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• SWFUpload Authentication

  - by durilai

  I am using SWFUpload to do file uploading in a ASP.NET MVC 1.0 website. It is working fine, but I am not able to authenticate the upload method. The HttpContext.User.Identity.Name returns an empty string. I am assuming this is because the Flash movie is making the post. I am also using the wrapper provided here: http://blog.codeville.net/2008/11/24/jquery-ajax-uploader-plugin-with-progress-bar/. The controller action below gets fired, but as mentiond above the user object is not passed. Any help is appreciated! View HTML <form enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="/Media/Upload/Photo"> <input type="file" id="userPhoto_Photo" name="userPhoto_Photo" /> </form> Javascript $(function() { $("#userPhoto").makeAsyncUploader({ upload_url: '/Media/Upload', flash_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Flash/swfUpload-2.2.0.1.swf") %>', file_size_limit: '1 MB', file_types: '*.jpg; *.png; *.gif', button_action: SWFUpload.BUTTON_ACTION.SELECT_FILE, button_width: 210, button_height: 35, button_image_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Images/UploadPhoto.png") %>', button_text: '', button_cursor: SWFUpload.CURSOR.HAND, button_window_mode: SWFUpload.WINDOW_MODE.TRANSPARENT }); }); Controller Action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload() { if (Request.Files.Count == 1) { //Upload work } return RedirectToAction("Index", "Profile"); }

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• JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

  - by purecharger

  And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

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• DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

  - by Nathan Loding

  I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

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• calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

  - by CraigJSte

  Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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• Issue Querying LDAP DirectoryEntry in ASP.NET

  - by davemackey

  I have users login to my application via Active Directory and then pull from their AD information to garner information about that user like so: Dim ID as FormsIdentity = DirectCast(User.Identity, FormsIdentity) Dim ticket as FormsAuthenticationTicket = ID.Ticket Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry("LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = ticket.Name.Substring(0, 5) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Now, I want to be able to impersonate other users...so that I can "test" the application as them, so I added a textbox and a button to the page and when the button is clicked the text is assigned to a session variable like so: Session("impersonate_user") = TextBox1.Text When the page reloads I check to see if Session("impersonate_user") has a value other than "" and then attempt to query Active Directory using this session variable like so: If CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) <> "" Then Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry(LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name")= adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Else [use the actual ticket.name to get this info.] End If But this doesn't work. Instead, it throws an error on the first Session line stating, "DirectoryServicesCOMException was unhandled by user code There is no such object on the server." Why? I know I'm giving it a valid username! Is something strange happening in the casting of the session? The code is essentially the same between each method except that in one method rather than pulling from ticket.Name I pull from a session variable for the login I'll be looking up with AD.

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• [hibernate - jpa] @CollectionOfElements without create the apposite table

  - by blow

  Hi all. I have this: Municipality class @Entity public class Municipality implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String country; private String province; private String name; @Column(name="cod_catasto") private String codCatastale; private String cap; @CollectionOfElements private List<Address> addressList; public Municipality() { } ... Address class @Embeddable public class Address implements Serializable { @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @Cascade(CascadeType.SAVE_UPDATE) private Municipality municipality; @Column(length=45) private String address; public Address() { } ... Address is embedded in another class Person. When i save an instance of Person, hibernate create 3 tables: PERSON, MUNICIPALITY and MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST. MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST contains 2 fields: MUNICIPALITY_ID (FK) and STREET. I don't want this table, i only want the ID of table MUNICIPALITY into table PERSON(that embeds Address), what should i do? I tried to add @JoinTable in Municipality entity like this: @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name="person") private List<Address> addressList; It partially worked, but i cant choose the column name of table PERSON that contains ID of the table MUNICIPALITY, it is, by hibernate choose, simply "MUNICIPALITY_ID"... Thbaks.

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• deadlock because of foreign key?

