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• If the dependency is a unique snapshot version and install is called, what does maven select?

  - by chrsk

  Imagine two projects. The first is the framework-core project which is in version 1.1.0 and has several snapshot builds. The other is the example-business project which has the following dependency to framework-core on the build-iteration number 9. <dependency> <groupId>org.example</groupId> <artifactId>framework-core</artifactId> <version>1.1.0-20100518.134928-9</version> </dependency> What happens if mvn install is called on the framework-core? I found out that the artifact is copied to the folder and is named to *.1.1.0-SNAPSHOT.jar (as expected). This lead me to the assumption that this version is only used if even this 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT version is defined as dependency and not the precise build. To test something local without deploying it to the maven repository: call mvn install, change the dependency to 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT -- and the artifact just installed is used? Or is it possible to overwrite the specific build (with using the install lifecycle phase)?

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• Visual Studio crashes when I add a .settings file in a C++ Windows form application

  - by Ant

  I'm trying to add a .settings file in a windows form application by adding a (whatever) file in the project and have it named smthng.settings. Right after it is created, it crashes (if I look into the project's directory the file is there, but it's not "in" the project). Am I doing it wrong or could it be that the problem lies elsewhere? Edit: It seems that it's the settings designer that crashes. Partially Solved:If I add a (whatever).config file, then rename it to .settings and change it's file type to C/C++ Code (don't ask how I figured this out..) then I can add to it settings, but if I do add something that has any connection to the form then automatically a (whatever).config with thew same name spawns (which is identical to the (whatever).setting even if change one of them) and at the stdafx.cpp a #include '(whatever).h' appears, which is a problem, because there is not such a header. (if I erase it or just create a blank (whatever).h it doesn't work. Apparently I have to somehow connect all the data in the (w/e).settings to (w/e).h as well or maybe something else) Anyone had this problem before? Anyone has any ideas?

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• Threadsafe way of exposing keySet()

  - by Jake

  This must be a fairly common occurrence where I have a map and wish to thread-safely expose its key set: public MyClass { Map<String,String> map = // ... public final Set<String> keys() { // returns key set } } Now, if my "map" is not thread-safe, this is not safe: public final Set<String> keys() { return map.keySet(); } And neither is: public final Set<String> keys() { return Collections.unmodifiableSet(map.keySet()); } So I need to create a copy, such as: public final Set<String> keys() { return new HashSet(map.keySet()); } However, this doesn't seem safe either because that constructor traverses the elements of the parameter and add()s them. So while this copying is going on, a ConcurrentModificationException can happen. So then: public final Set<String> keys() { synchronized(map) { return new HashSet(map.keySet()); } } seems like the solution. Does this look right?

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• Where is the "ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush" located?

  - by Dimi Toulakis

  I have a problem understanding one style definition in Windows 8 metro apps. When you create a metro style application with VS, there is also a folder named Common created. Inside this folder there is file called StandardStyles.xaml Now the following snippet is from this file: <!-- Grid-appropriate 250 pixel square item template as seen in the GroupedItemsPage and ItemsPage --> <DataTemplate x:Key="Standard250x250ItemTemplate"> <Grid HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="250" Height="250"> <Border Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush}"> <Image Source="{Binding Image}" Stretch="UniformToFill"/> </Border> <StackPanel VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlayBackgroundThemeBrush}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Title}" Foreground="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlayForegroundThemeBrush}" Style="{StaticResource TitleTextStyle}" Height="60" Margin="15,0,15,0"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Subtitle}" Foreground="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlaySecondaryForegroundThemeBrush}" Style="{StaticResource CaptionTextStyle}" TextWrapping="NoWrap" Margin="15,0,15,10"/> </StackPanel> </Grid> </DataTemplate> What I do not understand here is the static resource definition, e.g. for the Border Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush}" It is not about how you work with templates and binding and resources. Where is this ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush located? Many thanks for your help. Dimi

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• Architecting ASP.net MVC App to use repositories and services

