedicated, "VPN server" VPS simply to be my VPN server "front end." But prefer to have all server processes (VPN server plus other server apps) all running on same machine, if possible. Will consider further if dedicated-VPN-machine setup enables 1. easier installation/administration, 2. better/easier end-user experience, and/or 3. makes system significantly more secure. Any of above feasible? The main intention: create a VPN from purely-hosted resources, and not spend all the effort to make a non-VPN, secure site--which typically means "SSL wrapping" + all the continual webserver-application-update management. Let the VPN server deal with access security, and spend list time pushing said security "down" in the other apps/Apache.

  Read the article

• which is best smart automatic file replication solution for cloud storage based systems.

  - by TORr0t

  I am looking for a solution for a project i am working on. We are developing a websystem where people can upload their files and other people can download it. (similar to rapidshare.com model) Problem is, some files can be demanded much more than other files. The scenerio is like: I have uploaded my birthday video and shared it with all of my friend, I have uploaded it to myproject.com and it was stored in one of the cluster which has 100mbit connection. Problem is, once all of my friends want to download the file, they cant download it since the bottleneck here is 100mbit which is 15MB per second, but i got 1000 friends and they can only download 15KB per second. I am not taking into account that the hdd is serving same files. My network infrastrucre is as follows: 1 gbit server(client) and connected to 4 Nodes of storage servers that have 100mbit connection. 1gbit server can handle the 1000 users traffic if one of storage node can stream more than 15MB per second to my 1gbit (client) server and visitor will stream directly from client server instead of storage nodes. I can do it by replicating the file into 2 nodes. But i dont want to replicate all files uploadded to my network since it is costing much more. So i need a cloud based system, which will push the files into replicated nodes automatically when demanded to those files are high, and when the demand is low, they will delete from other nodes and it will stay in only 1 node. I have looked to gluster and asked in their irc channel that, gluster cant do such a thing. It is only able to replicate all the files or none of the files. But i need it the cluster software to do it automatically. Any solutions ? (instead of recommending me amazon s3) S

  Read the article

• Why does apache httpd tell me that my name-based virtualhosts only works with SNI enabled browers (RFC 4366)

  - by Arlukin

  Why does apache give me this error message in my logs? Is it a false positive? [warn] Init: Name-based SSL virtual hosts only work for clients with TLS server name indication support (RFC 4366) I have recently upgraded from Centos 5.7 to 6.3, and by that to a newer httpd version. I have always made my ssl virtualhost configurations like below. Where all domains that share the same certificate (mostly/always wildcard certs) share the same ip. But never got this error message before (or have I, maybe I haven't looked to enough in my logs?) From what I have learned this should work without SNI (Server Name Indication) Here is relevant parts of my httpd.conf file. Without this VirtualHost I don't get the error message. NameVirtualHost 10.101.0.135:443 <VirtualHost 10.101.0.135:443> ServerName sub1.domain.com SSLEngine on SSLProtocol -all +SSLv3 +TLSv1 SSLCipherSuite ALL:!aNull:!EDH:!DH:!ADH:!eNull:!LOW:!EXP:RC4+RSA+SHA1:+HIGH:+MEDIUM SSLCertificateFile /opt/RootLive/etc/ssl/ssl.crt/wild.fareoffice.com.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /opt/RootLive/etc/ssl/ssl.key/wild.fareoffice.com.key SSLCertificateChainFile /opt/RootLive/etc/ssl/ca/geotrust-ca.pem </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 10.101.0.135:443> ServerName sub2.domain.com SSLEngine on SSLProtocol -all +SSLv3 +TLSv1 SSLCipherSuite ALL:!aNull:!EDH:!DH:!ADH:!eNull:!LOW:!EXP:RC4+RSA+SHA1:+HIGH:+MEDIUM SSLCertificateFile /opt/RootLive/etc/ssl/ssl.crt/wild.fareoffice.com.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /opt/RootLive/etc/ssl/ssl.key/wild.fareoffice.com.key SSLCertificateChainFile /opt/RootLive/etc/ssl/ca/geotrust-ca.pem </VirtualHost>

  Read the article

• Handling emails on a web server - Making sure the FQDN is set correctly based on the website sending the email