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using SQL Server 2008 Enterprise. I met with deadlock in the following store procedure, but because of my fault, I did not record the deadlock graph. But now I can not reproduce deadlock issue. I want to have a postmortem to find the root cause of deadlock to avoid deadlock in the future. The deadlock happens on delete statement. For the delete statement, Param1 is a column of table FooTable, Param1 is a foreign key of another table (refers to another primary key clustered index column of the other table). There is no index on Param1 itself for table FooTable. FooTable has another column which is used as clustered primary key, but not Param1 column. Here is my guess why there is deadlock, and I want to let people review whether my analysis is correct? Since Param1 column has no index, there will be a table scan, and will acquire table level lock, because of foreign key, the delete operation will also need to check master table (e.g. to acquire lock on master table); Some operation on master table acquires master table lock, but want to acquire lock on FooTable; (1) and (2) cause cycle lock which makes deadlock happen. My analysis correct? Any reproduce scenario? create PROCEDURE [dbo].[FooProc] ( @Param1 int ,@Param2 int ,@Param3 int ) AS DELETE FooTable WHERE Param1 = @Param1 INSERT INTO FooTable ( Param1 ,Param2 ,Param3 ) VALUES ( @Param1 ,@Param2 ,@Param3 ) DECLARE @ID bigint SET @ID = ISNULL(@@Identity,-1) IF @ID > 0 BEGIN SELECT IdentityStr FROM FooTable WHERE ID = @ID END thanks in advance, George

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• Adding a custom subview (created in a xib) to a view controller's view - What am I doing wrong

  - by Fran

  I've created a view in a xib (with an activity indicator, a progress view and a label). Then I've created .h/.m files: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MyCustomView : UIView { IBOutlet UIActivityIndicatorView *actIndicator; IBOutlet UIProgressView *progressBar; IBOutlet UILabel *statusMsg; } @end #import "MyCustomView.h" @implementation MyCustomView - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ((self = [super initWithFrame:frame])) { // Initialization code } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end In IB, I set the file's owner and view identity to MyCustomView and connect the IBOutlet to the File's owner In MyViewController.m, I've: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIView *subView = [[MyCustomView alloc] initWithFrame:myTableView.frame]; [subView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor colorWithRed:0.0 green:0.0 blue:0.0 alpha:0.5]]; [myTableView addSubview:subView]; [subView release]; } When I run the app, the view is added, but I can't see the label, the progress bar and the activity indicator. What am I doing wrong?

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• Validate domain against LDAP?

  - by lucian.jp

  I have a procedure to get the name of the logged user show on the site. I get it this way : var winIdentity = (WindowsIdentity) HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (winIdentity != null) { string domainUser = winIdentity.Name.Replace(@"\", "/"); string domain = winIdentity.Name.Split('\\')[0]; string user = winIdentity.Name.Split('\\')[1]; var myDe = new DirectoryEntry(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["LDAP"].ConnectionString, ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LDAPCredentials"].Split(';')[0], ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LDAPCredentials"].Split(';')[1]); var deSearcher = new DirectorySearcher(myDe) {Filter = "(&(sAMAccountName=" + user + "))"}; SearchResult result = deSearcher.FindOne(); if (result != null) { DirectoryEntry userDe = result.GetDirectoryEntry(); lblNameAD.Text = string.Format(lblNameAD.Text, userDe.Properties["givenName"].Value, userDe.Properties["sn"].Value); } else { var adEntry = new DirectoryEntry("WinNT://" + domainUser); string fullname = adEntry.Properties["FullName"].Value.ToString(); lblNameAD.Text = string.Format(lblNameAD.Text, !string.IsNullOrEmpty(fullname) ? fullname : user, null); } } Probleme id that if I have a local useraccount with the same username that one from LDAP, it passes the check and return the name. EX: local\MyUser domain\MyUser Both return the name from AD even if the one from local isn't a domain account. It would be perfect if I could search in LDAP for domainuser, but it seems I can't. I also tried to restrict the DC with the DirectorySearcher but the domain name is "domain", but I only have "dc=dom" and "dc=com" and no DC for full domain name.

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• Linq-to-SQL: How to shape the data with group by?

  - by Cheeso

  I have an example database, it contains tables for Movies, People and Credits. The Movie table contains a Title and an Id. The People table contains a Name and an Id. The Credits table relates Movies to the People that worked on those Movies, in a particular role. The table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Credits] ( [Id] [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [PersonId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES People(Id), [MovieId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Movies(Id), [Role] [char] (1) NULL In this simple example, the [Role] column is a single character, by my convention either 'A' to indicate the person was an actor on that particular movie, or 'D' for director. I'd like to perform a query on a particular person that returns the person's name, plus a list of all the movies the person has worked on, and the roles in those movies. If I were to serialize it to json, it might look like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "roles": ["actor", "director"] }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "roles": ["director"] }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "roles": ["actor"] }, ... ] } How can I write a LINQ-to-SQL query that shapes the output like that? I'm having trouble doing it efficiently. if I use this query: int personId = 10007; var persons = from p in db.People where p.Id == personId select new { name = p.Name, movies = (from m in db.Movies join c in db.Credits on m.Id equals c.MovieId where (c.PersonId == personId) select new { title = m.Title, role = (c.Role=="D"?"director":"actor") }) }; I get something like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "actor" }, { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "role": "actor" }, ... ] } ...but as you can see there's a duplicate of each movie for which Eastwood played multiple roles. How can I shape the output the way I want?