  - by zaladane

  Hello, I recently started reading about ASP.net MVC and after getting excited about the concept, i started to migrate all my webform project to MVC but i am having a hard time keeping my controller skinny even after following all the good advices out there (or maybe i just don't get it ... ). The website i deal with has Articles, Videos, Quotes ... and each of these entities have categories, comments, images that can be associated with it. I am using Linq to sql for database operations and for each of these Entities, i have a Repository, and for each repository, i create a service to be used in the controller. so i have - ArticleRepository ArticleCategoryRepository ArticleCommentRepository and the corresponding service ArticleService ArticleCategoryService ... you see the picture. The problem i have is that i have one controller for article,category and comment because i thought that having ArticleController handle all of that might make sense, but now i have to pass all of the services needed to the Controller constructor. So i would like to know what it is that i am doing wrong. Are my services not designed properly? should i create Bigger service to encapsulate smaller services and use them in my controller? or should i have an articleCategory Controller and an articleComment Controller? A page viewed by the user is made of all of that, thee article to be viewed,the comments associated with it, a listing of the categories to witch it applies ... how can i efficiently break down the controller to keep it "skinny" and solve my headache? Thank you! I hope my question is not too long to be read ...

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• How do I write an RSpec test to unit-test this interesting metaprogramming code?

  - by Kyle Kaitan

  Here's some simple code that, for each argument specified, will add specific get/set methods named after that argument. If you write attr_option :foo, :bar, then you will see #foo/foo= and #bar/bar= instance methods on Config: module Configurator class Config def initialize() @options = {} end def self.attr_option(*args) args.each do |a| if not self.method_defined?(a) define_method "#{a}" do @options[:"#{a}"] ||= {} end define_method "#{a}=" do |v| @options[:"#{a}"] = v end else throw Exception.new("already have attr_option for #{a}") end end end end end So far, so good. I want to write some RSpec tests to verify this code is actually doing what it's supposed to. But there's a problem! If I invoke attr_option :foo in one of the test methods, that method is now forever defined in Config. So a subsequent test will fail when it shouldn't, because foo is already defined: it "should support a specified option" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo # ... end it "should support multiple options" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo, :bar, :baz # Error! :foo already defined # by a previous test. # ... end Is there a way I can give each test an anonymous "clone" of the Config class which is independent of the others?

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• How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

  - by Wayne Werner

  Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

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• Android: CustomListAdapter

  - by primal

  Hi, I have implemented a custom list view which looks like the twitter timeline. adapter = new MyClickableListAdapter(this, R.layout.timeline, mObjectList); setListAdapter(adapter); The constructor for MyClickableListAdapter is as follows private class MyClickableListAdapter extends ClickableListAdapter{ public MyClickableListAdapter(Context context, int viewId, List objects) { super(context, viewId, objects); } ClickableListAdapter extends BaseAdapter and implements the necessary methods. The xml code for the list view is as follows <ListView android:id="@+id/android:list" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> This is what it looks like. I have 3 questions 1) I tried registering a context menu for the list view by adding the line after setting the list adapter registerforContextMenu(getListView()); But on long-click the menu doesnt get displayed. I cannot understand what I am doing wrong! 2) Is it possible to display a textview above the listview? I tried it by adding the code for textview above the listview. But then, only the textview gets displayed. 3) I have seen in many twitter clients that on clicking post a window pops up from the top covering only some portion of the screen and rest of the timeline is visible. How can this be done possibly without starting a new activity? Any help would be much appreciated..

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• Ant: use include and exclude together