  - by webnoob

  I have a Windows 2008 Web Edition server hosting multiple websites using IIS 7.5. At the moment, all the emails are sent via the IIS6 SMTP service. The FQDN of the SMTP service is set to the computer name at the moment which isn't correct as it doesn't resolve to a valid DNS entry and is not RFC compliant. Some questions: Is there any way I can change the FQDN of the SMTP service based on the site sending the email? Would it be Ok to just setup mailserver.mydomain.com and use that as the FQDN for all the sites on multiple domains. Should I be using some other mail server software to handle this better? The reason I am asking is lots of emails are hitting spam folders because the settings are incorrect. I have access to the code that is running the websites so if something needs to be done there then that shouldn't be a problem. The sites are written using ASP.NET 2.0. EDIT: I have just found an option to create an SMTP virtual service. Would this be the way forward? Create a virtual server for each site? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Can Windows Media Player create playlists based on folder structure?

  - by Chaulky

  Over the years I've carefully molded my digital media collection into a series of folders that make it easy for me to find what I'm looking for. I recently discovered the awesomeness that is streaming video from Windows 7 Media Player to the PS3 so I can watch it on the big screen without all the hassle of hooking the computer up to the TV. The problem is, I totally lose my carefully crafted folder structure and all my videos become one giant mess again... not cool! As a temporary solution, I've created a few playlists for my favorites (Dexter Season 4, Dexter Season 5, Breaking Bad Season 1, etc.). This is a HUGE pain in the a$$. So, is there a way to get Windows Media Player (on Windows 7) to maintain some sort of folder structure based on the location of the actual video files? So if I have my videos sorted into folders by show and season, Media Player will pick that up and let me browse it in the same way. As an alternative answer, I'll accept suggestions for a program that can also stream to PS3 and has this "folder organization" feature.

  Read the article

• Can Windows Media Player create playlists based on folder structure?

  - by Chaulky

  Over the years I've carefully molded my digital media collection into a series of folders that make it easy for me to find what I'm looking for. I recently discovered the awesomeness that is streaming video from Windows 7 Media Player to the PS3 so I can watch it on the big screen without all the hassle of hooking the computer up to the TV. The problem is, I totally lose my carefully crafted folder structure and all my videos become one giant mess again... not cool! As a temporary solution, I've created a few playlists for my favorites (Dexter Season 4, Dexter Season 5, Breaking Bad Season 1, etc.). This is a HUGE pain in the a$$. So, is there a way to get Windows Media Player (on Windows 7) to maintain some sort of folder structure based on the location of the actual video files? So if I have my videos sorted into folders by show and season, Media Player will pick that up and let me browse it in the same way. As an alternative answer, I'll accept suggestions for a program that can also stream to PS3 and has this "folder organization" feature.

  Read the article

• Vim: How to join multiples lines based on a pattern?

  - by ryz

  I want to join multiple lines in a file based on a pattern that both lines share. This is my example: {101}{}{Apples} {102}{}{Eggs} {103}{}{Beans} {104}... ... {1101}{}{This is a fruit.} {1102}{}{These things are oval.} {1103}{}{You have to roast them.} {1104}... ... I want to join the lines {101}{}{Apples} and {1101}{}{This is a fruit.} to one line {101}{}{Apples}{1101}{}{This is a fruit.} for further processing. Same goes for the other lines. As you can see, both lines share the number 101, but I have no idea how to pull this off. Any Ideas? /EDIT: I found a "workaround": First, delete all preceding "{1" characters from group two in VISUAL BLOCK mode with C-V (or similar shortcut), then sort all lines by number with :%sort n, then join every second line with :let @q = "Jj" followed by 500@q. This works, but leaves me with {101}{}{Apples} 101}{}{This is a fruit.}. I would then need to add the missing characters "{1" in each line, not quite what I want. Any help appreciated.

  Read the article

• How to merge Windows registry hives directly without converting them to an intermediate text based file?

  - by Registrar

  Help! I'm going to get fired if I can't figure out how to do this by tomorrow. Microsoft Windows stores its registry databases (known as "registry hives" - there's actually a backstory to the origin of this name, but I digress) in a proprietary binary format. Answer this correctly or you lose your job: Let H-sub-A be the registry hive of Computer A, and let H-sub-B be the registry hive of Computer B. Create a registry hive H-sub-A-prime (in the native binary format) that contains all of the registry keys and values in both H-sub-A and H-sub-B. If there is overlap, let the value from H-sub-B overwrite the value in H-sub-A. Sure, you can import a text-based patch file (e.g., "FOO.REG") to modify the registry, but can you merge two registry hives in their native binary format? Answers that involve exporting the registry to a text file (e.g., "FOO.REG") will receive no credit. You may only use software included with Microsoft Windows (any version) and / or third-party tools that are free of charge.