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• SQL Server 2005, wide indexes, computed columns, and sargable queries

  - by luksan

  In my database, assume we have a table defined as follows: CREATE TABLE [Chemical]( [ChemicalId] int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY, [Name] nvarchar(max) NOT NULL, [Description] nvarchar(max) NULL ) The value for Name can be very large, so we must use nvarchar(max). Unfortunately, we want to create an index on this column, but nvarchar(max) is not supported inside an index. So we create the following computed column and associated index based upon it: ALTER TABLE [Chemical] ADD [Name_Indexable] AS LEFT([Name], 20) CREATE INDEX [IX_Name] ON [Chemical]([Name_Indexable]) INCLUDE([Name]) The index will not be unique but we can enforce uniqueness via a trigger. If we perform the following query, the execution plan results in a index scan, which is not what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' However, if we modify the query to make it "sargable," then the execution plan results in an index seek, which is what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Indexable_Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-' AND [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' Is this a good solution if we control the format of all queries executed against the database via our middle tier? Is there a better way? Is this a major kludge? Should we be using full-text indexing?

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• Misalignement in the output Bitmap created from a byte array

  - by Daniel

  I am trying to understand why I have troubles creating a Bitmap from a byte array. I post this after a careful scrutiny of the existing posts about Bitmap creation from byte arrays, like the followings: Creating a bitmap from a byte[], Working with Image and Bitmap in c#?, C#: Bitmap Creation using bytes array My code is aimed to execute a filter on a digital image 8bppIndexed writing the pixel value on a byte [] buffer to be converted again (after some processing to manage gray levels) in a 8BppIndexed Bitmap My input image is a trivial image created by means of specific perl code: https://www.box.com/shared/zqt46c4pcvmxhc92i7ct Of course, after executing the filter the output image has lost the first and last rows and the first and last columns, due to the way the filter manage borders, so from the original 256 x 256 image i get a 254 x 254 image. Just to stay focused on the issue I have commented the code responsible for executing the filter so that the operation really performed is an obvious: ComputedPixel = InputImage.GetPixel(myColumn, myRow).R; I know, i should use lock and unlock but I prefer one headache one by one. Anyway this code should be a sort of identity transform, and at last i use: private unsafe void FillOutputImage() { OutputImage = new Bitmap (OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows , PixelFormat .Format8bppIndexed); ColorPalette ncp = OutputImage.Palette; for (int i = 0; i < 256; i++) ncp.Entries[i] = Color .FromArgb(255, i, i, i); OutputImage.Palette = ncp; Rectangle area = new Rectangle(0, 0, OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows); var data = OutputImage.LockBits(area, ImageLockMode.WriteOnly, OutputImage.PixelFormat); Marshal .Copy (byteBuffer, 0, data.Scan0, byteBuffer.Length); OutputImage.UnlockBits(data); } The output image I get is the following: https://www.box.com/shared/p6tubyi6dsf7cyregg9e It is quite clear that I am losing a pixel per row, but i cannot understand why: I have carefully controlled all the parameters: OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows and the byte [] byteBuffer length and content even writing known values as way to test. The code is nearly identical to other code posted in stackOverflow and elsewhere. Someone maybe could help to identify where the problem is? Thanks a lot

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• Adding a minimum display time for Silverlight splash screen.

  - by David

  When hosting a silverlight application on a webpage it is possible to use the splashscreensource parameter to specify a simple Silverlight 1.0 (xaml+javascript) control to be displayed while the real xap file is downloaded, and which can receive notification of the downloads progress through onSourceDownloadProgressChanged. If the xap file is in cache, the splash screen is not shown (and if the download only takes 1 second, the splash screen will only be shown for 1 second). I know this is not best practice in general, but I am looking for a way to specify a minimum display time for the splash screen - even if the xap cached or the download is fast, the splash screen would remain up for at least, let's say, 5 seconds (for example to show a required legal disclaimer, corporate identity mark or other bug). I do want to do it in the splash screen exclusively (rather then in the main xap) as I want it to be clean and uninterupted (for example a sound bug) and shown to the user as soon as they open the page, rather then after the download (which could take anywhere from 1 to 20+ seconds). I'd prefer not to accomplish this with preloading - replacing the splash screen with a full Silverlight xap application (with it's own loading screen), which then programmably loads and displays the full xap after a minimum wait time.