  - by Ken

  OK, this seems like it should be really simple. I'm using Apache Ant 1.8, and I have a target which does: <delete file="output/program.tar.bz2"/> <tar basedir="input" destfile="output/program.tar.bz2" compression="bzip2"> <tarfileset dir="input"> <include name="goodfolder1/**"/> <include name="goodfolder2/**"/> <exclude name="**/badfile"/> <exclude name="**/*.badext"/> </tarfileset> </tar> I want it to make a .tar.bz2 of input/goodfolder1 and input/goodfolder2, excluding files named "badfile", and excluding files with extension ".badext". It's giving me a .tar.bz2, but it's including badfile and *.badext -- the excludes seem to be ignored. The order of include/exclude doesn't seem to make a difference. I tried wrapping the includes/excludes in a (the docs say it's implicit?), but it made no difference. I'm sure there's something simple I'm missing, since the manual has a very similar example, though in a somewhat different context. EDIT: It looks like it could be related to the dir="input" attribute: it's adding everything in "input", and then adding everything in the tarfileset to that. Files I want appear twice in the program.tar.bz2, but files that are excluded only appear once. But dir is mandatory, and I don't see how this is different from the examples in the manual.

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• How to enforce users to create objects of class derived from mine with "new" only?

  - by sharptooth

  To implement reference counting we use an IUnknown-like interface and a smart pointer template class. The interface has implementation for all the reference-count methods, including Release(): void IUnknownLike::Release() { if( --refCount == 0 ) { delete this; } } The smart pointer template class has a copy constructor and an assignment operator both accepting raw pointers. So users can do the following: class Class : public IUnknownLike { }; void someFunction( CSmartPointer<Class> object ); //whatever function Class object; someFunction( &object ); and the program runs into undefined behavior - the object is created with reference count zero, the smart pointer is constructed and bumps it to one, then the function returns, smart pointer is destroyed, calls Release() which leads to delete of a stack-allocated variable. Users can as well do the following: struct COuter { //whatever else; Class inner;// IUnknownLike descendant }; COuter object; somefunction( &object.Inner ); and again an object not created with new is deleted. Undefined behavior at its best. Is there any way to change the IUnknownLike interface so that the user is forced to use new for creating all objects derived from IUnknownLike - both directly derived and indirectly derived (with classes in between the most derived and the base)?

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• Cannot connect to SQL Server from ASP.NET MVC app

  - by Dan Fergus

  I have an ASP.NET MVC app that has on a hosted server for over a year, connecting to SQL Server. I've had to change hosting services, the new one supports MVC 1.0. I've also moved a non MVC ASP app to the same hosting service. Now, MY MVC based app retturnes this error when I try to validate a user login. A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) Now, the non-MVC app can access the exact same database and authenticate users just fine. The MVC app, when run from my dev box connects fine. It also run/connects/authenticates without problem when I install and run the site from an internal SQL 2008 server running IIS 7. I, along with the hosting support techs, am at a loss how the exact same connect string works every where except on the hosted server, and only when run from inside an ASP.NET MVC web app. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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• Unpredictable CCK field name in returned View data

  - by AK

  I'm using views_get_view_result to directly access the data in a view. I've stumbled upon this odd behavior where cck fields are prefixed with the first field name as a query optimization. Explained here. What's bizarre though is that fields are named differently depending on whether I retrieve that data as Anonymous or as Admin. I'm pretty sure all my permissions are set up, and the view itself has no restrictions. What is going on here? This is a big problem since I can't know how to retrieve a field. Here's a dump of the two view results. Notice that node_data_field_game_date_field_game_home_score_value != node_data_field_game_official_field_game_home_score_value. // View as Admin stdClass Object ( [nid] => 3191 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_date_value] => 2010-03-27T00:00:00 [node_type] => game [node_vid] => 5039 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_official_value] => 0 [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_title] => TeamA [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_nid] => 3396 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_home_score_value] => 68 [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_title] => TeamB [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_nid] => 3442 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_visitor_score_value] => 118 ) // View as Anonymous stdClass Object ( [nid] => 3191 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_date_value] => 2010-03-27T00:00:00 [node_type] => game [node_vid] => 5039 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_official_value] => 0 [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_title] => TeamA [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_nid] => 3396 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_home_score_value] => 68 [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_title] => TeamB [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_nid] => 3442 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_visitor_score_value] => 118 )

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• How to wait until location is completely found? (Core Location)