  Read the article

• Why is my RAID /dev/md1 showing up as /dev/md126? Is mdadm.conf being ignored?

  - by mmorris

  I created a RAID with: sudo mdadm --create --verbose /dev/md1 --level=mirror --raid-devices=2 /dev/sdb1 /dev/sdc1 sudo mdadm --create --verbose /dev/md2 --level=mirror --raid-devices=2 /dev/sdb2 /dev/sdc2 sudo mdadm --detail --scan returns: ARRAY /dev/md1 metadata=1.2 name=ion:1 UUID=aa1f85b0:a2391657:cfd38029:772c560e ARRAY /dev/md2 metadata=1.2 name=ion:2 UUID=528e5385:e61eaa4c:1db2dba7:44b556fb Which I appended it to /etc/mdadm/mdadm.conf, see below: # mdadm.conf # # Please refer to mdadm.conf(5) for information about this file. # # by default (built-in), scan all partitions (/proc/partitions) and all # containers for MD superblocks. alternatively, specify devices to scan, using # wildcards if desired. #DEVICE partitions containers # auto-create devices with Debian standard permissions CREATE owner=root group=disk mode=0660 auto=yes # automatically tag new arrays as belonging to the local system HOMEHOST <system> # instruct the monitoring daemon where to send mail alerts MAILADDR root # definitions of existing MD arrays # This file was auto-generated on Mon, 29 Oct 2012 16:06:12 -0500 # by mkconf $Id$ ARRAY /dev/md1 metadata=1.2 name=ion:1 UUID=aa1f85b0:a2391657:cfd38029:772c560e ARRAY /dev/md2 metadata=1.2 name=ion:2 UUID=528e5385:e61eaa4c:1db2dba7:44b556fb cat /proc/mdstat returns: Personalities : [raid1] [linear] [multipath] [raid0] [raid6] [raid5] [raid4] [raid10] md2 : active raid1 sdb2[0] sdc2[1] 208629632 blocks super 1.2 [2/2] [UU] md1 : active raid1 sdb1[0] sdc1[1] 767868736 blocks super 1.2 [2/2] [UU] unused devices: <none> ls -la /dev | grep md returns: brw-rw---- 1 root disk 9, 1 Oct 30 11:06 md1 brw-rw---- 1 root disk 9, 2 Oct 30 11:06 md2 So I think all is good and I reboot. After the reboot, /dev/md1 is now /dev/md126 and /dev/md2 is now /dev/md127????? sudo mdadm --detail --scan returns: ARRAY /dev/md/ion:1 metadata=1.2 name=ion:1 UUID=aa1f85b0:a2391657:cfd38029:772c560e ARRAY /dev/md/ion:2 metadata=1.2 name=ion:2 UUID=528e5385:e61eaa4c:1db2dba7:44b556fb cat /proc/mdstat returns: Personalities : [raid1] [linear] [multipath] [raid0] [raid6] [raid5] [raid4] [raid10] md126 : active raid1 sdc2[1] sdb2[0] 208629632 blocks super 1.2 [2/2] [UU] md127 : active (auto-read-only) raid1 sdb1[0] sdc1[1] 767868736 blocks super 1.2 [2/2] [UU] unused devices: <none> ls -la /dev | grep md returns: drwxr-xr-x 2 root root 80 Oct 30 11:18 md brw-rw---- 1 root disk 9, 126 Oct 30 11:18 md126 brw-rw---- 1 root disk 9, 127 Oct 30 11:18 md127 All is not lost, I: sudo mdadm --stop /dev/md126 sudo mdadm --stop /dev/md127 sudo mdadm --assemble --verbose /dev/md1 /dev/sdb1 /dev/sdc1 sudo mdadm --assemble --verbose /dev/md2 /dev/sdb2 /dev/sdc2 and verify everything: sudo mdadm --detail --scan returns: ARRAY /dev/md1 metadata=1.2 name=ion:1 UUID=aa1f85b0:a2391657:cfd38029:772c560e ARRAY /dev/md2 metadata=1.2 name=ion:2 UUID=528e5385:e61eaa4c:1db2dba7:44b556fb cat /proc/mdstat returns: Personalities : [raid1] [linear] [multipath] [raid0] [raid6] [raid5] [raid4] [raid10] md2 : active raid1 sdb2[0] sdc2[1] 208629632 blocks super 1.2 [2/2] [UU] md1 : active raid1 sdb1[0] sdc1[1] 767868736 blocks super 1.2 [2/2] [UU] unused devices: <none> ls -la /dev | grep md returns: brw-rw---- 1 root disk 9, 1 Oct 30 11:26 md1 brw-rw---- 1 root disk 9, 2 Oct 30 11:26 md2 So once again, I think all is good and I reboot. Again, after the reboot, /dev/md1 is /dev/md126 and /dev/md2 is /dev/md127????? sudo mdadm --detail --scan returns: ARRAY /dev/md/ion:1 metadata=1.2 name=ion:1 UUID=aa1f85b0:a2391657:cfd38029:772c560e ARRAY /dev/md/ion:2 metadata=1.2 name=ion:2 UUID=528e5385:e61eaa4c:1db2dba7:44b556fb cat /proc/mdstat returns: Personalities : [raid1] [linear] [multipath] [raid0] [raid6] [raid5] [raid4] [raid10] md126 : active raid1 sdc2[1] sdb2[0] 208629632 blocks super 1.2 [2/2] [UU] md127 : active (auto-read-only) raid1 sdb1[0] sdc1[1] 767868736 blocks super 1.2 [2/2] [UU] unused devices: <none> ls -la /dev | grep md returns: drwxr-xr-x 2 root root 80 Oct 30 11:42 md brw-rw---- 1 root disk 9, 126 Oct 30 11:42 md126 brw-rw---- 1 root disk 9, 127 Oct 30 11:42 md127 What am I missing here?