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• Google App Engine JDO error caused by GregorianCalendar ?

  - by Frank

  My class looks like this : import javax.jdo.annotations.IdGeneratorStrategy; import javax.jdo.annotations.IdentityType; import javax.jdo.annotations.PersistenceCapable; import javax.jdo.annotations.Persistent; import javax.jdo.annotations.PrimaryKey; @PersistenceCapable(identityType=IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class Contact_Info implements Serializable { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy=IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) Long Id; public static final long serialVersionUID=26362862L; @Persistent String Contact_Id=""; @Persistent GregorianCalendar Date_1; public Contact_Info() { } public void setId(Long value) { Id=value; } public Long getId() { return Id; } public void setContact_Id(String value) { Contact_Id=value; } public String getContact_Id() { return Contact_Id; } public void setDate_1(GregorianCalendar value) { Date_1=value; } public GregorianCalendar getDate_1() { return Date_1; } public String toString() { return Contact_Id; } } When it's run, I got the following error : java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException org.datanucleus.store.appengine.EntityUtils.getPropertyName(EntityUtils.java:62) org.datanucleus.store.appengine.DatastoreFieldManager.storeObjectField(DatastoreFieldManager.java:839) org.datanucleus.state.AbstractStateManager.providedObjectField(AbstractStateManager.java:1037) PayPal_Monitor.Contact_Info.jdoProvideField(Contact_Info.java) PayPal_Monitor.Contact_Info.jdoProvideFields(Contact_Info.java) org.datanucleus.state.JDOStateManagerImpl.provideFields(JDOStateManagerImpl.java:2715) org.datanucleus.store.appengine.DatastorePersistenceHandler.insertPreProcess(DatastorePersistenceHandler.java:341) org.datanucleus.store.appengine.DatastorePersistenceHandler.insertObjects(DatastorePersistenceHandler.java:251) If I take out the "GregorianCalendar Date_1", it works correctly, what should I do to fix it ? I do need the date in it. Frank

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• Discriminator based on joined property

  - by Andrew

  Suppose I have this relationship: abstract class Base { int Id; int JoinedId; ... } class Joined { int Id; int Discriminator; ... } class Sub1 : Base { ... } class Sub2 : Base { ... } for the following tables: table Base ( Id int, JoinedId int, ... ) table Joined ( Id int, Discriminator int, ... ) I would like to set up a table-per-hierarchy inheritance mapping for the Base, Sub1, Sub2 relationships, but using the Disciminator property from the Joined class as the discriminator. Here's the general idea for the mapping file: <class name="Base" table="Base"> <id name="Id"><generator class="identity"/></id> <discriminator /> <!-- ??? or <join> or <many-to-one>? --> <subclass name="Sub1" discriminator-value="1">...</subclass> <subclass name="Sub2" discriminator-value="2">...</subclass> </class> Is there any way of accomplishing something like this with the <discriminator>, <join>, or <many-to-one>? NHiberante seems to assume the discriminator is a column on the given table (which makes sense to me.. I know this is unorthodox). Thanks.

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• Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

  - by mannish

  So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

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• How to assign a table view controller to a table view on iPhone?

  - by Tattat

  I have a CharTableController, View and TableView on my IB. The CharTableController is using "CharTableController" in class identity. And this is how I implemented in the .h, and I want use the "CharTableController" to control the table only: @interface CharTableController : UITableViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource>{ // IBOutlet UILabel *debugLabel; NSArray *listData; } //@property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UILabel *debugLabel; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray *listData; @end It is the .m: #import "CharTableController.h" @implementation CharTableController @synthesize listData; - (void)viewDidLoad { //NSLog(@"bulll"); // [debugLabel setText:@"success"]; NSArray *array = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"A", @"B", @"C", @"D", @"E", nil]; self.listData = array; [array release]; [super viewDidLoad]; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [self.listData count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *SimpleTableIdentifier = @"SimpleTableIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: SimpleTableIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:SimpleTableIdentifier] autorelease]; NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; cell.textLabel.text = [listData objectAtIndex:row]; } return cell; } @end In the IB, I already assign the CharTableController's view to Table View in IB. And Table View is under the View, in IB. After I run the program, I can see the table view, but I can't see any char in the table view, why? What's wrong with my code? thz.