  - by sudo rm -rf

  Hello. I have a problem within my app. I'm trying to find the user's location to the best preciseness in order to determine their zip-code. Currently I have a button that, when pressed, starts a method named locateMe. -(IBAction)locateMe; { self.locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; locationManager.delegate = self; locationManager.desiredAccuracy = kCLLocationAccuracyBest; [locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; Then I've implemented didUpdateToLocation: -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation; { NSLog(@"Found location! %f,%f",newLocation.coordinate.latitude,newLocation.coordinate.longitude); } I had previously done much more complicated stuff in didUpdateToLocation but as I tested some things I realized that the first location it found was not precise in the least. So, I put the NSLog call in there and it gave me an output similar to below... Found location! 39.594093,-98.614834 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 As you can see, it first gives me a value which is not correct, which was causing problems within my app because it wasn't giving the correct location. So, here's my question. Is there any way I can wait for the location manager to finish finding the most precise location? Thanks in advance! EDIT: I'm wanting something like this: if (newLocation.horizontalAccuracy <= locationManager.desiredAccuracy) { } But it never gets called!

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• How to implement jsf validator?

  - by Krishna

  HI, I want to know how to implement Validator in JSF. What is the advantages of declaring the validator-id. When it will be called in the life cycle?. I have implemented the following code. Please find out what is wrong in the code. I am not seeing it called anywhere in the life cycle. <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE faces-config PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD JavaServer Faces Config 1.1//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-facesconfig_1_1.dtd"> <faces-config> <lifecycle> <phase-listener>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfPhaseListener</phase-listener> </lifecycle> <validator> <validator-id>JsfValidator</validator-id> <validator-class>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfValidator</validator-class> </validator> <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>jsfBean</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>javabeat.net.beans.ManagedBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>request</managed-bean-scope> </managed-bean> <navigation-rule> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>success</from-outcome> <to-view-id>success.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case> </navigation-rule> </faces-config> public class JsfValidator implements Validator { public JsfValidator() { System.out.println("Inside JsfValidator Constructor"); } @Override public void validate(FacesContext facesContext, UIComponent uiComponent, Object object) throws ValidatorException { System.out.println("Inside Validator"); } }

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• Polling servers at the same port - Threads and Java

  - by John

  Hi there. I'm currently busy working on an IP ban tool for the early versions of Call of Duty 1. (Apparently such a feature wasn't implemented in these versions). I've finished a single threaded application but it won't perform well enough for multiple servers, which is why I am trying to implement threading. Right now, each server has its own thread. I have a Networking class, which has a method; "GetStatus" -- this method is synchronized. This method uses a DatagramSocket to communicate with the server. Since this method is static and synchronized, I shouldn't get in trouble and receive a whole bunch of "Address already in use" exceptions. However, I have a second method named "SendMessage". This method is supposed to send a message to the server. How can I make sure "SendMessage" cannot be invoked when there's already a thread running in "GetStatus", and the other way around? If I make both synchronized, I will still get in trouble if Thread A is opening a socket on Port 99999 and invoking "SendMessage" while Thread B is opening a socket on the same port and invoking "GetStatus"? (Game servers are usually hosted on the same ports) I guess what I am really after is a way to make an entire class synchronized, so that only one method can be invoked and run at a time by a single thread. Hope that what I am trying to accomplish/avoid is made clear in this text. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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• once again..."$ is not defined" - trying to implement sIFR

  - by supervision

  Hey Guys, my file beginning looks like this: <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>My title</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css" /> <script src="js/update.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <!-- sifr --> <link href="sifr207/sIFR-screen.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" /> <script src="sifr207/sifr.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { if(typeof sIFR == "function") { sIFR.replaceElement("sifr", named({sFlashSrc: "sIFR-2.0.7/corporateacon-reg.swf", sColor: "#FF0000" , sWmode: "transparent"})); }; }); </script> <!-- --> </head> I really do not understand why the '$(document).ready(function()' is not found, because I implement sifr.js BEFORE that call. Any suggestions? I would appriciate it, really! shoutz, supervision

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• How can I define an empty array in a Perl construtor?