  Read the article

• Is it bad practice to apply class-based design to JavaScript programs?

  - by helixed

  JavaScript is a prototyped-based language, and yet it has the ability to mimic some of the features of class-based object-oriented languages. For example, JavaScript does not have a concept of public and private members, but through the magic of closures, it's still possible to provide the same functionality. Similarly, method overloading, interfaces, namespaces and abstract classes can all be added in one way or another. Lately, as I've been programming in JavaScript, I've felt like I'm trying to turn it into a class-based language instead of using it in the way it's meant to be used. It seems like I'm trying to force the language to conform to what I'm used to. The following is some JavaScript code I've written recently. It's purpose is to abstract away some of the effort involved in drawing to the HTML5 canvas element. /* Defines the Drawing namespace. */ var Drawing = {}; /* Abstract base which represents an element to be drawn on the screen. @param The graphical context in which this Node is drawn. @param position The position of the center of this Node. */ Drawing.Node = function(context, position) { return { /* The method which performs the actual drawing code for this Node. This method must be overridden in any subclasses of Node. */ draw: function() { throw Exception.MethodNotOverridden; }, /* Returns the graphical context for this Node. @return The graphical context for this Node. */ getContext: function() { return context; }, /* Returns the position of this Node. @return The position of this Node. */ getPosition: function() { return position; }, /* Sets the position of this Node. @param thePosition The position of this Node. */ setPosition: function(thePosition) { position = thePosition; } }; } /* Define the shape namespace. */ var Shape = {}; /* A circle shape implementation of Drawing.Node. @param context The graphical context in which this Circle is drawn. @param position The center of this Circle. @param radius The radius of this circle. @praram color The color of this circle. */ Shape.Circle = function(context, position, radius, color) { //check the parameters if (radius < 0) throw Exception.InvalidArgument; var node = Drawing.Node(context, position); //overload the node drawing method node.draw = function() { var context = this.getContext(); var position = this.getPosition(); context.fillStyle = color; context.beginPath(); context.arc(position.x, position.y, radius, 0, Math.PI*2, true); context.closePath(); context.fill(); } /* Returns the radius of this Circle. @return The radius of this Circle. */ node.getRadius = function() { return radius; }; /* Sets the radius of this Circle. @param theRadius The new radius of this circle. */ node.setRadius = function(theRadius) { radius = theRadius; }; /* Returns the color of this Circle. @return The color of this Circle. */ node.getColor = function() { return color; }; /* Sets the color of this Circle. @param theColor The new color of this Circle. */ node.setColor = function(theColor) { color = theColor; }; //return the node return node; }; The code works exactly like it should for a user of Shape.Circle, but it feels like it's held together with Duct Tape. Can somebody provide some insight on this?