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• Windows Mobile : How to bind dropdown's selectedvalue to a column in table A and the list data to a

  - by Rob

  Hi, I am trying to learn the basics of Windows Mobile development against SQL CE and have come across a basic problem. I have two tables. One called Customers that stores customer info and has an identity column called ID as the primary key. The other table is called Orders which has a column called CustomerID (the FK constraint is present). I have added a DataSet to the project that contains both tables and have autogenerated the edit/view forms. This has produced a text control for the CustomerID column in the Order table for the new/edit form and I deleted it and replaced it with a dropdown list. Then, using the 'Advanced' databinding options (in Properties) I set the datasource of the list to the Customers table setting the value to the ID field and the text to the CustomerName field. I then set the SelectedValue of the list box to the CustomerID field of the Orders dataset. So far so good. When I run the app in the emulator and view the 'New' form for Orders the Customer dropdown is indeed populated with a list of customer names and I can select one and happily create a new order successfully. This is confirmed when I see the order appear in the Orders Grid form. However, when I then click on the order in the grid and then select 'Edit' the order loads but the dropdown always shows the first customer in the list and doesn't seem to bind the SelectedValue to the Orders dataset CustomerID field. Now I am an ASP.NET guy and normally hand craft the DAL and it's binding to the UI so I'm not entirely sure where to look to investigate what is going wrong here as this is all generated code. I am sure it is something very trivial but any pointers would be appreciated. My gut feeling is that the SelectedValue and the Customers.CustomerID values do not match for some reason? Many thanks, Rob.

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• Value objects in DDD - Why immutable?

  - by Hobbes

  I don't get why value objects in DDD should be immutable, nor do I see how this is easily done. (I'm focusing on C# and Entity Framework, if that matters.) For example, let's consider the classic Address value object. If you needed to change "123 Main St" to "123 Main Street", why should I need to construct a whole new object instead of saying myCustomer.Address.AddressLine1 = "123 Main Street"? (Even if Entity Framework supported structs, this would still be a problem, wouldn't it?) I understand (I think) the idea that value objects don't have an identity and are part of a domain object, but can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing? EDIT: My final question here really should be "Can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing as applied to Value Objects?" Sorry for the confusion! EDIT: To clairfy, I am not asking about CLR value types (vs reference types). I'm asking about the higher level DDD concept of Value Objects. For example, here is a hack-ish way to implement immutable value types for Entity Framework: http://rogeralsing.com/2009/05/21/entity-framework-4-immutable-value-objects. Basically, he just makes all setters private. Why go through the trouble of doing this?

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• How to use generic (NSObject) controller with subviews of a UIViewController?

  - by wanderlust

  I have a UIViewController that is loading several subviews at different times based on user interaction. I originally built all of these subviews in code, with no nib files. Now I am moving to nib files with custom UIView subclasses. Some of these subviews display static data, and I am using loadNibNamed:owner:options: to load them into the view controller. Others contain controls that I need to access. I (sort of) understand the reasons Apple says to use one view controller per screen of content, using generic controller objects (NSObjects) to manage subsections of a screen. So I need a view controller, a generic controller, a view class and a nib. How do I put this all together? My working assumptions and subsequent questions: I will associate the view class with the nib in the 'class identity' drop down in IB. The view controller will coordinate overall screen interactions. When necessary, it will create an instance of the generic controller. Does the generic controller load the nib? How? Do I define the outlets and actions in that view class, or should they be in the generic controller? How do I pass messages between the view controller and the generic controller? If anyone can point me to some sample code using a controller in this way, it will go a long way to helping me understand. None of the books or stackoverflow posts I've read have quite hit the spot yet.