  - by Laimoncijus

  I am just beginner with Perl, so if it sounds stupid - sorry for that :) My problem is - I am trying to write a class, which has an empty array, defined in constructor of a class. So I am doing this like this: package MyClass; use strict; sub new { my ($C) = @_; my $self = { items => () }; bless $self, ref $C || $C; } sub get { return $_[0]->{items}; } 1; Later I am testing my class with simple script: use strict; use Data::Dumper; use MyClass; my $o = MyClass->new(); my @items = $o->get(); print "length = ", scalar(@items), "\n", Dumper(@items); And while running the script I get following: $ perl my_test.pl length = 1 $VAR1 = undef; Why am I doing wrong what causes that I get my items array filled with undef? Maybe someone could show me example how the class would need to be defined so I would not get any default values in my array?

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• Intermittent Issue Writing to Google Appengine Datastore

  - by user242153

  Hi, I have a functioning app and recently have had intermittent problems writing to the datastore. I did not make any relevant code changes, however in the last few days my attempts to write to the datastore sometimes work and sometimes don't. I am trying to save an object that is in a many to one relationship with an existing persisted parent. So, the logic works like this: 1) Parent pulled from the datastore 2) Child created / instantiated using constructor 3) Parent.addSingleChild(child); // the "addSingleChild" method just adds the object argument to the collection of children 4) child.setParent(Parent); // sets the Parent object to the parent field I am using transactions as explained in the documentation ending with "finally {if (tx.isActive()) {tx.rollback(); } }" When the servlet is called, the parent is called from the datastore and the child object is created and added to the many to one mapping to the pre-existing parent. The child should automatically be persisted, since the parent is already persistent, and the child is added to the collection of children that map to the parent. And it worked this way in the past. However, to be sure, i did add a pm.makePersistent(child). Doesn't seem to help, still have the intermittent problem. Any suggestions would be appreciated, and if you need to see the actual code I can post. Thanks

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• ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

  - by aspCoolguy

  My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

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• mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

  - by axeoth

  See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

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• Java Concurrency in practice sample question

  - by andy boot

  I am reading "Java Concurrency in practice" and looking at the example code on page 51. This states that if a thread has references to a shared object then other threads may be able to access that object before the constructor has finished executing. I have tried to put this into practice and so I wrote this code thinking that if I ran it enough times a RuntimeException("World is f*cked") would occur. But it isn't doing. Is this a case of the Java spec not guaranting something but my particular implementation of java guaranteeing it for me? (java version: 1.5.0 on Ubuntu) Or have I misread something in the book? Code: (I expect an exception but it is never thrown) public class Threads { private Widgit w; public static void main(String[] s) throws Exception { while(true){ Threads t = new Threads(); t.runThreads(); } } private void runThreads() throws Exception{ new Checker().start(); w = new Widgit((int)(Math.random() * 100) + 1); } private class Checker extends Thread{ private static final int LOOP_TIMES = 1000; public void run() { int count = 0; for(int i = 0; i < LOOP_TIMES; i++){ try { w.checkMe(); count++; } catch(NullPointerException npe){ //ignore } } System.out.println("checked: "+count+" times out of "+LOOP_TIMES); } } private static class Widgit{ private int n; private int n2; Widgit(int n) throws InterruptedException{ this.n = n; Thread.sleep(2); this.n2 = n; } void checkMe(){ if (n != n2) { throw new RuntimeException("World is f*cked"); } } } }

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• CSS- How to align background image over bottom border line? Jsfiddle included

  - by John Robinson

  I have an image I am trying to display over the top of a bottom border, but it is being arranged behind the bottom border element (in this example, named "divider"), and I can't get it to align correctly. I would like the image to be displayed in the middle of the the border element and over the top of it. Vertically, I am trying to get the 1px line on the left and right side of the image to align with the 1px border to appear as if it is one element. Here is the code: .divider { border-bottom: 1px solid #c3c3c3; clear: both; display: block; margin-bottom: 20px; padding-top: 20px; width: 100%; } .sidearrow { background: url(http://s16.postimage.org/sbf7v9n75/sidearrow.png) 50% 14px no-repeat; width: 100%; height: 25px; }? <p>Here is some content above</p> <div class="sidearrow"></div> <div class="divider"></div> <p>Here is some content below</p>? And the jsfiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/F5xjx/2/ Any ideas how to get this to work? Thanks in advance.