  Read the article

• Force RAID to read "exiled" disk?

  - by user197015

  We have a RAID 6 array (Infortrend EonStor DS S16F) that recently had two disks fail. Immediately prior to replacing these two disks, a third, good, disk was accidentally ejected from the array. After reinserting this disk it is marked as "exiled" by the array's firmware, and so even after replacing the two failed disks with new ones the array refuses to rebuild the logical volume and remains inaccessible. Since the temporarily-ejected disk is still functional and nothing has been written to the array since it was ejected, it seems that it should theoretically be possible to recover all the data on the array, but how can we convince the array to use the data from the "exiled" disk? Thanks for any help or advice you can offer.

  Read the article

• soap vs REST vs JSON in SOA

  - by Muhammad Adnan

  I writing here to clear my and may be many people 's misconceptions about them... first my question is: SOAP is xml based protocol REST is web based architectural web service JSON is standard but not xml based how can we compare them???? as trio are different things 2nd question is: is REST response xml based only or json based also??? if it is also xml based then how can we consider it different then SOAP and even faster... 3rd question is: how can we apply authentication header on REST and jSON based web services (any reference with description) 4th question is: what is SOA and if some application contains some web services, can we consider it SOA based means what are SOA specs... your response would be appreciated :)

  Read the article

• LIST<> AddRange throwing ArgumentException

  - by Tim

  Hi all, I have a particular method that is occasionally crashing with an ArgumentException: Destination array was not long enough. Check destIndex and length, and the array's lower bounds.: at System.Array.Copy(Array sourceArray, Int32 sourceIndex, Array destinationArray, Int32 destinationIndex, Int32 length, Boolean reliable) at System.Collections.Generic.List`1.CopyTo(T[] array, Int32 arrayIndex) at System.Collections.Generic.List`1.InsertRange(Int32 index, IEnumerable`1 collection) at System.Collections.Generic.List`1.AddRange(IEnumerable`1 collection) The code that is causing this crash looks something like this: List<MyType> objects = new List<MyType>(100); objects = FindObjects(someParam); objects.AddRange(FindObjects(someOtherParam); According to MSDN, List<.AddRange() should automatically resize itself as needed: If the new Count (the current Count plus the size of the collection) will be greater than Capacity, the capacity of the List<(Of <(T)) is increased by automatically reallocating the internal array to accommodate the new elements, and the existing elements are copied to the new array before the new elements are added. Can someone think of a circumstance in which AddRange could throw this type of exception?

  Read the article

• How to create multi-dimensional jagged arrays in VbScript ?

  - by vandana268

  I need to create multi-dimensional array of strings. Each row of the array can have varying number of strings. Something like the follwing code: twoDimension = Array(Array()) ReDim Preserve twoDimension(3) For i = 0 to 2 If i = 1 Then twoDimension(i) = Array(1,2,3) End If If i = 2Then twoDimension(i) = Array(1,2,3,4,5) End If Next

  Read the article

• Can I autogenerate/compile code on-the-fly, at runtime, based upon values (like key/value pairs) parsed out of a configuration file?