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• WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

  - by Neillyboy

  What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

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• UpdateModel not working consistently for me if a ddl gets hidden by jQuery

  - by awrigley

  Hi My jQuery code hides a ddl under certain circumstances. When this is the case, after submitting the form, using the UpdateModel doesn't seem to work consistently. My code in the controller: // POST: /IllnessDetail/Edit [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) { IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { IllnessDetail sick = idr.GetLatestIllnessDetailByUsername(User.Identity.Name); UpdateModel(sick); idr.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Current", "IllnessDetail"); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(mfv.IllnessDetail.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill)); } I have only just started with MVC, and working under a deadline, so am still hazy as to how UpdateModel works. Debugging seems to reveal that the correct value is passed in to the action method: public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) And the correct value is put into sick in the following line: IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); However, when all is said, done and returned to the client, what displays is the value of: sick.IdInfectiousAgent instead of the value of: ill.IdInfectiousAgent The only reason I can think of is that the ddlInfectiousAgent has been hidden by jQuery. Or am I barking up the wrong lamp post? Andrew

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• Get email address from OpenID provider (Janrain openid library)

  - by Moak

  When signing in to stackoverflow with google I get this message Stackoverflow.com is asking for some information from your Google Account [email protected] • Email address: [email protected] However on my site I can log in with openid but I can't ask for the email address. I get this message You are signing in to example.com with your Google Account [email protected] Also I'm finding it hard to know at what step I need to ask for it, here's some code where I think that step should be built into. /** * Authenticates the given OpenId identity. * Defined by Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface. * * @throws Zend_Auth_Adapter_Exception If answering the authentication query is impossible * @return Zend_Auth_Result */ public function authenticate() { $id = $this->_id; $consumer = new Auth_OpenID_Consumer($this->_storage); if (!empty($id)) { $authRequest = $consumer->begin($id); if (is_null($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", 'Unknown error')); } if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", "Could not redirect to server: " . $authRequest->message)); } $redirectUrl = $authRequest->redirectUrl($this->_root, $this->_returnTo); if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($redirectUrl)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", $redirectUrl->message)); } Zend_OpenId::redirect($redirectUrl); } else { $response = $consumer->complete(Zend_OpenId::selfUrl()); switch($response->status) { case Auth_OpenID_CANCEL: case Auth_OpenID_FAILURE: return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, null, array("Authentication failed. " . @$response->message)); break; case Auth_OpenID_SUCCESS: return $this->_constructSuccessfulResult($response); break; } } } It seems like such an obvious thing but I'm having a hard time googling and combing through the code just to find this. Thanks!

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• Ruby open_id_authentication with Google OpenID

  - by Patrick Daryll Glandien

  I am in my first steps of implementing OpenID in my Rails app. open_id_authentication appeared to be a fairly easy-to-use plugin, which is why I decided to use it. Logging in with my Google account seems to work perfectly, however I do not get the sreg/AX fields that I require. My code is currently as follows: class SessionsController < ApplicationController def new; end def create open_id_authentication end protected def open_id_authentication authenticate_with_open_id(params[:openid_identifier], :required => ["http://axschema.org/contact/email"]) do |result, identity_url, registration| if result.successful? p registration.data @current_user = User.find_by_identity_url(identity_url) if @current_user successful_login else failed_login "Sorry, no user by that identity URL exists (#{identity_url})" end else failed_login result.message end end end private def successful_login session[:user_id] = @current_user.id redirect_to(root_url) end def failed_login(message) flash[:error] = message redirect_to(new_session_url) end end I have already read various discussions about Google OpenID and all only say that you need to require the AX schema instead of the sreg field email, but even when I am doing so (as you can see in the code above), registration.data will remain empty ({}). How do I effectively require the email from most OpenID providers with open_id_authentication?

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• Deployment problems of asp.net 3.5 in iis 5.1

  - by peter

  i have microsoft.net 3.5 application and have IIS5.1,,for deploying website do i need to do any thing aother than this 1.In IIS i created virtual directory named SPA and i browsed in to the location where my project is lacated and i added entire project file there( Do i need to add only bin file and login page or i need to add all pages???) 2.In asp.net folder i selected tab version 2.0,, 3.when i browsed i can see all pages when i click login.aspx i am getting this error [SqlException (0x80131904): User does not have permission to perform this action.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +821651 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +186 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +1932 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.CompleteLogin(Boolean enlistOK) +33 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) +172 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) +381 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +181 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +173 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) +133 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) +30 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) +424 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) +66 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) +494 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) +82 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) +105 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() +111 ChatTool.LoginForm.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in D:\Chat tool_Ameya\ProjectCode\Unisys Project Testing\Unisys Project\Login.aspx.cs:25 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +15 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +33 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +47 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1436

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