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• IE "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected"

  - by Stephen Borg

  Hi there, I have problems with regards to javascript only when using IE. The error I am getting is "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" and I have no idea why. It is then jumping into the JQuery 1.4.2 file, without giving me a proper error message. All I am doing is simply reading on page load the raw URL, and getting a query string named Search. Using that in an AJAX call to return products and put then into a DIV. No biggies, but somehow IE is managing to blow my page up :-( Any ideas? Code as follows : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function (e) { $('.boxLoader').show(); function getParameterByName(name) { name = name.replace(/[\[]/, "\\\[").replace(/[\]]/, "\\\]"); var regexS = "[\\?&]" + name + "=([^&#]*)"; var regex = new RegExp(regexS); var results = regex.exec(window.location.href); if (results == null) return ""; else return decodeURIComponent(results[1].replace(/\+/g, " ")); } var Search; Search = getParameterByName("search"); $('#searchCriteria').text(Search); $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: Search }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); $('#searchBox').live("click", function () { $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: $('#searchCriteria').val() }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); }); }); </script>

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• ObjectiveC - Releasing objects added as parameters

  - by NobleK

  Ok, here goes. Being a Java developer I'm still struggling with the memory management in ObjectiveC. I have all the basics covered, but once in a while I encounter a challenge. What I want to do is something which in Java would look like this: MyObject myObject = new MyObject(new MyParameterObject()); The constructor of MyObject class takes a parameter of type MyParameterObject which I initiate on-the-fly. In ObjectiveC I tried to do this using following code: MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[MyParameterObject alloc] init]]; However, running the Build and Analyze tool this gives me a "Potential leak of an object" warning for the MyParameter object which indeed occurs when I test it using Instruments. I do understand why this happens since I am taking ownership of the object with the alloc method and not relinquishing it, I just don't know the correct way of doing it. I tried using MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[[MyParameterObject alloc] init] autorelease]]; but then the Analyze tool told me that "Object sent -autorelease too many times". I could solve the issue by modifying the init method of MyParameterObject to say return [self autorelease]; in stead of just return self;. Analyze still warnes about a potential leak, but it doesn't actually occur. However I believe that this approach violates the convention for managing memory in ObjectiveC and I really want to do it the right way. Thanx in advance.

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• Serializing Configurations for a Dependency Injection / Inversion of Control

  - by Joshua Starner

  I've been researching Dependency Injection and Inversion of Control practices lately in an effort to improve the architecture of our application framework and I can't seem to find a good answer to this question. It's very likely that I have my terminology confused, mixed up, or that I'm just naive to the concept right now, so any links or clarification would be appreciated. Many examples of DI and IoC containers don't illustrate how the container will connect things together when you have a "library" of possible "plugins", or how to "serialize" a given configuration. (From what I've read about MEF, having multiple declarations of [Export] for the same type will not work if your object only requires 1 [Import]). Maybe that's a different pattern or I'm blinded by my current way of thinking. Here's some code for an example reference: public abstract class Engine { } public class FastEngine : Engine { } public class MediumEngine : Engine { } public class SlowEngine : Engine { } public class Car { public Car(Engine e) { engine = e; } private Engine engine; } This post talks about "Fine-grained context" where 2 instances of the same object need different implementations of the "Engine" class: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2176833/ioc-resolve-vs-constructor-injection Is there a good framework that helps you configure or serialize a configuration to achieve something like this without hard coding it or hand-rolling the code to do this? public class Application { public void Go() { Car c1 = new Car(new FastEngine()); Car c2 = new Car(new SlowEngine()); } } Sample XML: <XML> <Cars> <Car name="c1" engine="FastEngine" /> <Car name="c2" engine="SlowEngine" /> </Cars> </XML>

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