  - by Kumba

  This might be a doozy for some. I'm not sure if it's even 100% implementable, but I wanted to throw the idea out there to see if I'm really off of my rocker yet. I have a set of classes that mimics enums (see my other questions for specific details/examples). For 90% of my project, I can compile everything in at design time. But the remaining 10% is going to need to be editable w/o re-compiling the project in VS 2010. This remaining 10% will be based on a templated version of my Enums class, but will generate code at runtime, based upon data values sourced in from external configuration files. To keep this question small, see this SO question for an idea of what my Enums class looks like. The templated fields, per that question, will be the MaxEnums Int32, Names String() array, and Values array, plus each shared implementation of the Enums sub-class (which themselves, represent the Enums that I use elsewhere in my code). I'd ideally like to parse values from a simple text file (INI-style) of key/value pairs: [Section1] Enum1=enum_one Enum2=enum_two Enum3=enum_three So that the following code would be generated (and compiled) at runtime (comments/supporting code stripped to reduce question size): Friend Shared ReadOnly MaxEnums As Int32 = 3 Private Shared ReadOnly _Names As String() = New String() _ {"enum_one", "enum_two", "enum_three"} Friend Shared ReadOnly Enum1 As New Enums(_Names(0), 1) Friend Shared ReadOnly Enum2 As New Enums(_Names(1), 2) Friend Shared ReadOnly Enum3 As New Enums(_Names(2), 4) Friend Shared ReadOnly Values As Enums() = New Enums() _ {Enum1, Enum2, Enum3} I'm certain this would need to be generated in MSIL code, and I know from reading that the two components to look at are CodeDom and Reflection.Emit, but I was wondering if anyone had working examples (or pointers to working examples) versus really long articles. I'm a hands-on learner, so I have to have example code to play with. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Can a WCF Service provide publish/subscribe activity to a Linux-based C++ client application?

  - by Jeremy Roddingham

  I have a WCF service written to provide certain functionality to intranet-based clients. This is easy when a client is running Windows. I want to implement the same functionality for my Windows clients that is available to my linux clients. My questions are? How can I communicate to a linux c++ based client (supporting callback operations for a publish subscribe) type situation? I am aware of using SOAP over the HTTPBinding but is that the only way (does not support callbacks I believe)? Would the same apply if I were using TCPBinding on the service-side? Currently, the service is set up using TCP but what are my options for the linux client communcation? I read somewhere that messages can also be sent (via webservices I believe) in XML rather than SOAP? Which would be a better approach or how to determine which is a better approach? I am trying to understand the options I would have for a WCF data service if I wanted to communicate with it from a linux client. I appreciate all your help. Thank You, Jeremy

  Read the article

• NSObject release destroys local copy of object's data

  - by Spider-Paddy

  I know this is something stupid on my part but I don't get what's happening. I create an object that fetches data & puts it into an array in a specific format, since it fetches asynchronously (has to download & parse data) I put a delegate method into the object that needs the data so that the data fetching object copies it's formatted array into an array in the calling object. The problem is that when the data fetching object is released, the copy it created in the caller is being erased, code is: In .h file @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray *imagesDataSource; In .m file // Fetch item details ImagesParser *imagesParserObject = [[ImagesParser alloc] init:self]; [imagesParserObject getArticleImagesOfArticleId:(NSInteger)currentArticleId]; [imagesParserObject release] <-- problematic release // Called by parser when images parsing is finished -(void)imagesDataTransferComplete:(ImagesParser *)imagesParserObject { self.imagesDataSource = [ImagesParserObject.returnedArray copy]; // copy array to local variable // If there are more pics, they must be assembled in an array for possible UIImageView animation NSInteger picCount = [imagesDataSource count]; if(picCount > 1) // 1 image is assumed to be the pic already displayed { // Build image array NSMutableArray *tempPicArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Temp space to hold images while building for(int i = 0; i < picCount; i++) { // Get Nr from only article in detailDataSource & pic name (Small) from each item in imagesDataSource NSString *picAddress = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://some.url.com/shopdata/image/article/%@/%@", [[detailDataSource objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Nr"], [[imagesDataSource objectAtIndex:i] objectForKey:@"Small"]]; NSURL *picURL = [NSURL URLWithString:picAddress]; NSData *picData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:picURL]; [tempPicArray addObject:[UIImage imageWithData:picData]]; } imagesArray = [tempPicArray copy]; // copy makes immutable copy of array [tempPicArray release]; currentPicIndex = 0; // Assume first pic is pic already being shown } else imagesArray = nil; // No need for a needless pic array // Remove please wait message [pleaseWaitViewControllerObject.view removeFromSuperview]; } I put in tons of NSLog lines to keep track of what was going on & self.imagesDataSource is populated with the returned array but when the parser object is released self.imagesDataSource becomes empty. I thought self.imagesDataSource = [ImagesParserObject.returnedArray copy]; is supposed to make an independant object, like as if it was alloc, init'ed, so that self.imagesDataSource is not just a pointer to the parser's array but is it's own array. So why does the release of the parser object clear the copy of the array. (I checked & double checked that it's not something overwriting self.imagesDataSource, commenting out [imagesParserObject release] consistently fixes the problem) Also, I have exactly the same problem with self.detailDataSource which is declared & populated in the exact same way as self.imagesDataSource I thought that once I call the parser I could release it because the caller no longer needs to refer to it, all further activity is carried out by the parser object through it's delegate method, what am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• How do you create a non-Thread-based Guice custom Scope?

  - by Russ

  It seems that all Guice's out-of-the-box Scope implementations are inherently Thread-based (or ignore Threads entirely): Scopes.SINGLETON and Scopes.NO_SCOPE ignore Threads and are the edge cases: global scope and no scope. ServletScopes.REQUEST and ServletScopes.SESSION ultimately depend on retrieving scoped objects from a ThreadLocal<Context>. The retrieved Context holds a reference to the HttpServletRequest that holds a reference to the scoped objects stored as named attributes (where name is derived from com.google.inject.Key). Class SimpleScope from the custom scope Guice wiki also provides a per-Thread implementation using a ThreadLocal<Map<Key<?>, Object>> member variable. With that preamble, my question is this: how does one go about creating a non-Thread-based Scope? It seems that something that I can use to look up a Map<Key<?>, Object> is missing, as the only things passed in to Scope.scope() are a Key<T> and a Provider<T>. Thanks in advance for your time.

  Read the article

• Simulating pass by reference for an array reference (i.e. a reference to a reference) in Java

  - by Leif Andersen

  I was wondering, in java, is it possible to in anyway, simulate pass by reference for an array? Yes, I know the language doesn't support it, but is there anyway I can do it. Say, for example, I want to create a method that reverses the order of all the elements in an array. (I know that this code snippet isn't the best example, as there is a better algorithms to do this, but this is a good example of the type of thing I want to do for more complex problems). Currently, I need to make a class like this: public static void reverse(Object[] arr) { Object[] tmpArr = new Object[arr.length]; count = arr.length - 1; for(Object i : arr) tmpArr[count--] = i; // I would like to do arr = tmpArr, but that will only make the shallow // reference tmpArr, I would like to actually change the pointer they passed in // Not just the values in the array, so I have to do this: count = arr.length - 1; for(Object i : tmpArr) arr[count--] = i; return; } Yes, I know that I could just swap the values until I get to the middle, and it would be much more efficient, but for other, more complex purposes, is there anyway that I can manipulate the actual pointer? Again, thank you.

  Read the article

• How can I add HTML formating to 'Swift Mail tutorial based' PHP email?

  - by Daniel

  Hello, I have developed a competition page for a client, and they wish for the email the customer receives be more than simply text. The tutorial I used only provided simple text, within the 'send body message'. I am required to add html to thank the customer for entering, with introducing images to this email. The code is: //send the welcome letter function send_email($info){ //format each email $body = format_email($info,'html'); $body_plain_txt = format_email($info,'txt'); //setup the mailer $transport = Swift_MailTransport::newInstance(); $mailer = Swift_Mailer::newInstance($transport); $message = Swift_Message::newInstance(); $message ->setSubject('Thanks for entering the competition'); $message ->setFrom(array('[email protected]' => 'FromEmailExample')); $message ->setTo(array($info['email'] => $info['name'])); $message ->setBody('Thanks for entering the competition, we will be in touch if you are a lucky winner.'); $result = $mailer->send($message); return $result; } This function.php sheet is working and the customer is recieving their email ok, I just need to change the ('Thanks for entering the competition, we will be in touch if you are a lucky winner.') to have HTML instead... Please, if you can, provide me with an example of how I can integrate HTML into this function. Cheers in advance. :-)

  Read the article

• Zend Framework - validators are not working anymore?

  - by Pavel Dubinin

  Eariler I happily used the following code for creating form elements (inside Zend_Form descendant): //Set for options $this->setOptions(array( 'elements' => array( 'title' => array( 'type' => 'text', 'options' => array( 'required' => true, 'label' => 'Title', 'filters' => array('StringTrim'), 'validators' => array( array('StringLength', false, array('minLength'=>1, 'maxLength'=>50)), ), ) ) )); But now I've noticed that validators are not working.. I suspect this might be due to zend updates.. Does anyone face this problem?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276  | Next Page >